Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Micro Exam 3 > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the light source diaphragm on the microscope

A

On the bottom, where light comes from

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where is the condenser diaphragm on a microscope

A

Under the stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is the reostat on a microscope

A

It’s below the power button on the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

describe an agar plate

A

good for surface area. pure cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are agar slants used for

A

storing cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are agar deep’s good for?

A

showing if the organism is motile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are CFU’s?

A

Colony forming units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

in a standard plate count, what are you reading?

A

the colony forming units (CFU’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is Mannitol salts selective, differential, or both?

A

both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If there is growth in Mannitol salts, what does that mean the organism can survive in?

A

in salt, (its a halodore)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when the pH goes down in Mannitol salts, what color will it turn?

A

yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why would Mannitol salts turn yellow?

A

The mannitol fermented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Is MaConkey agar selective, differential, or both?

A

both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If bacteria grows in MaConkey agar, is it gram (+) or (-)

A

(-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the MaConkey agar plate test for?

A

If lactose fermentation occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What color will the MaConkey agar turn if it ferments?

A

red/pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does the starch hydrolysis test test for?

A

if the organism can eat starch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what does the starch hydrolysis test use?

A

starch + iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

if the starch hydrolysis plate clears up and has no color, what does that mean?

A

the bacteria CAN hydrolyze (eat starch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

is the starch hydrolysis plate differential, selective, or both?

A

differential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does an oxidase test look for?

A

cytochrome C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what color will show is cytochrome C is present in the oxidase test? meaning it is oxidase positive

A

Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

in a catalase test, what do you add?

A

hydrogen peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

is bubbles result in the catalase test, what does that mean?

A

it is catalase positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

the oxidase and catalase tests are both what kind of tests?

A

complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

mannitol salts test is selective for what

A

halodures (KEEP STUDYING!!!!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

mannitol salts test is differential for what?

A

mannitol fermentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

macConkey test is selective for what?

A

gram (-) growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

macConkey test is differential for what?

A

lactose fermentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What test is tested on a blood plate?

A

hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

if the blood agar turns green, what does that tell you? (2 things)

A

its Alpha (a) and it is incomplete hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

if the blood agar turns clear, what does that tell you? (2 things)

A

complete lysis occured in the red cells of media, its Beta (b)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If the blood agar has no change, what does that tell you?

A

it’s gamma, no hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what do coloforms look like when they grow?

A

metallic green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When measuring a zone of inhibition, how is it measured?

A

in milimeters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

do you want susceptibility in antibiotics?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

does alcohol kill spores?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what do gram stains the properties of?

A

the cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are the steps to a heat fix? (7 steps)

A

1) prepare the smear (loopful of water on slide, place bacteria and smear, let dry)
2) heat fix (over bunson burner x 3)
3) crystal violet (1 min)
4) Iodine (1 min)
5) alcohol (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what does heat fixing do to the bacteria? (3)

A

1) kills bacteria
2) adheres bacteria to slide
3) denatures proteins in membrane, making bacteria porous so state can penetrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

is gram positive or negative stained purple?

A

positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is epidemiology the study of?

A

where and when diseases occur and how they’re transmitted within populations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

define incidence

A

the # of new cases of a disease in a given area or population during a given period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

define prevalence

A

amount over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

define endemic

A

a natural occurrence in the area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

define sporadic

A

occurring at irregular intervals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

define epidemic

A

when a disease occurs more often than normal for an area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how far (over land) is an epidemic before it becomes a pandemic?

A

epidemics refer to 1 continent, not country

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is a pandemic

A

disease that spreads over more than 1 continent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are 2 types of nosocomial infections?

A

exogenous
endogenous
latrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is an exogenous infection?

A

caused by pathogens acquired from healthcare environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is an endogenous infection?

A

they arise from normal microbiota in patient and become pathogenic because of factors in the health care setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are latrogenic infections

A

a direct result from a medical procedure. (use of catheters, surgery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is LD

A

lethal dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is ID

A

infectious dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are 3 contact transmission examples in infectious disease

A

direct, indirect, droplet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

examples of direct transmission

A

handshaking, kissing, sexual intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

examples of indirect transmission

A

through an inanimate object

59
Q

example of droplet transmission

60
Q

what are 3 vehicle transmissions for infectious disease?

A

airborne, waterborne, foodborne

61
Q

what is an example of airborne transmission

A

dust particles

62
Q

example of waterborne transmission

A

streams, pools

63
Q

example of foodborne transmission

A

poultry, seafood, meat

64
Q

what does vector mean in vector transmission of infectious disease

A

vectors are animals that transmit diseases from one hose to another.

65
Q

what 2 things does vector transmission get broken down into?

A

mechanical and biologcial

66
Q

whats (vector) mechanical transmission?

A

the animal did not bite you, but physically moved the disease to you. like a fly throwing up on us.

67
Q

HI CHASE!

68
Q

whats (vector) biological transmission?

A

the animal bites. like lice, mites, mosquito’s, ticks

69
Q

whats the first line of defense for our immune system?

A

mechanical (skin) and chemical (stomach-gastric juices)

70
Q

whats the 2nd line of defense for our immune system?

A

all the physiological stuff

71
Q

what makes up innate immunity?

A

the first 2 lines of defense

72
Q

nonspecific defenses are also called what

73
Q

specific immunity is also called what?

74
Q

what is phagocytosis

A

(eating bacteria) ingestion of foreign particles by phagocytes

75
Q

what are phagocytes

A

types of WBC or derivatives, aka leukocytes

76
Q

what is in the outer membrane of ALL gram neg bacteria?

77
Q

what are leukocytes?

A

white blood cells

78
Q

what makes up the majority of WBC

A

neutrophils

79
Q

what is the first cell type that reaches an injury?

A

neutrophils

80
Q

are neutrophils powerful?

81
Q

can neutrophils phagocytose?

82
Q

what happens once neutrophils complete their jobs?

83
Q

what do neutrophils do in regards to communications?

A

tells the rest of the system whats going on through cytokines

84
Q

can eosinophils phagocytose?

A

NO CHASE THEY CANT!

85
Q

what are eosinophils involved in?

A

eliminating parasites

86
Q

can macrophages phagocytose?

87
Q

what do macrophages tell our immune system?

A

how to fight the infection

88
Q

what are dendritic cells?

A

specialized macrophages

89
Q

who do the dendritic cells talk to?

A

the specific immune system, specifically B & T cells

90
Q

what is opsonization

A

process by which a pathogen is marked for ingestion and eliminated by a phagocyte

91
Q

what do interferons work on and what do they do to them?

A

all virus’s, slow down genetics of the cell

92
Q

inflammation is what kind of defense?

93
Q

what is inflammation (whats physically happening)

A

vasodialtion

94
Q

what happens to your vessels when you have a fever

A

vasocontriction

95
Q

what is fever caused by?

96
Q

what are 2 reasons your body generates a fever?

A

some pathogens don’t do well in heat

immune system works better in higher temps

97
Q

what 2 things are associated with our primary immune system? (specific immunity)

A

bone marrow, thymus

98
Q

what 2 things are associated with our secondary immune system? (specific immunity)

A

lymph nodes, spleen

99
Q

what 3 roles do non-specific immunity play

A
  • prevent infection
  • contain infection until immunity can clear it
  • present antigens (dendritic, machrtophages) to the specific immune system
100
Q

what is our 3rd line of defense?

101
Q

what are antigens?

A

a piece of the pathogen that the specific immune system can recognize

102
Q

where do B lymphocytes arise and mature?

A

in bone marrow

103
Q

what cell makes antibodies?

104
Q

antibodies AKA

A

immunoglobulins

105
Q

what are 4 functions of antibodies

A
  • neutralize, prevent virus from doing anything
  • opsonization, bind to bacteria and target it for phagocytosis
  • agglutination, clumps the pathogen
  • compliment, an antibody can kill bacteria directly
106
Q

whats the first B cell made?

107
Q

can IgM cross the placenta?

108
Q

what do IgM cells do?

A

starts compliment

109
Q

what is the most abundant and soluble B cell?

110
Q

which B cell do we not know the function of?

111
Q

what to IgA cells do?

A

it goes into harsh environments and resists degradation

112
Q

what do IgE cells do and what’s it related to?

A

binds to mast cells and related to allergies

113
Q

where do T cells mature

114
Q

what do T cells make?

A

antibodies

115
Q

where are T cells made?

A

bone marrow

116
Q

what do T cells release?

117
Q

how many antigens can the T cell receptor recognize?

A

just one, chase, just one!

118
Q

what do helper T cells do? (2 things)

A

activate B cells and tell b cells which antibody to make

119
Q

what do cytotoxic t cells do?

A

tell our cells to kill themselves (its infected)

120
Q

in immunity memory, how long is the initial response?

121
Q

in immunity memory, how long is the memory response?

122
Q

which type of vaccine is best?

A

attenuated live vaccines

123
Q

whats an inactivated vaccine?

A

dead virus, second best

124
Q

what is a subunit vaccine

A

uses just a piece of the virus

125
Q

what is a toxoid virus?

A

uses a piece of the toxin, chemically or thermally modified

126
Q

what kind of disease is pertussis

127
Q

why are infants at risk for pertussis

A

their immunity isnt completely there yet

128
Q

why dont we give the TB vaccine in america?

A

its expensive and then everyone would show positive and require a chest xray

129
Q

endotoxins AKA

130
Q

what are 2 types of toxins?

A

endotoxins and exotoxins

131
Q

what are fomites

A

inanimate objects that are inadvertently used to transfer pathogens to new hosts

132
Q

examples of fomites (3)

A

needles, toothbrushes, medical equipment

133
Q

what are reservoirs of infections

A

sites where pathogens are maintained

134
Q

what are 3 types of reservoirs

A

animals, humans, and nonliving reservoirs

135
Q

what is resident flora (4)

A
  • permanent residence
  • do not produce disease
  • normal
  • maintains balance
136
Q

what is transient flora (3 plus one example)

A
  • temporary
  • not normally in the body
  • not always bad
  • like bacteria in yogurt
137
Q

what is mutualism

A

both organisms benifit

138
Q

what is commensalism

A

one organism benefits, the other is not effected

139
Q

what is neutralism

A

not a true relationship

140
Q

what is microbial antagonism

A

production of bacteriocides, what happens with normal flora

141
Q

what is parasitism

A

one organisms benefits at the others expense

142
Q

whats an example of a lichen

A

fungus, algae

143
Q

what 4 sites are void of microorganisms naturally

A
  • blood
  • lymph
  • spinal fluid
  • internal tissues and organs

Micro Exam 3 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions