Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

A broker-dealer is required to disclose which TWO of the following items in the Financial and Operational Data of FOCUS Part II?
I. Corporate fails to deliver 5 business days or older
II. Corporate fails to deliver 11 business days or older
III. Municipal fails to deliver 15 business days or older
IV. Municipal security fails to deliver 21 business days or older
a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV

A

D- Under the Financial and Operational Data for the broker dealer, fails to deliver 11 business days or older for corporate securities, and 21 business days for municipal securities are disclosed.

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2
Q
Persons required to sign the FOCUS Report include the:
I.	Principal Executive Officer
II.	Principal Financial Officer
III.	Principal Operations Officer
a.	I only
b.	I and II only
c.	II and II only
d.	I, II, and III
A

D- All three of these designated officers are required to sign the FOCUS Report.

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3
Q

A broker-dealer calculating net capital under the alternative method has aggregate debit items of $12,600,000. According to Rule 17a-11, a report must be filed if the firm’s net capital falls below:

a. $250,000
b. $300,000
c. $302,400
d. $630,000

A

D- Under the alternative computation, if the net capital falls below 5% of the aggregate debits, an early warning notice must be sent to the appropriate regulatory authorities. In this case, 5% of $12,600,000 is $630,000

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4
Q

A broker-dealer computes net capital under the alternative method. It has aggregate debit items of $15,000,000. Which of the following would represent its minimum net capital requirement?

a. $250,000
b. $300,000
c. $325,000
d. $625,000

A

B- Under the alternative computation, minimum net capital is 2% of the aggregate debit items, as found in the reserve calculation. 2% of $15,000,000 is $300,000.

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5
Q

Engulf Securities has acquired Lethargic Investments Inc. on November 5. Lethargic had filed FOCUS Part II on October 17. Engulf is required to file FOCUS Part II no later than November 17. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
I. An audited statement of financial conditions will be required for the November 17 filing.
II. The November FOCUS Part II filing will not include Lethargic Investments.
III. The November FOCUS Part II filing must include Lethargic Investments.
IV. The auditor’s statement will be required based on the earliest fiscal year end of Engulf or Lethargic.
a. I and III only
b. II only
c. III and IV only
d. II and IV only

A

D- Engulf Securities’ required FOCUS Part II filing date is 17 calendar days after the quarter’s end (October 31). Engulf acquired Lethargic Investments on November 5. Engulf would not include Lethargic in the FOCUS Part II filing. When a broker-dealer acquires or succeeds another broker-dealer, the annual audited financial statement is required based on the earliest fiscal year-end of either broker-dealer.

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6
Q

Visigoth LLC is an introducing broker-dealer and has a minimum net capital requirement of $5,000. Visigoth clears through Charlemagne Securities Inc. A customer has made a payment for a security transaction. The check has been made payable to Visigoth LLC. Which of the following statements indicates the proper course of action?

a. Visigoth may accept the check and forward it to Charlemagne Securities, but must inform its customer, in writing, of the correct payment procedure.
b. Visigoth must return the check to the customer and instruct him to make payment directly to Charlemagne Securities.
c. Visigoth may accept and deposit the check provided it promptly transmits the funds to Charlemagne Securities.
d. Visigoth must notify Charlemagne Securities while the clearing member will decide whether the check must be returned or may be forwarded.

A

A- The net capital requirement of a broker-dealer that receives, but does not hold, customer funds or securities is $50,000. However, an allowance for the unusual cases (such as described in this question) permits a broker-dealer maintaining less than $50,000 net capital to accept customer’s checks for payment, which have erroneously been sent to the introducing broker-dealer. The broker-dealer who accepts the customer’s check is required to provide written instructions to its customer indicating the proper method of future payments.

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7
Q

Wireless Security Trading (WST) has begun an investor education campaign by purchasing a recreational vehicle and outfitting it as a working trading floor. The cost of the vehicle and equipment is $450,000. WST paid $150,000 and obtained a loan on the RV for $300,000. How will WST account for this investment?
I. A $150,000 nonallowable asset
II. A $450,000 nonallowable asset
III. No increase to aggregate indebtedness
IV. A $450,000 increase to aggregate indebtedness
a. I and III only
b. I and IV only
c. II and III only
d. II and IV only

A

C- Automobiles, boats, and aircraft are 100% nonallowable assets. Any broker-dealer liability secured by these assets will not be part of the broker-dealer’s aggregate indebtedness.

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8
Q

Flint, Stone & Sparks Investments is a general securities broker-dealer. Its most recent inventory revealed a short securities difference of $75,000 and a long securities difference of $10,000. It is now 30 days after the securities count. The securities representing the short difference are now valued at $80,000. The value of the long securities difference is now $7,000. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. The firm’s aggregate indebtedness has increased by $65,000.
b. The firm’s aggregate indebtedness is unchanged.
c. The firm’s net capital must be reduced by $73,000.
d. The record breaks must be reported to the broker-dealer’s DEA within 24 hours.

A

B- Unresolved short securities differences do not become part of a broker-dealer’s aggregate indebtedness after 30 days. The broker-dealer is required to establish a reserve to replace the missing securities. Replacement is required within 45 calendar days of the inventory.

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9
Q

All of the following statements regarding filing requests for extensions of a broker-dealer’s audited financial statements are TRUE EXCEPT:

a. The request must include a letter from the broker-dealer’s independent auditor
b. A request must be made at least three business days preceding the due date of the report
c. The request must state the amount of additional time requested, but may not exceed 45 days
d. The request must describe the measures to be implemented to assure there will be no further delay recurrences

A

C- A request for an extension may not exceed 30 days from the due date of the report. The report containing the audited financial statements is due within 60 days of fiscal year-end. An extension could extend the filing period to a maximum of 90 days past year-end. A broker-dealer is required to send a copy of its audited statement of financial condition to its customers no later than 45 days after the filing of its annual report

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10
Q

A broker-dealer must retain all of the following records for 6 years, EXCEPT:

a. Currency Transaction Report
b. Municipal securities customer complaints
c. Daybooks
d. Margin agreements

A

A- Currency Transaction Reports (CTRs) (reports for currency transactions exceeding $10,000) must be retained for 5 years. Municipal securities broker-dealers must retain customer complaints for 6 years, while under FINRA rules, records of written customer complaints must be retained for 4 years. Daybooks (also known as blotters, diaries, or journals) and customer agreements (which include margin agreements) are 6-year records

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11
Q

Which of the following actions, conditions, or verifications are required during a broker-dealer’s inventory count as specified in SEC Rule 17a-13?
I. A physical examination and count of all securities held
II. A verification of all securities in transit
III. An accounting of all securities held in approved depositories
IV. A verification of all securities subject to repurchase agreements
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II and III only
d. I, II, III, and IV

A

D- The broker-dealer’s quarterly inventory (box count) according to Rule 17a-13 requires a physical count of all securities held by the broker-dealer. It also requires the verification of securities in transfer or transit, as well as securities held in a control location. This would include depositories. A fail to deliver, a fail to receive, and securities subject to repurchase or reverse repurchase agreements must be verified. Securities loaned, pledged, and borrowed must also be verified during the box count.

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12
Q

Which of the following forms is used for reporting to the SIC?

a. Form X-17f-1A
b. Form 17a-11
c. Form 15c3-3
d. Form X-17A-5

A

A- According to SEC Rule 17-f-1, reports to the Securities Information Center are required on Form X -17f-1A. Choices (b) and (c) relate to important SEC Rules. 17a-11 requires reporting for net capital violations, early warning and supplemental reporting for noncurrent books and records, and material deficiencies in the method of a broker-dealer’s accounting. Rule 15c3-3 is the Customer Protection Rule. There are numerous X-17A-5 forms. They are more commonly referred to as FOCUS reports.

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13
Q

Which of the following points are NOT associated with a minor rule violation (MRV)?

a. A maximum fine of $2,500
b. Egregious misconduct involving customers
c. Record-keeping irregularities
d. Technical deficiencies

A

B- Minor Rule Violations (MRVs) include technical violations of rules such as reporting and record-keeping deficiencies. The maximum fine is $2,500. Actions of an egregious nature involving customers are not minor violations and would begin with a prehearing conference followed by a hearing, decisions, and (possible) sanctions. It is also worth noting that FINRA does not issue injunctions, nor may its sanctions include imprisonment.

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14
Q

Half and Nelson Leverage Capital Inc. currently maintain long call positions in the following securities:
120 at-the-money contracts LHVZ Oct 65 @ 3.50
16 in-the-money contracts PLUM Nov 45 @ 12.10
320 out-of-the-money contracts SLIB Nov 70 @ 1.20
What is the broker-dealer’s required haircut on these positions?
a. $14,964
b. $38,400
c. $49,880
d. $99,760

A

C- Haircuts on long option positions are 50% of the market value of the premium.
120 contracts x $350 = $42,000 x 50% = $21,000
16 contract x $1,210 = $19,360 x 50% = $9,680
320 contracts x $120 = $38,400 x 50% = $19,200
Total haircut = $49,880

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15
Q

Andrews, Lowell, Barbican & Co., a registered broker-dealer has the following positions in J. Verne Publishing (JVP):
5,000 shares of JVP, current market value 67.50
50 short JVP covered calls, exercise price 65 @ 4.75
What is the total haircut on this stock and option position?
a. $11,250
b. $26,875
c. $38,125
d. $50,625

A

C- Covered calls require a 15% haircut on the stock position, which is reduced by the amount that the options are in-the-money. In this case the option contracts are in the money by 2.50 points, which amounts to $250 per contract. The calculations for the haircuts are:
5,000 x $67.50 = $337,500 x 15% = $50,625
$50,625 - ($250 x 50) =
$50,625 - $12,500 = $38,125
Total Haircut = $38,125

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16
Q

Stallion, Trotter and Gelding Investments have the following proprietary positions:
Long 1,000 shares of Horsefeathers Mattresses Inc. (HFM) at 42
Long 10 HFM Apr 40 puts @ 1.75
What is the required haircut based on this hedged stock position?
a. 0
b. $2,000
c. $6,300
d. $7,175

A

B- The haircut on a hedged position is the lesser of 15% of the market value of the stock ($42 x 1,000 = $42,000 x 15% = $6,300) not to exceed the out-of-the-money amount of the option. In this example, the maximum loss is 2 points per share. This amounts to a maximum potential loss of $2,000.

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17
Q
Ali, Frazier & Co. is an introducing broker-dealer that has a PAIB with the member firm that conducts its clearing. Ali, Frazier & Co. has the following proprietary positions in Manila Paper and Corrugated Box Co. (MPB):
Short 500 shares of MPB at 37 
Long 5 MPB Feb 35 calls @ 4.75
What is the required haircut for this stock and option position?
a.	0
b.	$1,000
c.	$2,300
d.	$2,775
A

A- A short stock and long call create a hedged position. The haircut is based on the lesser of 15% of the contract value of the stock position ($37 x 500 = $18,500 x 15% = $2,775) or the maximum potential loss for the position. Since the call option can be exercised at 35, the stock can be acquired at a price lower than the contract sale value of the stock (37). The position would result in a gain upon exercise of the option. As such, the haircut is 0.

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18
Q

Jay Quest is a general securities principal at Race and Banyan Investments. It is brought to his attention that today account G31-5668 deposited $3,000 at the OSJ at 9:35 a.m. At 11:15 a.m., $5,500 was deposited into the account. Finally, at 3:30 p.m., $7,000 was deposited into the account. All deposits were made in cash. Which of the following deposits must be reported?

a. None of the deposits
b. Each deposit over $5,000
c. The third deposit only
d. All of the deposits

A

D- Deposits of currency exceeding $10,000 on a single day must be reported to the Department of the Treasury on FinCEN Form 104. The deposit of amounts smaller than $10,000 would be aggregated and, in this case, reported as $15,500. The practice of depositing amounts below the reporting threshold is called structuring.

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19
Q

A member firm must review the adequacy of its fidelity bond based on its net capital requirement:

a. Annually, on the anniversary date of the issuance of the bond
b. Quarterly, on the fifteenth day of the last month in the quarter
c. Biannually, on a date set by FINRA
d. Only if the firm falls below its net capital requirement within the year

A

A- A member firm is required to review its fidelity bond annually on the anniversary date of the issuance of the original bond. The firm must review its highest net capital requirement for the past 12 months and use that amount to determine the fidelity bond requirement for the upcoming 12 months.

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20
Q

A brokerage firm with a net capital requirement of $250,000 must maintain a fidelity bond coverage of:

a. $250,000
b. $5,000,000
c. $12,000,000
d. $600,000

A

D- A broker-dealer that has a net capital of between $250,000 and $300,000 must maintain a minimum fidelity bond coverage of $600,000. The maximum amount of coverage is $5,000,000 for member firms whose net capital exceeds $12,000,000.

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21
Q

A brokerage firm with a net capital requirement of $50,000 must maintain a fidelity bond of:

a. $60,000
b. $100,000
c. $250,000
d. $600,000

A

B- A broker-dealer that has a net capital of less than $250,000 must maintain a minimum coverage which is the greater of 120% of the members net capital requirement or $100,000. 120% of $50,000 is $60,000, which is less than $100,000.

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22
Q

Prime Partners Brokerage has a tentative net capital of $2,500,000. In its inventory, Prime Partners is long 8,125 shares of Chester’s Chestnuts Inc. common stock at $40. What is Prime Partners’ obligation when computing its net capital?

a. Use the standard haircut for its inventory.
b. Use a smaller haircut for its inventory.
c. Make an undue concentration deduction.
d. Make a long securities difference record.

A

C- The standard haircut for common stock held in a broker-dealer’s inventory is 15%. However, if the inventory contains one security that accounts for a significant percentage of the market value of its total inventory, this puts the firm at extra risk if that security suddenly declines in value. Therefore, Rule 15c3-1 assesses an extra net capital charge, which is known as an undue concentration deduction. It applies if any long or short position is greater than 10% of the broker-dealer’s tentative net capital. The undue concentration rule requires an additional deduction on the amount in excess of the 10% threshold. In our example, Prime Partners has a tentative net capital of $2,500,000 and 8,125 shares of Chester’s Chestnuts, Inc., at $40 (a $325,000 value). The value of the common stock is greater than 10% of the tentative net capital.

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an introducing broker-dealer with a net capital requirement of $5,000?

a. It may accept customer funds and securities for immediate transfer.
b. It may not receive customer funds or customer securities.
c. It may accept customer funds but not customer securities.
d. It may accept customer securities but not customer funds.

A

B- An introducing broker-dealer that does not receive customer securities or customer funds is subject to a $5,000 minimum net capital requirement. An introducing broker-dealer that receives customer securities for immediate transfer to a clearing firm is subject to a minimum net capital requirement of $50,000. A broker-dealer that receives customer securities and customer funds is a general securities firm and is subject to a minimum net capital requirement of $250,000.

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24
Q

A fidelity bond does NOT cover which of the following incidents?

a. Forgery
b. Loss of securities
c. Errors and omissions
d. Fraudulent trading

A

C- FINRA members that are not members of an exchange are required to carry a blanket fidelity bond covering officers and employees that provides against losses (on premises or in transit), misplacement, forgery and alteration (including check forgery), loss of securities (including securities forgery), and fraudulent trading.

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25
Q

If a broker-dealer allows its customers to receive or transmit wire transfers, it must collect information about transfers for:

a. $1,000
b. $2,000
c. $2,500
d. $3,000

A

D- Broker-dealers who transfer or transmit funds (wire transfers) must collect information about any transfer of $3,000 or more, including the names of the transmitter and the recipient. Firms must also verify the identity of the transmitters and recipients who are not established customers.

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26
Q

Linda Holt is a registered representative at Peabody Financials. She has a client who makes transactions in his account that seem contradictory to his financial objectives. She thinks that the transactions may be related to illegal activity. Linda must file a Suspicious Activity Report when a transaction or group of transactions equals or exceeds:

a. $1,000
b. $2,500
c. $3,000
d. $5,000

A

D- A firm must file a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR) whenever a transaction (or group of transactions) equals or exceeds $5,000 and the firm suspects one of the following actions:
• The client is violating federal criminal laws.
• The transaction involves funds related to illegal activity.
• The transaction is designed to evade the reporting requirements (structured transactions).
• The transaction has no apparent business or other legitimate purpose, and the broker-dealer cannot determine any reasonable explanation after examining all the available facts and circumstances surrounding the transaction.

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27
Q

A broker-dealer must deposit payments associated with a contingency underwriting in an escrow account. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. The funds may be deposited in a money-market fund.
b. The funds must be deposited in an account established with a bank.
c. The funds may only be invested in T-bills.
d. The funds must be deposited in the Special Reserve Account.

A

B- The purchase payments associated with a contingency offering must be transmitted promptly to a bank that has agreed in writing to hold all such funds in escrow.

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28
Q

Leveraged Capital LLC is a general securities broker-dealer. On March 10, its net capital was $560,000 of which $420,000 was debt capital. 50 days later, the broker-dealer has the same debt to equity ratio. A violation of the debt to equity ratio will occur in:

a. 40 days
b. 41 days
c. 90 days
d. 91 days

A

B- A broker-dealer’s debt to equity ratio may not exceed 70% debt for a period greater than 90 days. Leveraged Capital’s debt to equity ratio has been 75% debt ($420,000 / $560,000) and 25% equity for 50 days. If the debt ratio were not reduced, a violation would occur in 41 days.

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29
Q

Broker-dealer Z receives notification from its insurance carrier that its fidelity bond policy is being cancelled. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Z has 30 days to obtain coverage from another carrier in order to continue carrying customer accounts
b. Immediately notify FINRA
c. The CFO of Z must sign a letter distributed to customers of Z informing them of this occurrence
d. Z must take a capital charge on its next FOCUS filing

A

B- A member firm must review its fidelity bond coverage annually based on its net capital requirement for the previous 12 months. If, after the review, the firm determines that there must be an adjustment to the amount of its fidelity bond, a change must be made. If the change is substantial, FINRA must be notified immediately.

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30
Q

Volcanic Investments does not have a proprietary trading account. It clears through Magma Securities. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Volcanic Investments does not need to enter into a PAIB agreement in order for its deposits with Magma Securities to be treated as an allowable asset for capital purposes.
b. Magma Securities may never use the deposits made by Volcanic Investments for its own capital calculations.
c. Volcanic Investments must enter into a PAIB agreement in order for it to treat its deposit with Magma Securities as an allowable asset for capital purposes.
d. The deposit with Magma Securities will not be an allowable asset for either Magma Securities or Volcanic Investments if a PAIB agreement is not in place.

A

C- If an introducing firm does not have a proprietary trading account, it must still enter into a PAIB agreement with its clearing firm in order to treat its deposit at the clearing firm as an allowable asset for capital purposes.

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31
Q

Magma Securities clears for Volcanic Investments. Magma Securities does not permit PAIB agreements. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Magma Securities is in violation of 15c3-1.
b. Volcanic Investments must treat its net equity at Magma Securities as a nonallowable asset.
c. Volcanic Investments may treat its net equity as an allowable asset for capital purposes.
d. Volcanic Investments must take a capital charge against all deposits held by Magma Securities.

A

B- If a clearing firm will not enter into a PAIB agreement, the introducing broker-dealer would need to take a nonallowable capital charge only on its net equity at the clearing firm.

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32
Q

When a broker-dealer enters into a PAIB agreement with a clearing member, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. The introducing broker must notify its DEA five business days before the agreement will become effective.
b. The clearing member must notify its DEA five business days before the agreement becomes effective.
c. The introducing broker must notify its DEA within two business days of the agreement’s effective date.
d. The clearing member must notify its DEA within two business days of the agreement’s effective date.

A

C- The introducing broker is required to notify its designated examining authority (in writing) no later than two business days following the effective date of a PAIB agreeme

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33
Q

How are deferred tax liabilities treated under the net capital rule?

a. Deferred tax liabilities are excluded from AI.
b. 50% of the liability is added to AI.
c. The deferred tax liability is treated as debt in the debt-equity total for net capital purposes.
d. Deferred tax liabilities are treated as AI if not secured.

A

A- Deferred tax liabilities are always excluded from aggregate indebtedness.

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34
Q

Frank Thornton is a senior officer of Geneva Capital. He provides $250,000 to Geneva as a subordinated loan, but it is not yet considered by regulators to be satisfactory for net capital purposes. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
I. Frank Thornton is considered to be a customer.
II. The loan is AI.
III. Frank Thornton is not considered to be a customer.
IV. The loan is not AI.
a. III only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. III and IV only

A

D- Under the net capital rule, nonapproved or nonsatisfactory subordinated loans from customers are included in aggregate indebtedness. Mr. Thornton is not treated as a customer because of his position at the firm. The loan is not treated as aggregate indebtedness. Although a nonapproved subordination loan from a customer would be considered aggregate indebtedness, once approved by the regulators, the loan would not be aggregate indebtedness.

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35
Q

A person operates a broker-dealer as a sole proprietor. His personal liabilities exceed his personal assets. How is this treated under the net capital rule?

a. Personal liabilities have no impact on the broker-dealer’s net capital.
b. The amount of liabilities in excess of assets is deducted from net capital.
c. One-half of the excess of liabilities over assets is deducted from net capital.
d. The excess liabilities are included as a footnote in the Statement of Annual Financial Condition.

A

B- The entire excess of liabilities over assets is deducted from net capital

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36
Q

What is the haircut on cumulative nonconvertible preferred stock?

a. 10% of par value
b. 10% of market value
c. 15% of par value
d. The haircut percentage varies based on maturity

A

B- Haircuts are based on market value. For nonconvertible preferred stock, the haircut is 10%.

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37
Q

Winchell Brokerage has a long inventory position in Freeport Edison preferred stock shares. The shares have been called for redemption on November 15. In computing Winchell’s net capital as of October 31, the deduction for the preferred shares is:

a. 0
b. 2%
c. 10%
d. 15%

A

A- Securities called for redemption within 90 days are not subject to any haircut.

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38
Q

The term customer under the net capital rule would include:

a. A municipal broker-dealer
b. General, special, or limited partners
c. Broker-dealers that maintain a special omnibus account
d. Subordinated lenders

A

C- Other broker-dealers are generally not viewed as customers for regulatory purposes; however, those maintaining a special omnibus account are considered customers.

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39
Q

Promptly forward under the net capital rule means:

a. As soon as possible
b. Within 30 seconds
c. By noon of the next business day
d. By the end of the day

A

C- The definition is important because a broker-dealer failing to promptly forward securities will be classified as a general securities broker-dealer (a clearing firm). This would change the minimum net capital requirement to $250,000.

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40
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the activities of a broker-dealer with a $5,000 net capital requirement?

a. The broker-dealer may act as a market maker in bonds.
b. The broker-dealer may act only in the capacity of an agent.
c. The broker-dealer may purchase as principal from another broker-dealer to fill a customer’s order.
d. The broker-dealer may participate in a firm commitment underwriting.

A

C- A firm with a $5,000 net capital requirement may engage in simultaneous principal transactions without being subject to the dealer’s minimum capital requirement of $100,000.

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41
Q

Caldwell Securities has established liability reserves subject to a contractual mutual fund plan. The accounting treatment under the net capital rule is:

a. The reserve is added to net worth
b. The reserve is subtracted from net capital
c. The reserve is excluded from aggregate indebtedness
d. Segregation of the assets in the reserve account according to Rule 15c3-3

A

C- Firms offering contractual mutual fund plans (also known as wrap around mutual fund plans) must establish reserves for sales charge refunds. Due to the high initial sales charges associated with these plans, customers who cancel the plan (within 45 days of the plan’s inception) are entitled to a refund of the sales charge. The reserves established for sales charge refunds are not part of aggregate indebtedness and are separate from the reserves established according to Rule 15c3-3.

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42
Q

Use the following information to answer this question:
Fleming Brokerage is long the following unlisted option: Hightower Corporation April 42 call, purchased for 4, current premium 8.25.
The current market price for Hightower shares is 48. The treatment for capital purposes is:
a. Add $425 to net worth
b. Subtract $400 from net worth
c. Add $600 to net worth
d. Add $825 to net worth

A

C- The call is in-the-money; the in-the-money ($600 per contract) amount is added to net worth.

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43
Q

Use the following information to answer this question:
Fleming Brokerage is long the following unlisted option: Hightower Corporation April 42 call, purchased for 4, current premium 8.25.
Suppose the strike price of the Hightower unlisted call is 51 and the shares are selling at 48. What is the capital treatment?
a. Add 3 ($300) to net worth
b. Subtract 3 ($300) from net worth
c. No value is given
d. Add 20% of the market value of the shares to net worth

A

C- This call is out-of-the-money; no value is given, and there is no change to net worth.

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44
Q

When does a firm have to post the receipt of interest and dividends?

a. The day it occurs
b. Once a month
c. By noon of the next business day
d. Within two business days

A

D- Posting of the receipt of dividends and interest is required within two business days. This specific requirement is noted in 17a-3 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.

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45
Q

Z-Trade borrows $400,000 in stock from Quicktrade and lends the shares to Comstock Trading. What portion of the amount payable against securities loaned is a part of Z-Trade’s aggregate indebtedness?

a. 15%
b. 30%
c. 100%
d. Nothing

A

B- The net capital rule (15c3-1) specifies 85% of the amount payable (to Quicktrade) is excluded from aggregate indebtedness; the remaining 15% is treated as aggregate indebtedness.

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46
Q
Churchwell Brokerage had been computing its net capital under the aggregate indebtedness standard. The broker-dealer now elects to calculate net capital under the alternative standard. In order to do so, it must:
I.	Perform the 15c3-3 computation weekly
II.	Notify its DEA in writing
III.	File a FOCUS Part II
IV.	Maintain a Special Reserve Account for Customer Credit Balances
a.	III only
b.	I and II only
c.	II and III only
d.	III and IV only
A

B- When a change is made from the aggregate indebtedness standard to the alternative method, a broker-dealer is required to notify its designated examining authority and perform the reserve calculation on a weekly basis.

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47
Q

A firm is considered to be a dealer under the net capital rule if it effects:

a. 10 trades in a day
b. 10 trades in a week
c. 10 trades in a month
d. 10 trades in a year

A

D- A firm conducting 10 proprietary trades in a year is considered a dealer, subject to a minimum net capital requirement of $100,000.

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48
Q

Client Morton sells short 500 shares of Oxford and creates a credit balance. How is this treated according to the net capital rule?

a. It is added to aggregate indebtedness.
b. It is excluded from aggregate indebtedness.
c. The credit balance is subject to a haircut.
d. Cash received by the broker-dealer offsets the credit balance.

A

A- Customer credit balances attributable to either long or short sales are treated as aggregate indebtedness.

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49
Q

A bond guaranteed by the Canadian government with a 28-year maturity would have a haircut deduction of:

a. 5%
b. 6%
c. 15%
d. 20%

A

B- Canadian government bonds are subject to the same haircut schedule as U.S. government securities. For maturities of 25 years or more, the haircut is 6%.

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50
Q

Worthington Securities provides a $40,000 advance to one of its salespeople. How is this treated according to the net capital rule?

a. It is an allowable asset.
b. It is subject to 100% deduction.
c. It must be added to aggregate indebtedness.
d. It is an allowable asset, subject to a 100% haircut.

A

B- The advance is a nonallowable asset and is subject to a 100% deduction rather than a 100% haircut. If the asset had been included as allowable, but subject to a 100% haircut, the tentative net capital of the broker-dealer would be overstated.

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51
Q

Jupiter Trading has a fail to receive of 600 shares of Maywood Industries, which is offset by securities borrowed from Bluestone Brokerage (a broker-dealer). The treatment of the payable is:

a. Added to AI
b. Excluded from AI
c. Added to 15c3-3 computation on credit side
d. Recorded on a subsidiary ledger

A

B- A firm excludes from aggregate indebtedness a fail to receive offset by a fail to deliver. Another offset to the fail to receive are securities borrowed from a broker-dealer. If securities are borrowed from a customer to effect delivery, aggregate indebtedness increases.

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52
Q

If a broker-dealer does not promptly forward securities of customers or broker-dealers, it is considered:

a. Delinquent
b. A clearing firm subject to a $250,000 requirement
c. Subject to disciplinary action
d. Inadequately staffed

A

B- If a firm does not promptly forward securities, it is considered a clearing firm with a $250,000 requirement. A broker-dealer that has that specified level of net capital would not be subject to disciplinary action, but will be required to change its reporting structure.

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53
Q

Clayton brokerage, an introducing broker-dealer, is participating as a selling group member in a firm commitment underwriting. The minimum net capital requirement of the firm is:

a. $5,000
b. $50,000
c. $150,000
d. $250,000

A

B- The net capital rule permits introducing firms to function as selling group members (in firm commitment or best efforts underwritings) with $50,000 net capital. If the broker-dealer’s role is that of a syndicate member (requiring a commitment of capital), the requirement increases to $100,000 net capital.

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54
Q

Caspian Securities is a general securities broker-dealer that intends to obtain a temporary subordination to participate in an underwriting of Chicago Rivet Inc. The broker-dealer’s net capital is $325,000 and AI to NC ratio is 1,100%. The DEA will:

a. Require daily computation of net capital
b. Deny the subordination
c. Grant the subordination
d. Require an amendment to the broker-dealer application

A

B- A temporary subordination is not available if a firm’s AI/NC ratio exceeds 1,000 percent (10:1 ratio) or if net capital is less than 120% of the required minimum. The high percentage of AI to NC in this case will result in a denial for the request of a temporary subordination loan.

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55
Q

Flanagan Partners recently participated in a municipal securities secondary trading joint account. When do receivables from the joint trading account become nonallowable assets?

a. After 30 calendar days
b. After 30 business days
c. After 60 calendar days
d. After 60 business days

A

C- After 60 calendar days, receivables associated with a municipal joint trading account become nonallowable assets.

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56
Q

Highridge Securities has recently conducted its quarterly box count. The inventory revealed a long securities difference. If Highridge liquidates the securities, what is the impact on net capital?

a. Net capital will increase.
b. The difference should be deducted from net capital.
c. The difference can be ignored

A

B- When a long securities difference exists, the securities held long do not contribute to net capital. When long securities differences are liquidated, the cash received does not contribute to the net capital of the firm. Since cash is an allowable asset, the cash received from the sale of the long securities difference must be subtracted and treated as a nonallowable asset.

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57
Q
Myers Capital is participating in a municipal negotiated underwriting for the Morganville VA Water and Sewer Authority. The $25.00 spread consists of:
Manager's fee $8.00 
Total takedown $17.00 
Selling concession $10.00
What must be disclosed to customers?
a.	The manager's fee and concession
b.	Disclosure of the spread or its components is not required
c.	The total takedown
d.	The spread
A

D- The MSRB requires the spread to be disclosed. The spread consists of the manager’s fee and the total takedown. The selling concession is a part of the total takedown.

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58
Q

Affirmative determination is NOT applicable in the sale of which of the following?

a. Common stock
b. Preferred stock
c. Corporate bonds
d. Convertible preferred stock

A

C- Affirmative determination relates to a broker-dealer’s delivery responsibilities in a short sale (marking order tickets short and determining that the securities are available for borrowing). The requirement is applicable to equity securities and equity equivalents. Affirmative determination does not apply to the sale of nonconvertible debt instruments.

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59
Q

Upon receipt of a customer account transfer request, the carrying broker-dealer should first:

a. Liquidate positions to cover the debit balance
b. Freeze the account and cancel orders
c. Directly contact the customer
d. Validate or protest the transfer request within three business days

A

D- The carrying firm must validate or take exception to the transfer request within three business days. Once validated, the account is frozen and open orders are cancelled.

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60
Q

McCutcheon Securities has sold one of its exchange seats for $1,300,000 dollars. The broker-dealer has a receivable for that amount. Under what conditions will the receivable be treated as an allowable asset?

a. If the seat is on a national exchange
b. Under no circumstances
c. If the buyer has net capital equal to the amount of the receivable
d. Once the buyer’s membership is ratified by the exchange

A

B- Neither the ownership of the seat nor a receivable created from its sale is treated as an allowable asset.

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61
Q

What is the deduction from net worth if the following positions are held in the proprietary account of a broker-dealer?
Long 1 Thermo May 40 call
Short 1 Thermo May 45 call
Thermo’s stock price is 42
a. 0
b. $500
c. 20% times $4,200 less the out-of-the-money amount
d. 20% times $4,000 plus the in-the-money amount

A

A- There is no deduction necessary in this example. If the exercise price of a long call is equal to or less than exercise value of a short call (based on the same underlying security), a deduction is not required.

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62
Q
What is the deduction from net worth in the firm's proprietary account for the following positions?
Long Thermo July 50 call @ 2.15 
Short Thermo July 45 call @ 4.55
a.	0
b.	$500
c.	The difference in premiums
d.	$4,500
A

B- The broker-dealer has a proprietary position in a spread. In this case, the deduction required is based on the level of risk associated with the difference in strike prices. The stock can be called away from the broker-dealer at $45 per share. The broker-dealer may exercise its long call at $50 per share. The 5-point difference in strike prices amounts to a deduction of $500.

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63
Q

Haskins Trading (a broker-dealer) introduces customers to Lionheart Brokerage. The clearing agreement states that deficits in accounts are the liability of the introducing firm. Who must deduct the deficiency?

a. Haskins
b. Lionheart
c. Both
d. Neither

A

C- FINRA rules require that both firms deduct deficits in customer accounts from net capital.

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64
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE if the membership of a broker-dealer in a national securities exchange has been discontinued?

a. The broker-dealer must notify its customers within two business days of the event.
b. The SEC must be notified within two calendar days.
c. All customer positions must be transferred to a clearing firm.
d. The broker-dealer is required to file a report with the SEC within two business days.

A

D- A report must be filed within two business days if membership in an exchange is discontinued.

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65
Q

When an introducing broker-dealer enters into a clearing agreement with a carrying broker-dealer, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?

a. The agreement must specify if customers are customers of the clearing firm.
b. Any customer complaints received by the clearing firm from customers of the introducing firm must be sent by the clearing firm to the introducing firm.
c. The clearing member must send semiannual reports to the introducing member to assist it in carrying out its responsibilities under the agreement.
d. The agreement may allow the introducing firm to issue negotiable instruments directly to its customers, using instruments for which the clearing firm is the market maker.

A

C- A clearing broker-dealer must send an annual report to the introducing member. The other statements are correct.

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66
Q

Which of the following would NOT ordinarily be contained in a clearing agreement?

a. The responsibilities of both parties regarding extension of credit and anti-money laundering.
b. Annual reports to be sent by the clearing firm to the introducing firm
c. The procedures for handling any customer complaints that are received by the clearing firm if the complaints relate to customers of the introducing firm
d. A provision that the chief executive officer of each broker-dealer shall meet at least once each year to discuss the clearing agreement

A

D- There is no requirement that the CEO of the respective broker-dealers have an annual discussion of the clearing agreement.

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67
Q

Which of the following items is included in aggregate indebtedness?

a. Credit balances in noncustomer accounts containing short securities positions
b. Equities in noncustomers accounts that are segregated according to the Commodity Exchange Act
c. Monies payable to the extent funds are required to be on deposit and are on deposit in a special reserve bank account
d. Liabilities on open contractual commitments

A

A- Credit balances in noncustomer accounts containing short positions are included in aggregate indebtedness.

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68
Q

Which of the following items is excluded from aggregate indebtedness?

a. An accrued expense payable
b. A deferred tax liability
c. Dividends payable
d. Equities in noncustomer’s future commodities accounts

A

B- Deferred tax liabilities are specifically excluded from AI

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69
Q

A broker-dealer is a mutual fund distribution agent with a $5,000 net capital requirement. How does the firm complete the purchase transaction?

a. It may accept checks made payable to the firm from customers provided it promptly forwards payments to the fund company from the broker-dealer’s distribution account.
b. It will forward the client’s payment directly to the fund.
c. It may deposit the customer’s check in its escrow account and pay the fund from its escrow reserve.
d. It may wire the order to the fund company.

A

B- A broker-dealer with $5,000 net capital may accept mutual fund orders only on a subscription basis. The purchaser fills out an application (subscription) reflecting his intent to purchase and the firm will forward the customer’s check to the fund distributor.

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70
Q

A broker-dealer’s activities are limited to the purchase, sale, and redemption of investment company securities and interests in insurance company separate accounts. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. The broker-dealer is defined as a carrying broker-dealer, required to maintain $250,000 net capital.
b. The broker-dealer may make monthly determinations of its deposit requirements under SEC Rule 15c3-3.
c. The broker-dealer is not required to maintain a reserve account under SEC Rule 15c3-3.
d. This firm must file Focus Report Part I on a monthly basis.

A

C- Under SEC Rule 15c3-3, sections (k)(1)(i) & (ii), a broker-dealer that limits activities to those described does not have to establish a Special Reserve Account.

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71
Q

Utopia Securities has a trading account containing $200,000 of XYZ common stock and an investment account with $350,000 of XYZ common. In addition, the broker-dealer holds $550,000 of XYZ common stock as collateral for a secured demand note. When determining undue concentration:

a. Only securities in the firm’s trading account are considered
b. A value of $1,100,000 for XYZ common stock will be applied
c. The $550,000 lien on the note is excluded from undue concentration considerations
d. The shares in the investment account and 70% of the value of the securities pledged are aggregated

A

B- All positions contributing to net capital are subject to undue concentration haircuts if the positions exceed 10% of tentative net capital. In this case, the trading, investment, and secured demand note holdings must be aggregated.

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72
Q

Most broker-dealers are required to file audited annual financial statements and must designate the name of the accounting firm retained. The statement is identified as Notice Pursuant to Rule 17a5(f)(2). Which of the following items is NOT required on this notice?

a. The CFO of the accounting firm
b. The audit date of the broker-dealer for the year covered by the agreement
c. The name and address of the accounting firm
d. The registration number of the broker-dealer

A

A- The CFO of the accounting firm is not a disclosure item in the filing.

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73
Q

An exemption from filing an audited financial statement would be available to a broker-dealer who:

a. Introduces all customer accounts to a clearing firm
b. Deals only with broker-dealers who are members of a national securities exchange
c. Has effected fewer than 10 proprietary transactions in a 12-month period
d. Operates under section (k)(2)(i) of Rule 15c3-3

A

B- Broker-dealers dealing only with other broker-dealers that are members of an exchange do not have to prepare an audited financial statement.

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74
Q

Dotcom Securities has recently sent 30,000 shares of Kashmir Inc. to the Brownstein Transfer Company. It has since been notified that the shares never arrived. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Brownstein should notify the authorities within two business days of Dotcom’s shipment date.
b. Brownstein must notify Kashmir Inc. that it has not received the company’s shares.
c. Dotcom must notify the authorities within two business days of notice of nonreceipt by Brownstein.
d. Dotcom must promptly notify Kashmir, which has two business days to send replacement shares to Brownstein.

A

C- Dotcom has a reporting responsibility within two business days of a notice of nonreceipt.

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75
Q

The Windsor Clearing Agency sent 5,000 shares of Schleps Inc. to Paramoor Securities. If the shares have not been received, Paramoor Securities:

a. Must notify Windsor. The sending agency must then notify the Commission within one business day
b. Must notify the Commission within one business day of receiving the certificate numbers from the sender
c. Should notify the sender, who must notify the Commission within two business days
d. Should contact the FBI and assist in the investigation

A

B- Paramoor must notify the SEC within one business day.

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76
Q

JKL Securities has physically delivered 100,000 shares of Matrix Inc. to MNO Securities. JKL was given a receipt for the delivery, but the shares cannot be located. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. JKL is required to notify the SEC within one business day of notice of misplacement.
b. MNO should notify the SEC only if they suspect criminal activity.
c. MNO is required to request the certificate numbers from JKL. A report to the SEC must follow within one business day of the receipt of the numbers.
d. JKL must notify the transfer agent within two business days.

A

C- In order to trace the securities, MNO must contact JKL, obtain the certificate numbers, and file a report with the SEC within one business day of receipt of the numbers.

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77
Q

DEF Securities has delivered 100,000 shares of Robotic Inc. to PQR Securities. DEF does not have a receipt. PQR now claims the shares were never received. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. PQR must notify the SEC within two business days.
b. DEF must notify the SEC within two business days of notice of nonreceipt.
c. DEF must report to the SEC within one business day of notice of nonreceipt.
d. DEF must report to the SEC within two calendar days of notice of nonreceipt.

A

B- DEF must notify the SEC within two business days of a notice of nonreceipt.

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78
Q

Which of the following events are not reported to the Securities and Exchange Commission on Form X-17F-1A?

a. Counterfeit securities certificates received on premises
b. Recovery of securities certificates previously reported missing
c. Subordinated debentures alleged to have been removed from premises without authorization
d. Certificates of deposit received without proper endorsement

A

D- Form X-17F-1A is used to report events of theft, forgery, and recovery of securities previously reported missing. Certificates of deposit received without proper endorsement are returned to the sending broker-dealer under reclamation procedures.

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79
Q

Upon the validation of a customer account transfer request, which of the following securities positions is NOT subject to a freeze?

a. Call options expiring in 30 days
b. Put options having 60 days to expiration
c. A real estate investment trust
d. A put option that will expire at the end of the week

A

D- Ordinarily, the carrying broker-dealer must freeze the account and cancel open orders. There is an exception for option positions expiring within five business days. These positions are not subject to a freeze.

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80
Q

Which of the following would be considered non-control locations under Rule 15c3-3?

a. Fails to receive, open for 25 days
b. Dividends receivable, open for 45 days
c. Securities in transfer for 45 days
d. Customer securities carried in a special omnibus account

A

C- If securities are at the transfer agent for more than 40 calendar days, they are not in control of the broker-dealer. The position must be verified.

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81
Q

A broker-dealer is set up as a limited partnership. If one of the partners dies, what is the capital treatment of shares registered in his name while the decedent’s estate is in probate?

a. No haircut is taken.
b. A 30% haircut is applied.
c. A 100% haircut is applied.
d. The securities are treated as a nonallowable asset.

A

D- The securities cannot be sold for legal reasons and are treated as a nonallowable asset.

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82
Q

Delphi Securities is a clearing broker with subordinated liabilities of $600,000. What is their minimum net capital requirement?

a. $250,000
b. $857,000
c. $6,000,000
d. $10,000,000

A

B- The net capital (debt equity total) consists of subordinated loans, secured demand notes, and the equity capital of the firm. Subordinated liabilities cannot exceed 70% of the debt equity total.
$600,000 / .7 = $857,000

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83
Q

Rourke Securities is an introducing firm with a net capital requirement of $100,000. It has $300,000 in subordinated loans. What is the minimum equity capital required to be in compliance?

a. $100,000
b. $128,571
c. $250,000
d. $500,000

A

B- Subordinated loans may not exceed 70% of net capital (for a period exceeding 90 days). $300,000 / .7 = $428,571 as a minimum level of net capital. $428,571 - $300,000 = 128,571. This is the minimum level of equity capital to remain in compliance with the net capital rule.

84
Q

A broker-dealer may make a withdrawal that exceeds 30% of excess net capital if:

a. A Focus II or IIA is filed within 24 hours
b. Prior approval is granted by the designated examining authority
c. The broker-dealer files the statement required under 17a-5(f)2
d. All of the above

A

B- The broker-dealer requires approval of its designated examining authority (FINRA). The provision does not apply to withdrawals, advances, or loans of $500,000 or less. A withdrawal is not permitted if the broker-dealer’s net capital would be less than 120% of the required minimum.

85
Q

Ralph Gordon, CFO of Quicktrade Brokerage, would like to pledge $800,000 of Enervate common stock to secure a $500,000 SDN. Mr. Gordon acquired the shares six months ago in a private placement. The regulators would find this:

a. Adequately collateralized
b. Acceptable provided that the SDN had a minimum term of one year
c. Unacceptable because the shares are not registered
d. Insufficient collateral because of the 40% haircut

A

C- Only securities fully paid and marketable under the Securities Act of 1933 may be pledged as collateral for a secured demand note.

86
Q

The maximum reduction of a secured demand note below its original principal amount is:

a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 25%
d. 30%

A

B- The maximum reduction of a secured demand note is 15%; after such reduction, net capital must still be maintained at 120% of the required minimum amount.

87
Q

Blueridge Partners is a broker-dealer and a lender of a revolving subordination agreement. They are required to take a capital charge:

a. If the borrower files under 17a-11
b. For the full amount of the loan commitment
c. If their AI/NC exceeds 8/1
d. Never

A

B- Broker-dealers that lend pursuant to a revolving subordinated agreement must take a capital charge for the full amount of the loan commitment. The amount actually lent to the borrower is immaterial to the capital charge taken. The capital charge will begin on the effective date of the revolving subordinated loan agreement and continue through the maturity date of the loan.

88
Q

Which of the following would not be considered a hedge?

a. Long stock, long call
b. Short stock, long call
c. Long stock, long put
d. Short stock, long convertible bond

A

A- A long stock position plus a long call represents a bullish position. The other positions are examples of hedges for long equity or short equity positions.

89
Q

Catapult Securities has a fiscal year ending February 28. What additional requirement do they have?

a. A more frequent calculation of net capital
b. An additional Focus Report must be filed each year
c. The filing of a statement pursuant to Rule 17f-1
d. A fifth box count per year

A

B- When a broker has a fiscal year that does not coincide with the calendar year, an additional Focus Report (referred to as the fifth Focus Report) must be filed with the regulators.

90
Q

A customer has just placed an order to sell 300 shares of Emerson. When should the order ticket be prepared?

a. After the trade
b. Before the end of day
c. Before order entry
d. After the execution report

A

C- The representative should document the trade by preparing an order ticket before the order is placed.

91
Q

An employee of Destiny Securities has been fingerprinted three times; in each case, the card could not be read. What is the next step?

a. Transfer the employee to a function where fingerprinting is not required.
b. Terminate the employee.
c. Retain the fingerprint cards, but additional attempts to fingerprint the individual are waived.
d. Notify the FBI.

A

C- When three fingerprinting attempts are made without a useful record, additional attempts are not required. The employer must keep the fingerprint cards

92
Q

What is the statute of limitations on arbitration claims?

a. One year for simplified arbitration
b. Three years for industry arbitration
c. Six years for all arbitration claims
d. 10 years for dealer-to-dealer activities

A

C- Six years is the statute of limitations in all arbitration claims.

93
Q

How is SIPC funded?

a. Broker-dealers
b. Banks
c. Customers
d. Clearinghouses

A

A- Firms are assessed a small percentage of their revenues to finance the activities of SIPC.

94
Q

Margin is best described as:

a. Dealer-to-dealer lending
b. Overnight borrowing
c. Using stocks as collateral to finance a position
d. The interest expense associated with a leveraged position

A

C- When an investor trades on margin, he is using the loan value of his holdings to finance his portfolio.

95
Q

Who would least likely require registration?

a. A phone operator directing calls
b. A receptionist handing out sales literature
c. A person approving an option account
d. A market maker in gold mining stocks

A

A- A phone operator directing calls to various personnel is performing a clerical function. The receptionist handing out sales literature is more likely to be asked questions associated with suitability determination. This is only permitted if the individual is registered.

96
Q

The haircut on a GNMA would be identical to the haircut on:

a. Corporate debt instruments
b. U.S. government securities
c. Municipal bonds
d. Other derivative instruments

A

B- GNMAs are subject to haircuts in a manner identical to U.S. government securities.

97
Q

Aristocrat brokerage has a fiscal year ending December 31. When must they provide their audited statement to customers?

a. January 10
b. February 28
c. March 15
d. April 15

A

All firms are given 105 days after their fiscal year-end to provide audited financial statements to customers.

98
Q

A clearing agreement would NOT address which of the following?

a. Provisions for opening, approving, and monitoring accounts
b. Safeguarding securities
c. Office maintenance procedures
d. Order acceptance and executions

A

C- General and office maintenance issues are not covered in the clearing agreement; the other items would be found in the clearing agreement.

99
Q

A client wires $5,000 out of his brokerage account to a non-domestic bank. What is required of the broker-dealer?

a. File a report with the IRS
b. Maintain a record of the transfer
c. Nothing
d. Notify its DEA

A

A- The broker-dealer must maintain a record of wire transfers of $3,000 or more. Wire transfers of $3,000 or more, received or directed outside the U.S., must be reported to the IRS.

100
Q

A general securities broker-dealer makes markets in 50 stocks that trade between $15 and $60 per share. What is the firm’s net capital requirement?

a. $125,000
b. $250,000
c. $375,000
d. $1,000,000

A

B- General securities broker-dealers must maintain at least $250,000 of net capital. It may be higher based on other factors such as market making. Market making has a minimum net capital requirement of $100,000 and a maximum of $1,000,000. The specific net capital requirement is based on the number of issues in which the broker-dealer makes a market. When shares are priced greater than $5, $2,500 must be maintained per issue. 50 x $2,500 = $125,000. Although this is greater than $100,000, $250,000 is required as a general securities broker-dealer.

101
Q

Arrow Securities calculates its reserve requirement using the standard method. Credits are $375,000 while debits are $287,000. The reserve balance is $99,000. How much may the broker-dealer withdraw?

a. $6,600
b. $11,000
c. $92,400
d. $99,000

A

B- Arrow may withdraw the $11,000 difference between its requirement of $88,000 and the amount on deposit in the account ($99,000).

102
Q

A broker-dealer must provide a customer with its unaudited statement of financial condition within how many days of the financial statement date?

a. 45
b. 60
c. 65
d. 105

A

C- SEC Rule 17a-5 requires that broker-dealers furnish their customers with an unaudited statement of financial condition within 65 days of the date of the financial statement.

103
Q

A broker-dealer must provide a customer with its audited statement of financial condition within how many days of the financial statement date?

a. 45
b. 60
c. 65
d. 105

A

D- SEC Rule 17a-5 requires that broker-dealers furnish their customers with an audited statement of financial condition within 105 days of the date of the financial statement.

104
Q

The independent accountant to a broker-dealer has been selected as a contestant on a new reality show featuring accountants and has provided notice that he will no longer provide accounting services for the broker-dealer. The broker-dealer must notify the SEC about this:

a. As soon as it is practicable
b. Within 2 business days of the accountant giving notice
c. Within 10 business days of the accountant giving notice
d. Within 15 business days of the accountant giving notice

A

D- Broker-dealers must provide notice to the SEC when there is a change in the relationship between the broker-dealer and the independent public accountant. Notice must be provided by the broker-dealer within 15 business days of the accountant’s notification in a case where the broker-dealer notifies the accountant that his services will no longer be required.

105
Q

If bearer bonds have been delivered to a broker-dealer, when must the broker-dealer check with the SEC to determine if the bonds have been reported missing or stolen?

a. Within 24 hours of when the broker-dealers receive the bonds
b. By the close of business on the following business day
c. By the end of the third business day after receipt of the bonds

A

D- SEC Rule 17f-1 requires broker-dealers to make inquiry with the SEC whenever certificates are received from an unidentifiable source. This is conducted as part of the SEC Lost and Stolen Securities Program. The inquiry must be sent to the SEC within five business days of receipt of the certificates by the broker-dealer.

106
Q

Which of the following accounts is not defined or classified as a special account according to the Federal Reserve Board’s Regulation T?

a. An arbitrage account
b. A memorandum account
c. A consolidated account
d. A cash account

A

C- Several special accounts are identified and defined according to Regulation T. They include cash, memorandum, arbitrage, and nonpurpose credit accounts.

107
Q

When a broker-dealer receives a complaint from a customer pertaining to an options transaction, the complaint must be retained on file with the broker-dealer for:

a. Two years after resolution
b. Four years after resolution
c. Six years after resolution
d. 30 days after resolution when it may then be discarded

A

B- FINRA Rules require that all records and communications pertaining to a broker-dealer’s business be retained for a specified period. In general, complaints received from customers, whether a traditional letter or electronic communication, must be preserved for four years in the firm’s files. An exception to the four-year rule requirement applies to municipal complaints, which are maintained for six years.

108
Q

A stock power is also known as a:

a. Power of Authority
b. Power of Attorney
c. Power of Substitution
d. Power of Entitlement

A

C- A stock power is also known as a Power of Substitution.

109
Q

A broker-dealer’s proprietary account contains the following position:
Short 100 XYZ @ 40 and Long 1 XYZ May 50 call
What is the amount of the haircut applied to this position?
a. $500
b. $600
c. $400
d. $1,000

A

B- In the case of proprietary accounts involving short stock positions and protective calls, the haircut is based on the short stock position. A charge of 15% is applied to the current market value of the short position for a haircut of $600 ($4,000 x .15). The haircut applied to the short position may not exceed the out-of-the-money amount of the option. Since the option is out-of-the-money by 10 points or $1,000, a haircut of $600 is appropriate.

110
Q

When registered representatives leave the employ of a broker-dealer firm, files relating to the individual must be retained for:

a. 180 days
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Six years

A

C- The records of registered representatives must be preserved for three years following their departure from the broker-dealer firm.

111
Q

In a best-efforts, all-or-none underwriting, an escrow account is established with a:

a. Correspondent dealer
b. Prime broker
c. Trust company
d. Self-regulatory organization

A

C- In a contingency underwriting, funds received from customers are placed in an escrow account, pending successful completion of the underwriting. The escrow account is typically maintained with a bank or trust company.

112
Q

The business continuity plan created by a broker-dealer must be:
I. Sent to FINRA prior to implementation
II. Provided to FINRA upon request
III. Reviewed annually by the broker-dealer
IV. Reviewed semiannually by the broker-dealer
a. I and III only
b. I and IV only
c. II and III only
d. II and IV only

A

C- FINRA rules require broker-dealers to establish and maintain a business continuity plan. This plan must be provided to FINRA upon request and must be reviewed annually by the firm. Modifications to the plan should be made based on changes to the firm’s operations, structure, business, or location.

113
Q

Which of the following choices is NOT a minimum requirement for a business continuity plan established by a broker-dealer?

a. Regulatory reporting
b. OSJ inspections
c. Order entry, execution, and comparison
d. Operational assessments

A

B- When creating a business continuity plan, FINRA provides minimum standards that must be observed. These include regulatory reporting, communications with customers, mission critical systems, and financial and operational assessments. Inspections of an Office of Supervisory Jurisdiction (OSJ) are not specifically indicated as part of the business continuity plan, but are requirements addressed elsewhere in FINRA supervisory rules.

114
Q

When a customer opens an account at a broker-dealer’s office that is located in a bank, the broker-dealer must:

a. Notify FINRA when a customer opens an account
b. Provide special disclosures to its customer
c. Forward the new account form to the main office overnight
d. Maintain custody of the customer’s cash and securities at the bank location

A

B- Broker-dealers that conduct business with the public on the premises of a financial institution must provide a disclosure statement to customers. This statement indicates that the securities products purchased or sold are not insured by the FDIC, are not deposits or obligations of the financial institution, are not in any way guaranteed by the institution, and are subject to investment risk, including possible loss of principal.

115
Q

A registered representative is approached by a customer concerning the possibility of obtaining a loan from the representative. This loan may be made provided:

a. A competitive interest rate is charged
b. FINRA is consulted before the loan is made
c. The customer pledges collateral
d. A personal relationship exists between the customer and the registered representative

A

D- FINRA rules pertaining to borrowing from and lending to customers stipulate that such activity must be specifically authorized according to the firm’s written procedures. The lending or borrowing arrangement meets one of several criteria. One such criterion is that there must be a personal relationship between the customer and the registered representative, whereby the loan would not have been solicited or offered in the absence of such a relationship.

116
Q

A father and son are involved in a business relationship. The father is a registered representative of a broker-dealer who handles his son’s account. If the son asks his father about borrowing money from him, may his father grant the loan?

a. No, since FINRA does not permit loans between registered persons and their customers.
b. Yes, provided the broker-dealer has made provisions for such loans.
c. No, since loans between family members, when one or more individuals are employed within the financial services industry, have inherent conflicts of interest.
d. Yes, if the term of the loan is less than one year.

A

B- FINRA permits loans between registered representatives and their customers, provided that broker-dealer procedures have written provisions for this activity and one of several other conditions are met. These conditions include a requirement that there is an immediate family relationship between the parties

117
Q

Supervisory control procedures established by broker-dealers are NOT specifically required to address:

a. Changes in a customer’s investment objectives
b. Transmittals of funds and securities from customers to third-party accounts
c. A wire transfer of funds from a client’s account to his designated bank
d. Mailing a check to a customer’s home address

A

D- All broker-dealers are required to establish, maintain, and enforce a system of supervisory control procedures that test and verify that the firm’s supervisory procedures are sufficient to carry out general oversight of all firm activities. The firm must designate a principal to FINRA whose responsibilities include carrying out this function. These procedures must contain provisions to review and monitor all transmittals of funds or securities between customers and third-party accounts, between customers and outside entities (banks, trust companies, etc.), between customers and locations other than a customer’s primary residence (post office box, other address, “in care of” accounts, etc.), and between customers and registered representatives. Other points that should be addressed are changes in customer addresses and changes in customer investment objectives

118
Q

Broker-dealers must designate a principal to oversee their firm’s supervisory control system and report to senior management on the results of such surveillance. Senior management must be apprised of the status of the supervisory control system every:

a. Month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. Twelve months

A

D- Senior management must receive a report from the designated principal in charge of the firm’s supervisory control system at least once each year. This report must provide details of any tests conducted and resulting changes made, based on an analysis of the firm’s supervisory systems.

119
Q

The two parties within a broker-dealer firm who are responsible for compliance with FINRA rules regarding written compliance policies and procedures, and who must confirm each year to FINRA that these procedures are in place are the:

a. Chief financial officer and chief compliance officer
b. Chief administrative officer and chief executive officer
c. Chief executive officer and chief compliance officer
d. Chief operations officer and chief compliance officer

A

C- Each broker-dealer is required to designate and identify a principal to FINRA who will serve as chief compliance officer. The firm must communicate each year with FINRA that the firm has in place the appropriate procedures to monitor its compliance policies and procedures, and that the chief executive officer has consulted with the chief compliance officer during the past year to review the system.

120
Q

Which TWO of the following procedures must be conducted no later than 17 business days following the end of the calendar quarter?
I. The filing of Focus Report Part I
II. The filing of Focus Report Part II
III. Updating the broker-dealer’s executive representative information
IV. Notification to the DEA of the replacement of an independent auditor
a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV

A

C- As stipulated by industry rules, broker-dealers must file Focus Report II quarterly, by the 17th business day following the end of the calendar quarter. The broker-dealer must also review and, if necessary, update the executive representative designation within 17 business days after the end of each calendar quarter.

121
Q

A broker-dealer is required to retain option assignment records in its files for:

a. Two years
b. Three years
c. Five years
d. Six years

A

B- Option assignment records prepared by the broker-dealer must be preserved for three years following the date of the original preparation of the records.

122
Q

A broker-dealer is not required to send financial statements to customers as prescribed by SEC rules, provided the broker-dealer:
I. Forwards all customer trades to a clearing firm
II. Maintains an omnibus account for customers
III. Allows customers to access financial statements through the firm’s website
IV. Executes fewer than 10 proprietary trades per year
a. I and III only
b. I and IV only
c. II and III only
d. II and IV only

A

A- In general, broker-dealers are required to send financial statements to customers on an annual and semiannual basis. Exceptions are permitted if an introducing broker-dealer forwards all customer transactions to a clearing firm on a fully disclosed basis, or the firm engages exclusively in the sale and redemption of redeemable shares of registered investment companies. There is also a provision that permits the firm to send a financial disclosure statement containing the broker-dealer’s net capital and its required net capital, including a statement that customers may obtain the complete financial statements, at no cost, by contacting the broker-dealer’s toll-free telephone number or by visiting its Web site. A broker-dealer may follow these procedures as an alternative to incurring the expense associated with sending customers the required financial statements.

123
Q

A person is considered an owner of an equity security if he has:
I. Stock certificates
II. Entered into an unconditional and binding contract to buy it
III. A nonconvertible bond from the same issuer
IV. A security futures contract to purchase the security and received notification of settlement and will receive the underlying security
a. I and II only
b. I and III only
c. II and III only
d. I, II, and IV only

A

D- Under Regulation SHO, Rule 200, a person is determined to own a security if he:
• Or his agent has title to it (stock certificate)
• Has purchased or entered into an unconditional and binding contract (on both parties) to purchase the security but has not yet received it
• Owns a security that is convertible to or can be exchanged for the security and has tendered it for conversion or exchange
• Has an option to buy or acquire the security and has exercised it
• Has rights or warrants to subscribe to the security and has exercised them
• Has a security futures contract to purchase the security and has received notification that the position will be physically settled and he will receive the underlying security
• Has a net-long position in the security
A nonconvertible security cannot be converted into an equity security, and thus, he cannot be considered an owner of such a security.

124
Q
Which of the following types of securities is regulated under the order marking requirement of Regulation SHO, Rule 200?
I.	Nasdaq
II.	OTCBB
III.	NYSE
IV.	Pink Sheet
a.	I and III only
b.	II and IV only
c.	I, II, and III only
d.	I, II, III, and IV
A

D- Under the order marking requirement, a broker-dealer must mark all orders for equity securities, over-the-counter and exchange-listed, as long, short, or short exempt. Orders are marked accordingly, under the following conditions.
• Long – The seller owns the security being sold, and it is either in the possession or control of the broker-dealer or it is reasonably expected that the security will be delivered no later than settlement day.
• Short – The seller owns the security being sold but does not reasonably believe that it will be in the possession or control of the broker-dealer prior to settlement day, or the seller does not own the security being sold or any sale that is effected by the delivery of a borrowed security.

125
Q

A broker-dealer may use borrowed securities to make delivery for settlement purposes on a long sale transaction if the:

a. Seller fails to deliver the security
b. Seller does not own the security
c. Broker-dealer is having operational difficulties
d. Broker-dealer is net-long the security

A

A- There are three instances in which a broker-dealer may use borrowed securities to make delivery. These instances include times during which:
• That broker-dealer is lending a security to another broker or dealer
• That broker-dealer knows or has been led to believe that the seller owns the security being sold and will deliver the security by the scheduled settlement date, but the seller fails to deliver
• Before a loan arrangement for a security to make delivery or before a fail to deliver, an exchange or a securities association discovers that the sale originated from a good-faith mistake, although the broker dealer used due diligence regarding the sale, and the requirement of a buy-in would create an undue hardship or the sale had been effected at an unacceptable price
In instances where a broker-dealer knows or has been led to believe that the seller owns the security being sold and will deliver the security by the scheduled settlement date, but the seller fails to deliver, the broker-dealer must borrow securities or close out the short position by buying securities of a like kind and quantity. This close-out must take place within 35 days after trade date

126
Q

Which of the following lists assists a broker-dealer in making a reasonable determination that a security is available to be borrowed from another broker-dealer in order to effect a short sale transaction?

a. An Acceptable to Borrow List
b. A Hard to Borrow List
c. An Easy to Borrow List
d. An Unacceptable to Borrow List

A

C- In order to aid in the process of locating securities, the Commission has accepted the use of Easy to Borrow lists. These lists, which must be less than 24 hours old, provide reasonable grounds for belief that a security on the list will be available to be borrowed. The securities on the list must be readily available to avoid fails to deliver. Use of an Easy to Borrow list expedites the fulfillment of the locate provision

127
Q

For an equity security to be considered a threshold security, there must be an aggregate fail to deliver position for:

a. 4 consecutive settlement days
b. 5 consecutive settlement days
c. 10 consecutive settlement days
d. 13 consecutive settlement days

A

B- A threshold security is any equity security that is registered in accordance with Section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 or for which the issuer must file reports in accordance with section 15(d) of the Act and:
• There is an aggregate fail to deliver position for 5 consecutive settlement days at a clearing firm for 10,000 shares or more and equal to at least .5% of the total outstanding shares of the issuer.
• A self-regulatory organization has included the security on a threshold securities list sent to its members.
A broker-dealer must close out any fail to deliver in a threshold security after 13 settlement days.

128
Q

Jeff Willingham has a margin account with Doverton Securities. On January 5, 20XX, he placed an order to sell 10,000 shares of XYXY at 15 with his broker. He owns the securities but will not be able to deliver them by the settlement date. If the firm marks the order ticket short and has not made delivery, within how many days would Doverton Securities be required to close out the position?

a. 10
b. 13
c. 30
d. 35

A

D- In instances where a broker-dealer knows or has been led to believe that the seller owns the security being sold but the seller will not be able to deliver the security by the scheduled settlement date, broker-dealer must borrow securities or close out the short position by buying securities of a like kind and quantity. This close-out must take place within 35 days after the trade date.

129
Q

12 years ago, the city of Wauwatosa, Wisconsin issued $60,000,000 of municipal general obligation bonds. The bonds have a 20-year maturity and were issued with minimum denominations of $10,000 and multiples thereof. Your client has $4,000 worth of bonds in her account, received as a result of a transfer from an estate and would like to sell them. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. You may accept the order since it liquidates her entire position.
b. You may not accept the order since it is under the minimum denomination.
c. You must find $6,000 of additional bonds to sell with the order.
d. Your client must purchase $6,000 of additional bonds.

A

A- Since the order will liquidate the entire position, it may be accepted even though it is below the minimum denomination.

130
Q

Your firm is holding $25,000 worth of City of Chicago bonds in safekeeping for Charlie Petrie, one of your clients who lives in Calgary, Canada. The city sends a notice that the bonds will be prerefunded to the year 2012. The firm’s obligation regarding the retransmittal of this prerefunding notice is to:

a. Forward the notice as soon as possible
b. Request the required postage from the city before retransmitting
c. Not send the notice unless it chooses to
d. Send the notice but not request reimbursement

A

C- Since the client is living outside the United States, the firm may retransmit the notice, but is not obligated to do so.

131
Q

All of the following information must be reported on Form RTRS when transactions are sent in to the system EXCEPT:

a. The reporting symbol
b. The identity of any intermediary used as a submitter
c. The denomination of the bonds to be delivered
d. The name of the person to be contacted if errors occur

A

C- All of the choices are required on Form RTRS except the denomination of the bonds to be delivered.

132
Q

Data may be submitted by reporting members to the RTRS during which time frames?

a. 7:30 a.m. to 6:30 p.m. EST
b. 7:00 a.m. to 7:00 p.m. EST
c. 7:30 a.m. to 8:00 p.m. EST
d. 7:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m. EST

A

A- The RTRS system is in operation each business day from 7:30 a.m. to 6:30 p.m. and members may submit reports to the system beginning 30 minutes prior to opening and continuing 90 minutes after the close of operation on each business day.

133
Q

Transactions must be reported to RTRS under normal conditions within a certain number of minutes after trade execution. Which of the following choices would be an exception to this reporting requirement?

a. A syndicate member selling at the offering price on the first day of trading
b. A transaction between a reporting member and a customer
c. An interdealer transaction
d. A syndicate member selling in the aftermarket

A

A- Under normal circumstances, transactions must be reported within 15 minutes of execution of the trade. On the first day of trading at the offering price of a new issue, the syndicate or selling group member may report trades to RTRS at the end of the business day.

134
Q

Which of the following activities is an Assistant Representative – Order Processor permitted to engage in?

a. Accepting unsolicited customer orders
b. Soliciting new customer accounts
c. Making recommendations to customers as to whether or not a securities transaction is appropriate
d. Effecting a transaction for the proprietary account of a broker-dealer

A

A- An Assistant Representative – Order Processing (Series 11) registered individual is not permitted to solicit orders or new accounts on behalf of his firm, nor provide investment advice or make recommendations to customers. Activities are restricted to taking orders on an unsolicited basis from customers and doing the necessary processing involved in the transaction. They are also not permitted to effect security transactions on behalf of the member firm (i.e., the firm’s proprietary account).

135
Q

A broker-dealer upon request is NOT required to provide its most recent statement of financial condition to which of the following?

a. Another broker-dealer that has securities that are being held at the broker-dealer
b. Another broker-dealer that has cash and securities that are being held at the broker-dealer
c. A client that has cash and securities that are being held at the broker-dealer
d. A prospective client that has indicated she will open an account at the broker-dealer

A

D- There are two SRO rules regarding a broker-dealer’s obligation, upon request, to provide its most recent statement of financial condition (balance sheet). One rule concerns other member firms (i.e., other broker-dealers) and states that if a member has an open transaction or a deposit of cash or securities at another member firm, that member is required to furnish its most recent statement of financial condition. The other rule applies to customers of a broker-dealer and defines a customer as a person who has cash or securities held by the broker-dealer. There is no requirement under this rule to provide such financial information to prospective clients.

136
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the 5% Policy?

a. A markup that exceeds 5% is a violation.
b. The markup policy only applies to listed securities.
c. A markup of less than 5% may be a violation.
d. The markup policy applies to situations where securities are sold at a specific public offering price

A

C- The 5% Policy is a guideline, not a rule. It is possible in certain circumstances to justify higher markups, but conversely, there are times when even 5% is too much. A markup pattern of 5% or even less may be considered unfair or unreasonable under the “5% Policy.” There are several factors to consider when determining how much is too much such as: the type of security involved, the availability, the price, the amount of money involved, disclosure to the client, and the pattern of markups. The policy applies to both listed and unlisted securities and any security sold under prospectus or offering circular (an underwriting at a specific public offering price) is exempt from the policy.

137
Q

Is a municipal finance professional (MFP) permitted to make a political contribution?

a. Yes, if she is not permitted to vote for the candidate.
b. Yes, if she is permitted to vote for the candidate.
c. No, since this would result in a ban by the member, not allowing them to participate in municipal underwriting business by that issuer.
d. No, since this would result in a ban by the member, not allowing them to participate in any municipal underwriting business

A

B- A municipal finance professional (MFP) is defined as any associated person primarily engaged in the activities of a municipal securities representative. A municipal securities representative’s activities might include selling, trading, and underwriting municipal securities, acting as a financial advisor or consultant, providing research or investment advice, and communicating with public investors. It would not include the activities of retail salespersons. A violation occurs if the MFP is not entitled to vote for the official (for example, if the MFP does not live in the official’s voting district) and the MFP makes a political contribution. A violation also occurs when contributions exceed $250 per election, even if the MFP was entitled to vote for the official. If a violation occurs, the dealer is prohibited from engaging in negotiated underwriting business with the issuer for two years starting from the date of the contribution.

138
Q

A person who is employed and compensated by a broker-dealer and whose primary responsibility is to assist municipal issuers in raising capital is:

a. Not defined as an MFP in any circumstances
b. Not defined as an MFP as long as the offerings are done on a competitive basis
c. Defined as an MFP but is not subject to the political contribution rules
d. Defined as an MFP and is subject to the political contribution rules

A

D- Any associated person who solicits municipal securities business is defined as a municipal finance professional (MFP). (The term municipal securities business means participating in negotiated or competitive underwriting activities, negotiated remarketing services, or providing financial advisory or consultant services to or for an issuer.) Any MFP is subject to the MSRB’s political contribution rules.

139
Q

An introducing broker-dealer with a $5,000 minimum net capital requirement may participate in which of the following activities?

a. Participate as a selling group member in a firm commitment underwriting
b. Accept cash and securities and immediately forward them to a clearing firm
c. Engage in market-making activities in fewer than 10 securities
d. Engage in occasional transactions for its proprietary account

A

D- A $5,000 broker-dealer introduces accounts on a fully-disclosed basis to another firm and does not receive customer funds or securities. An introducing broker-dealer that receives customer securities is subject to a $50,000 minimum net capital requirement. With regard to new issues, a $5,000 or $50,000 introducing broker-dealer may engage in a best-efforts or all-or-none underwriting only. The broker-dealer may accept checks made payable to the issuer only, and must forward such checks to the issuer promptly. In order to participate in a firm- commitment underwriting, an introducing broker-dealer needs at least $100,000 of net capital, which would permit it to act as a dealer. Introducing broker-dealers, like those just discussed, may only do occasional trades for their own accounts (no more than ten per calendar year). They may not act as dealers or market makers.

140
Q

According to SEC Rule 17a-11, a broker-dealer with a minimum net capital of $250,000 must notify regulators within 24 hours if its net capital falls below:

a. $250,000
b. $275,000
c. $300,000
d. $500,000

A

C- Broker-dealers must file special notices with the regulators under Rule 17a-11 if an unusual financial or operational event occurs. This is called supplemental reporting. If a broker-dealer has a ratio of aggregate indebtedness to net capital exceeding 12 to 1, or if the dollar amount of net capital is less than 120% of its minimum net capital requirement, it must notify the SEC and its DEA within 24 hours. 120% of $250,000 is equal to $300,000. If a broker-dealer’s net capital falls below its required minimum, it must notify regulators on the day the violation occurs.

141
Q

According to SEC Rule 17a-4, which of the following books and records would need to be retained for six years?

a. Order tickets
b. A list of the offices of a broker-dealer
c. The application of the associated persons of a broker-dealer
d. Advertising used to promote mortgage-backed securities

A

B- SEC Rule 17a-3 requires broker-dealers to create specific records, while Rule 17a-4 requires those records to be retained for a number of years after their creation. Records may be divided into those that must be retained for the life of the firm, those that must be retained for six years, and those that must be retained for three years. Note that all records must be kept in an easily accessible place for the first two years of their existence. The list of the offices of a broker-dealer as well as the supervisory personnel responsible for establishing the firm’s policies and procedures must be retained for six years. Order tickets and the applications of associated persons of a broker-dealer must be retained for three years. According to industry regulations, all advertising, and sales materials (marketing materials) must be retained for three years.

142
Q

According to SEC Rule 17a-4, which of the following books and records would need to be retained for six years?

a. Trial balances
b. Long and short positions
c. Customer complaints
d. Marketing materials promoting mutual funds

A

B- SEC Rule 17a-3 requires broker-dealers to create specific records, while Rule 17a-4 requires those records to be kept for a number of years after their creation. Records may be divided into those that must be retained for the life of the firm, those that must be retained for six years, and those that must be retained for three years. Note that all records must be kept in an easily accessible place for the first two years of their existence. Position records indicating long and short positions must be kept for six years and trial balances and customer complaints must be kept for three years. According to industry regulations, all advertising, and sales materials (marketing materials) must be kept for three years.

143
Q

Buying power in a pattern day trader’s margin account is equal to:

a. 50% of the maintenance margin excess in the account
b. 100% of the maintenance margin excess in the account
c. Two times the maintenance margin excess in the account
d. Four times the maintenance margin excess in the account

A

D- The regulators apply special rules to margin accounts of pattern day traders. A pattern day trader is any customer who day trades four or more times in a five-business-day period. Day-trading buying power is limited to four times the trader’s maintenance margin excess, determined as of the close of the previous day. If a day trader exceeds her buying-power limitations, she must meet a day-trading margin call within five business days. During the time the margin call is outstanding, the account is restricted to buying power of two times maintenance margin excess.

144
Q

A broker-dealer is the one of two market makers in a security quoted on the OTCBB. In calculating its net capital, the firm is required to take a haircut of:

a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 40%
d. 100%

A

C- When computing net capital, the market value of securities is reduced because of possible illiquidity. This reduction in value for net capital computation purposes is called a haircut. The standard haircut for common stock held in a broker-dealer’s inventory is 15%. If the broker-dealer owns securities that are more liquid, such as Treasuries, the haircut is less than 15%. If the securities are less liquid, the haircut is larger than 15%. For example, an OTC equity security (such as a stock found on the OTCBB) with less than three market makers is considered to have a limited market, and is subject to a 40% haircut.

145
Q

A broker-dealer would like to make changes to its margin agreement. How much notice is required to be given to clients?

a. One business day
b. Three business days
c. Ten days
d. Thirty days

A

D- A broker-dealer is required to provide 30-day advance written notice of changes to be made to the terms and conditions under which credit charges (i.e., interest) will be made, excluding those changes required by law. This information is found in a broker-dealer’s margin agreement.

146
Q

Which TWO of the following features are requirements of an arbitration hearing?
I. All of the broker-dealer’s trading/customer records
II. All of the records pertaining to the case or issue at hand
III. Filing fees paid by the party initiating the claim
IV. Depositions made by both parties
a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV

A

C- Requirements for arbitration include the records pertaining to the case or issue at hand and filing fees paid by the party initiating the claim. Depositions are not part of the arbitration procedure. There is no requirement that a broker-dealer provide all of its trading/customer records.

147
Q

According to SEC Rule 15c3-1, which TWO of the following would trigger a $1,000,000 net capital requirement?
I. A self-clearing broker-dealer that acts as an executing broker in a prime brokerage relationship
II. An newly established broker-dealer that has $12,000,000 aggregate indebtedness
III. A member firm that makes a market in 500 issues priced at more than $5
IV. A prime broker
a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV

A

A- According to SEC Rule 15c3-1, a self-clearing broker-dealer that acts as an executing broker in a prime brokerage relationship must have minimum net capital of at least $1,000,000. The minimum net capital for a broker-dealer that engages in prime brokerage is $1,500,000. The maximum ratio of aggregate indebtedness (AI) to net capital for a newly established broker- dealer is 8:1 (800% AI) during its first year of operation. A newly established broker-dealer would need $1,500,000 of net capital to support $12,000,000 of AI. An established broker-dealer has a maximum ratio of 15:1. Market makers are required to maintain net capital of $1,000 for each security valued at $5 or less and $2,500 for each security priced above $5, with a maximum net capital requirement of $1,000,000. In choice III, the net capital would reach the maximum of $1,000,000, rather than $1,250,000 (500 x $2,500).

148
Q

Which of the following securities is NOT considered a nontransferable asset under the customer account transfer contract rules?

a. Common stock of an issuer which is quoted on the OTCBB
b. A mutual fund that is only marketed to clients of one broker-dealer
c. An annuity contract that is sold to a limited number of broker-dealers
d. A limited partnership interest

A

A- The customer account transfer contract rules govern the policies and procedures required when a client of a broker-dealer moves their account to another member firm. Certain assets are defined as nontransferable, and the receiving broker-dealer is not required to accept delivery of these assets. Examples include: firm-specific or proprietary products, an asset of a third party (a mutual fund or annuity) with which the receiving firm does not have a relationship, an asset in bankruptcy, an asset that is an issue for which the proper documentation cannot be obtained (e.g., a foreign security), and limited partnership interests in retail accounts. Common stock of an issuer which is quoted on the OTCBB would not fall into this definition.

149
Q

All of the following information must be disclosed to a customer on a confirmation, EXCEPT:

a. The security traded, the price, and the number of shares
b. Whether the firm acted as principal or agent
c. The commission if the firm acted as an agent
d. Whether the order was solicited or unsolicited

A

D- The customer confirmation must disclose the date and time of the transaction (or the fact that the time of the transaction will be furnished upon written request to such customer), the identity, price, and number of shares or units of such security purchased or sold by such customer; and whether the broker or dealer is acting as agent for the customer, as agent for some other person, as agent for both the customer and some other person, or as principal for its own account. If the broker or dealer is acting as principal, it must disclose whether it is a market maker in the security. The fee must be disclosed if acting as agent, riskless principal, or principal for an NMS security. Whether the order was solicited or unsolicited would be on an order ticket, rather than a confirmation.

150
Q

Which TWO of the following disclosure items would be included on an order ticket?
I. Whether the firm acted as principal or agent
II. Whether the order was solicited or unsolicited
III. The commission charged by the broker-dealer
IV. The designation DNR, if the customer does not want the order reduced when the stock trades ex-dividend
a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV

A

D- Whether the order was solicited or unsolicited and do-not-reduce instructions would be recorded on an order ticket. Whether the firm acted as principal or agent and the commission charged would be disclosed on a confirmation.

151
Q

A client has a margin account with a long market value of $950,000 and a debit balance of $550,000. If the broker-dealer declares bankruptcy, which TWO of the following statements are TRUE?
I. The client is permitted to pay $550,000 and receive $950,000 of securities.
II. The client is permitted to pay $500,000 and receive $950,000 of securities.
III. The client is covered for $400,000 of securities.
IV. The client is covered for $500,000 of securities.
a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV

A

A- According to SIPC, if a client has a margin account, the net equity is covered (the long market value minus the debit balance). In this example, the client is covered for $400,000 of securities. A client is also permitted (but not required) to pay off the debit balance and receive the full value of the securities. If the client paid $500,000, he would only receive $900,000 of securities.

152
Q

Which of the following choices is a valid reason for the carrying firm to protest an account transfer?

a. An account title mismatch
b. A nontransferable asset
c. An unsatisfied margin balance
d. An unsettled trade

A

A- An account title mismatch is a valid reason to protest a transfer. If the basic account information such as tax ID number, account title, or account number does not match the information on record at the carrying firm, the carrying firm may protest the transfer. The instructions can be amended with the necessary corrections, and the account transfer process can again be requested using ACAT (Automated Customer Account Transfer). The transfer may then be rejected or validated within one business day and transferred within three business days following the validation by the carrying firm

153
Q

Revere Brokerage receives an ACAT transfer request from Lighthouse Brokerage. Under SRO rules, how many days does Revere have to protest, or validate, the transfer request?

a. One calendar day
b. One business day
c. Three business days
d. Three calendar days

A

B- Eligible securities are transferred by the National Securities Clearing Corporation (NSCC) using the Automated Customer Account Transfer (ACAT). Under SRO rules, the carrying broker-dealer has one business day to either protest or validate a transfer request. If validated, the transfer must take place within three business days.

154
Q

What is the maximum fine that may be levied by a self-regulatory organization (SRO)?

a. $250,000
b. $1,000,000
c. $5,000,000
d. No limit

A

SROs, such as FINRA, may fine their member firms and employees for violations of their rules. Although FINRA publishes its Sanctions Guidelines publication, there is no limit as to the monetary fine that it may levy against a member firm or its employees.

155
Q
A broker-dealer must display the SIPC logo:
I.	On customer statements
II.	At the broker-dealer's principal office
III.	On annual reports
IV.	At each branch office
a.	I and III only
b.	I and IV only
c.	II and III only
d.	II and IV only
A

D- Under SIPC rules, a broker-dealer must display the SIPC logo in a prominent place at its principal office and each branch office. The SIPC logo may, but is not required to, be displayed on customer statements, confirmations, annual reports, office supplies (e.g., stationery), checks, direct mail brochures, telephone market reports, and promotional items.

156
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the carrying agreement between the carrying firm and an introducing firm?

a. The customer of the introducing firm must be notified of the existence of the agreement only if the introducing firm is an affiliate of the carrying firm.
b. The customer of the introducing firm must be notified of the existence of the agreement only if the customer is opening a margin account.
c. The agreement must include a provision requiring the carrying firm that receives a written customer complaint regarding the introducing firm to notify the customer that is has received the complaint.
d. The agreement must include a provision requiring the carrying firm that receives a written customer complaint regarding the introducing firm to notify the introducing firm’s DEA without notifying the introducing firm.

A

C- Under SRO rules, there must be a written agreement between a clearing or carrying firm and an introducing firm. The rule specifies the responsibilities of both firms and addresses certain disclosure and reporting requirements. Any customer of an introducing firm (whose account is carried on a fully disclosed basis) is required to be notified in writing of the existence of the agreement and the relationship between the two firms. The agreement must include a provision requiring the carrying firm that receives a written customer complaint regarding the introducing firm to notify the customer that it has received the complaint. In addition, the clearing firm must also submit promptly any written customer complaint it receives regarding the introducing firm or its employees to both the introducing firm and the introducing firm’s designated examining authority (DEA).

157
Q

A client with a cash account executed the following transactions: Tuesday morning he bought $25,000 worth of AQL stock and on the following day he sold the shares for $27,500. On the settlement date, the client instructed the broker-dealer to use the sales proceeds to pay for the purchase. The broker-dealer is:

a. Not permitted to use the sales proceeds
b. Not permitted to use the sales proceeds and the account is subject to a freeze
c. Permitted to use the sales proceeds, provided the transaction has been approved in advance by a principal
d. Permitted to use the sales proceeds, provided the transaction has been approved in advance by FINRA

A

B- If a client fails to pay for a security prior to its sale, a free-riding violation has occurred. The client may not use the sales proceeds to pay for the purchase since the client has made no payment to the broker-dealer. The broker-dealer is required to place a 90-day freeze on the account. This means that the customer must pay for all purchases in advance for a period of 90 days.

158
Q

Which of the following descriptions best defines the term prime broker?

a. A broker-dealer that provides all the trade execution services to a hedge fund
b. A broker-dealer that provides all the clearing services of a hedge fund
c. A broker-dealer that provides both trade execution and clearing services to a hedge fund
d. A broker-dealer that provides all the investment advisory services to a hedge fund

A

C- A prime brokerage arrangement involves a variety of services offered by a broker-dealer to an active trading firm, such as a hedge fund. Some of the services include securities lending, cash management, leveraged trade execution, and research. In addition to executing transactions for the hedge fund, the prime broker will also provide clearing services for trades executed through other broker-dealers used by the hedge fund.

159
Q

A broker-dealer that makes a market in 200 stocks priced above $5.00 is required to maintain a net capital of:

a. $100,000
b. $250,000
c. $500,000
d. $1,000,000

A

C- According to SEC Rule 15c3-1, the net capital rule, market makers are required to maintain net capital of $1,000 for each security valued at $5 or less and $2,500 for each security priced above $5, with a maximum

160
Q

Which of the following records must be maintained by a broker-dealer for six years?

a. Assets and liabilities
b. Securities in transfer
c. Fails to receive
d. Short securities differences

A

A- Under SEC record-keeping rules, a record of assets and liabilities, income, expenses, and capital accounts must be kept for a minimum of six years. The other records mentioned must be maintained by a broker-dealer for a minimum of three years.

161
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE concerning broker-dealer compliance with anti-money laundering regulations?

a. Broker-dealers must appoint a compliance person to oversee anti- money laundering regulation compliance.
b. Broker-dealers must have anti-money laundering written procedures.
c. Firms must file reports with their Designated Examining Authorities (DEAs).
d. Personnel must be educated about money-laundering techniques.

A

C- Anti-money laundering regulations do not require broker-dealers to file reports with their DEAs.

162
Q

All FINRA members must have an anti-money laundering compliance program that includes all of the following requirements, EXCEPT a(n):

a. Designated compliance officer to administer the program
b. Ongoing program to train personnel
c. Designated chief training officer
d. Independent audit function to test the program’s effectiveness

A

C- According to FINRA, all member broker-dealers must have an AML compliance program that includes policies and procedures reasonably designed to detect money laundering and to report suspicious transactions. The requirements include the designation of a compliance officer who is responsible for the program, an ongoing employee training program, and an independent audit function to test the program’s effectiveness.

163
Q

Trial balances:

a. Are prepared only by broker-dealers who hold customer funds and securities
b. Are usually available on a broker- dealer’s Web site 10 business days following posting
c. Must be prepared on a monthly basis
d. Must be reviewed by an independent auditor

A

C- A broker-dealer is required to prepare a trial balance monthly as part of the process of calculating its net capital.

164
Q

A customer would like to open an account designated by number. The registered representative should:

a. Open the account
b. Not open the account because it is a violation of SEC rules
c. Open the account if the customer signs a written statement acknowledging the account is the customer’s account
d. Not open the account because it is a violation of industry rules

A

C- A customer can open a numbered account for reasons of confidentiality. However, the registered representative should open the account only if the customer signs a written statement acknowledging the fact that the account is the customer’s account. This must be kept on file at the brokerage firm.

165
Q

Which of the following is not included in the category of nonpublic personal information under Regulation SP?

a. Information obtained from the consumer
b. Aggregated data obtained about consumers
c. Information obtained from a consumer reporting agency
d. Information collected about the consumer’s transactions with nonaffiliated third parties

A

B- Aggregated data is not considered to be nonpublic personal information. Aggregated data is information that is blind and does not contain personal identifiers about a consumer. An example would be names, addresses, and account numbers. The privacy statement is sent by a financial institution to a client indicating how the entity obtains nonpublic personal information from a consumer and how she may opt out of the sharing of this information.

166
Q

The maximum fine for individuals who are convicted of insider trading violations is:

a. Three times the amount gained or loss avoided
b. $5,000 fine and/or three years in prison
c. $5,000,000 fine and/or 20 years in prison
d. Censure and/or $2,500 fine

A

C- Maximum criminal penalties under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, including violations of insider trading rules, are a $5,000,000 fine and/or 20 years in prison for each violation. The maximum civil penalty that can be assessed is three times the amount gained or loss avoided.

167
Q

Pat White is a registered representative working in the investment banking department of a large broker-dealer. While assisting in the preparation of the registration statement for a new bond issue, Pat learns of some negative information about the company. Prior to the release of the information to the public, Pat tells a customer about the problem. The customer immediately sells some of the company’s stock, thereby avoiding a sizeable loss. Which of the following statements is TRUE of this situation with regard to insider trading rules?

a. Since no profit was earned in the transaction, neither the tipper nor the tippee has violated any rules.
b. The tippee has violated insider trading rules by using inside information; the tipper did not personally benefit and is therefore not in violation.
c. The tipper obtained the confidential information and is in violation; the tippee did not actively seek the information and is not in violation.
d. Both the tipper and the tippee are in violation of insider trading rules.

A

D- Persons who pass on confidential information to others are called tippers. If the information passed on by a tipper is used by the recipient (the tippee), both parties have violated insider trading rules.

168
Q
A Series 11 registered individual may be compensated in which TWO of the following manners?
I.	Salary
II.	Commission
III.	Hourly wage
IV.	Bonus based on number of accounts opened
a.	I and III
b.	I and IV
c.	II and III
d.	II and IV
A

A - A Series 11 registered individual may be compensated by way of hourly wage or salary but not on a commission basis. These individuals may receive a bonus based on the firm’s profits, but not based upon the number of accounts opened. Accounts may not be opened by a person with a Series 11 license.

169
Q

A registered representative who has been in the securities industry for 9 years is subject to the Regulatory Element of Continuing Education:

a. On her 10th anniversary
b. Every 2 years
c. In two more years
d. In one more year

A

C- The Regulatory Element of continuing education begins on the second anniversary after a registered person’s initial registration. The Regulatory Element training reoccurs every three years after the first anniversary. Therefore, the registered person in the question has had Regulatory Element training on her second, fifth, and eighth anniversary. The next sitting for the training would be on her eleventh anniversary.

170
Q

A registered representative who has just passed his FINRA qualification exam discloses several of the test questions to a colleague who is about to take the same exam. The second person uses this information to pass the test. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. FINRA may discipline the RR who disclosed the information, but the RR who received the information is not subject to disciplinary action.
b. FINRA may discipline the RR who received the information, but the RR who disclosed the information is not subject to disciplinary action.
c. An SRO may discipline both RRs.
d. Neither RR is subject to disciplinary action, since this activity is permitted as long as the test items are written down.

A

C- FINRA considers the content of its qualification examinations confidential. It is a violation of FINRA rules to:
• Remove a portion of an exam from an examination center
• Reproduce parts of an exam
• Disclose parts of an exam to anyone
• Receive parts of an exam from anyone
• Compromise the contents of a past or present exam in any way
Violators are subject to FINRA sanctions under the Code of Procedure. Sanctions could include the suspension or revocation of an RR’s registration.

171
Q

A registered principal is permitted to borrow from, or lend funds to, customers in all of the following situations, EXCEPT:

a. The customer is an immediate family member of the investment banking representative
b. The customer is an institutional investor
c. The loan is based on a business relationship independent from the member firm customer relationship
d. The customer has a personal relationship with the investment banking representative

A

B- Registered personnel of a member firm are generally prohibited from borrowing money from, or lending money to, any customer. However, if the firm has written rules and procedures that allow borrowing and lending between registered personnel and their customers that meet the following conditions, the activities are permissible.
• The customer is an immediate family member of the registered person.
• The customer is a financial institution or other entity that engages in the business of providing credit, financing, or loans in the course of its business.
• The customer and the registered person are both registered with the same member firm.
• The customer has a personal relationship with the registered person wherein the loan would not have been solicited, offered, or given if the relationship did not exist.
• The loan is based on a business relationship other than that of a member firm customer.
There is no exception based on the type of customer – for example, an institutional investor

172
Q

A FINRA member firm conducting an offering of its own securities is required to return the funds raised in which TWO of the following conditions?
I. Its net capital ratio exceeds 8:1
II. Its net capital ratio exceeds 10:1
III. Its net capital fails to equal 125% of the minimum dollar amount
IV. Its net capital falls below 120% of the minimum dollar amount
a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV

A

D- If a FINRA member firm is conducting a public offering of its own securities it is required to deposit the funds in an escrow account. The funds may not be released or used by the member until the following conditions.
• The member is required to notify FINRA immediately when the public offering has been terminated and settlement effected
• The member is required to file with FINRA a net capital computation under the provisions of SEC Rule 15c3-1 as of the settlement date
o If at the time of the calculation the firms net capital ratio is more than 10:1 (AI:NC) or, net capital fails to equal 120% of the minimum dollar amount required under SEC Rule 15c3-1 or, if the firm uses the alternative method its net capital is less than 7% of aggregate debit items as computed under SEC Rule 15c3-3, all funds received from the sale of securities must be returned in full to the purchasers and the offering withdrawn. The proceeds of the sale may be used in computing the firm’s net capital.
The firm is also required to disclose in the registration statement the date by which the offering is expected to be completed and the terms upon which the proceeds will be released from the escrow account.

173
Q

An exemption from the Member Private Offering disclosure requirements would NOT be available in an offering sold only to:

a. Investors with total assets of $65,000,000
b. Qualified institutional buyers
c. Accredited investors
d. Mutual funds

A

C- FINRA Rule 5122 relates to a private placement of securities where a member firm issues the securities and conducts the placement on its own behalf. It is also referred to as a Member Private Offering (MPO). Due to potential conflicts of interest, when a member firm attempts to raise capital for itself or for a firm it controls, the member firm is required to provide a term sheet, or a private placement memorandum, or a disclosure document that contains certain disclosures. The rule provides two types of exemptions. One is based on the types of investors, and the other is based on the types of offerings.
Types of investors exempt from the rule are:
• Institutional investors, such as banks, insurance companies, investment companies (mutual funds), and investors with total assets of at least $50,000,000
• Qualified institutional buyers as defined under Rule 144A
• Types of offerings exempt from the rule are:
• Exempt securities defined under the Securities Act
• Exempt offerings under Regulation S, or Rule 144A
• Offerings of variable contracts
• Offerings of securities in a commodity pool
• Offerings of equity and credit derivatives
• Offerings of unregistered, investment-grade debt, or preferred securities
• Offerings of a member firm’s securities sold in a public offering

174
Q

At a minimum, the supervisory responsibilities of a broker-dealer include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. The firm must create and maintain written supervisory procedures
b. A principal must approve and review all transactions
c. The firm must conduct on-site inspections of remote offices
d. Each branch office must be reviewed annually

A

C- Each office of supervisory jurisdiction (OSJ) and branch office that supervises one or more nonbranch locations (a supervisory branch) must be reviewed on an annual basis. Branch offices that do not supervise one or more nonbranch locations should be reviewed every three years and nonbranch locations should be reviewed periodically.

175
Q

All of the following statements are TRUE regarding supervisory procedures, EXCEPT:

a. Each representative must be assigned to a particular principal who is responsible for that representative’s activities
b. Each representative must participate at least annually in a meeting or interview at which compliance issues are discussed
c. A copy of the member’s written supervisory procedures must be kept in each office of supervisory jurisdiction
d. Each office in which registered representatives solicit orders must be designated an office of supervisory jurisdiction

A

D- Each branch of a member is not necessarily an OSJ. If final approval of customer accounts or orders occurs in an office, that office must be an OSJ. Orders taken at branches that are not designated as OSJs must be reviewed and approved at an OSJ.

176
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a branch office of a member firm?

a. A branch office is one where 15 or more of the member’s associated persons regularly effect transactions.
b. A branch office is one at which one or more of the firm’s associated persons regularly effect transactions.
c. The floor of an exchange where a member effects trades may be considered a branch office.
d. A member firm’s office at a bank is always considered a branch office.

A

B- A branch office is any location where one or more of a firm’s associated personnel regularly conduct the business of effecting transactions in, or inducing or attempting to induce the purchase or sale of, any security. The floor of an exchange is exempt from the registration as a branch office, as are some broker-dealer offices at banks, which may be used as offices of convenience (used occasionally and by appointment only)

177
Q

A broker-dealer must review a supervisory branch office at least:

a. Annually
b. Every two years
c. Every three years
d. On a periodic basis

A

A- Each office of supervisory jurisdiction (OSJ) and branch office that supervises one or more nonbranch locations (a supervisory branch) must be reviewed on an annual basis. Branch offices that do not supervise one or more nonbranch locations should be reviewed every three years and nonbranch locations should be reviewed periodically.

178
Q

Which TWO of the following situations would require written notification to an employer?
I. A registered person is leaving the country on a business trip for more than three months.
II. A registered principal is serving on the board of directors of a private company.
III. A registered person wants to act as a consultant for a private placement of a security that is not being offered by her broker-dealer.
IV. A registered principal intends to purchase corporate securities in a personal account established at her employing broker-dealer.
a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV

A

C- Registered personnel who pursue outside business interests and who will be compensated, or who participate in private securities transactions, must provide their employers with prior written notification. The employer may then approve or disapprove the participation. A registered person who has an existing account at her firm does not need to provide written notification to her employer for each transaction.

179
Q

All of the following registered representatives must notify their employers of their outside activities, EXCEPT:

a. Kevin, who is a member of the board of trustees of a family owned business
b. Marie, who volunteers to help the United Way
c. Leon, who plays in a polka band that is hired for weekend weddings
d. Amanda, who writes articles for financial magazines in her spare time

A

B- Registered representatives must provide written notice to their employing broker-dealer before participating in any business activities outside the scope of that person’s normal relationship with the firm. This generally includes any type of outside employment. However, charitable work would not fall under the provisions of the rule.

180
Q

A registered representative is asked by the sponsor of a limited partnership to sell partnership units to the rep’s clients. Since the partnership is not being sold through the representative’s broker-dealer, the sponsor will compensate the representative directly. Which of the following statements is TRUE of this situation?

a. Registered representatives may not participate in such transactions.
b. In order for the representative to participate, the broker-dealer must give written approval for the transaction and must record the transaction on its books.
c. If the sponsor is associated with a member, the registered representative may participate.
d. The registered representative may participate if the partnership is being sold as a private placement.

A

B- Registered representatives who wish to participate in transactions outside the normal scope of business of their employer (private securities transactions) must notify their employer in writing. If the representative is to be compensated for the transaction, the employer must approve or disapprove in writing. If approved, the transaction must be recorded on the books of the employing broker-dealer. If the representative will not be compensated for the transaction, the employing broker-dealer must provide written acknowledgment of the employee’s notice and may place conditions on the participation of the employee in the transaction.

181
Q

A member firm wishes to give a gift to an employee of another member firm. This may be done if the gift does not exceed:

a. $50
b. $100
c. $100 and permission of the recipient’s employer is obtained
d. $100 and permission of FINRA is obtained

A

B- If a member firm wishes to give a gift to an employee of another member firm, it may do so provided the amount does not exceed $100. No permission to give the gift is required.

182
Q

Which of the following would be a violation under industry rules concerning gifts and gratuities?

a. Taking a client to a dinner valued at $80 per person
b. Attending a concert with your client valued at $105 per ticket
c. Giving a $300 wedding gift to your brother who is employed at a member firm
d. Giving two tickets to your client to attend a basketball game valued at $65 per ticket

A

D- Member firm personnel may not give or permit to be given a gift of material value exceeding $100 per recipient per year to personnel employed by another member firm. Exempt from the $100 limit are occasional meals, tickets to sporting and cultural events, reminder advertising (boxes of pens, key chains, etc.), and expenses related to legitimate business travel. In order for the activity to be considered an expense, the RR must attend the event, not give the tickets to another person(s). The value of two tickets ($130) exceeds the $100 limit. An exemption is provided if the gift is given to another family member for an event relation to a family relationship (a wedding).

183
Q

Final settlement of a syndicate account must be made no later than how many days following the syndicate settlement date?

a. 30
b. 45
c. 60
d. 90

A

D- The syndicate settlement date occurs when the issuer delivers (new issue) securities to the account of the underwriting syndicate. According to FINRA rules, the final settlement of the syndicate accounts by the syndicate manager is required no later than 90 days following the syndicate settlement date. Any delay beyond the 90-day settlement date requires the syndicate manager to provide notification to FINRA.

184
Q

Which of the following events would NOT trigger a Form U4 amendment by a registered person?

a. A change in registered persons marital status
b. Allegations of theft, forgery, or misappropriation of funds
c. A felony conviction
d. An unsatisfied judgment or lien

A

A- An individual who has filed a Form U4 with FINRA is required to update the form if any of the information originally filed has changed. Marital status is not required and therefore no change to the form is required. The other items are required disclosures on Form U4.

185
Q

A stock record at a broker-dealer would NOT include:

a. The number of shares owned
b. The location of the securities
c. The issuer’s outstanding shares
d. The number of shares in vault

A

C- The stock record at a broker-dealer indicates the name(s) of the owners of shares held in street name, as well as the names of owners of shares held in the firm’s vault. The stock record will also indicate the location of the shares (street name shares held by DTC and in the firm’s vault in the name of the customer). The issuer’s outstanding shares would not be relevant.

186
Q

Which of the following does not receive information regarding exception reports in a clearing broker/introducing broker arrangement?

a. FINRA
b. The firm’s Chief Compliance Officer
c. The firm’s CEO
d. DTC

A

D- FINRA supervisory rules indicate that the clearing firm shall make available a list of reports, frequently called exception reports, to the introducing firm’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) and Chief Compliance Officer (CCO). These reports will enable the introducing firm to perform supervisory duties. In addition, the introducing firm’s DEA, which is FINRA in most cases, must receive information regarding the availability of these reports. DTC is not involved in this process.

187
Q
Broker-dealers with a $50,000 net capital requirement are required to file which TWO of the following reports?
I.	FOCUS Part I
II.	FOCUS Part IIA
III.	Form 10K
IV.	Annual audit
a.	I and III
b.	I and IV
c.	II and III
d.	II and IV
A

D- All broker-dealers are required to file an annual audit with regulators. A $50,000 broker dealer is an introducing firm with a FOCUS report Part IIA filing requirement. A clearing, or $250,000 broker-dealer, is required to file FOCUS Part I and Part II, as well as the annual audit. Form 10K is the annual report required of SEC reporting companies.

188
Q

A deposit of $12,000 in cash by a customer:

a. Requires the account to be frozen
b. Requires a separate disclosure notice to the customer
c. Requires a notice to be filed with the Department of Treasury
d. Requires a notice to be filed with FINRA

A

C- Deposits of cash exceeding $10,000 on a single day must be reported to the Department of the Treasury on FinCEN Form 104 (Currency Transaction Report (CTR) by the 15th calendar day after the transaction. There is no requirement to notify the customer or any other securities regulator.

189
Q

A client purchases 1,000 shares of XAM at $50 in his cash account. The client has not met his Regulation T requirement by the payment date and the price of XAM has now declined to $48. If your firm requested an extension, which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. The firm is required to take a $2,000 charge against its capital.
b. The firm is not required to take a charge against its capital.
c. The firm is required to take a $48,000 charge against its capital.
d. The firm is not permitted to request an extension for a client who has a cash account.

A

B- The firm is not required to take a capital charge as an extension has been requested. Without the request, a $2,000 charge should be taken.

190
Q

A client closes her account with your firm and moves to another state. Your firm must keep her new account record for:

a. Two years
b. Three years
c. Six years
d. Until she informs your firm that she has opened another brokerage account

A

C- SEC Rule 17a-3 requires broker-dealers to create specific records, while Rule 17a-4 requires those records to be retained for a number of years after their creation. Records may be divided into those that must be retained for the life of the firm, those that must be retained for six years, and those that must be retained for three years. Note that all records must be kept in an easily accessible place for the first two years of their existence. New account records must be kept for six years after account closing. The fact that the client has moved is immaterial regarding record retention.

191
Q

Regarding a broker-dealer that changes its fiscal year:

a. The firm is required to notify SIPC
b. The firms DEA must approve the change
c. The SEC must approve the change
d. Notification to the SEC is sufficient

A

B- Under SEC Rule 17a-5, a broker-dealer that wants to change its fiscal year is required to file notice (not approval) with the SEC. The firm must also provide a detailed explanation of the reasons for the change and the firm’s DEA (the designated examining authority which is usually FINRA) must approve the change in fiscal year.

192
Q

RL Inc. is a broker-dealer engaged in market making. At the beginning of the month the firm makes a market in 300 securities, and at the end of the month, 400 securities. Their net capital requirement at the end of the month is:

a. Based on 300 securities
b. Based on 350 securities
c. Based on 400 securities
d. A minimum of $1,000,000

A

B- A market maker is required to maintain a minimum dollar amount of net capital for each stock in which it makes a market. The amount required is $2,500 for each stock selling above $5 a share, and $1,000 for each stock selling for $5 per share or less, not to exceed $1,000,000. The Net Capital Rule states that in determining the number of markets made for net capital requirement purposes, the firm should determine the average number of such markets made in the 30-day period immediately preceding the computation period which is 350.

193
Q
Rinegold Securities has the following on its books.
Customer credits	$500,000
Fail to receive for customers	$700,000
Taxes payable	$200,000
Cash	$400,000
15c3-3 deposit requirement	$900,000
Amount on deposit in
Special Reserve Account	$900,000
Based on these amounts, what is Rinegold's AI?
a.	$1,000,000
b.	$100,000
c.	$500,000
d.	$900,000
A

C- Under the Net Capital Rule, a firm may reduce its aggregate indebtedness for the amount on deposit in the Special Reserve Account, to the extent that it is required to be on deposit. In this example, AI includes customer credits, fails to receive for customers and taxes payable. The total amount of these items is $1.4 million. Then, subtract the amount on deposit in the Special Reserve Account of $900,000, which equals $500,000. The $400,000 of cash is not relevant.

194
Q

A broker-dealer wants to operate under the alternative standard of the Net Capital Rule. Which of the following statements in TRUE?

a. It is required to notify its DEA.
b. The broker-dealer’s DEA must approve the use of this method.
c. The broker-dealer’s minimum net capital will be $500,000.
d. SEC approval is required.

A

A- The broker-dealer is obligated to notify its DEA in writing in order to operate under the Alternative Standard of determining its minimum net capital. SEC or DEA approval is not required and the minimum dollar amount required to operate under this provision is $250,000.

195
Q

A broker-dealer that qualifies for the (k)(2)(i) exemption from SEC Rule 15c3-3 is subject to what minimum dollar amount of net capital?

a. $5,000
b. $50,000
c. $100,000
d. $250,000

A

C- Under SEC Rule 15c3-1, the Net Capital Rule, a broker-dealer that is exempt from the provisions of SEC Rule 15c3-3 pursuant to paragraph (k)(2)(i) must maintain a minimum net capital of $100,000. This exemption is applicable for firms which carry no margin accounts, promptly transmit all customer funds and deliver all securities, does not otherwise hold funds or securities for, or owe money or securities to, customers and effects all financial transactions for customers through one or more bank accounts maintained exclusively for this purpose.

196
Q

Clay Brokerage has a $5,000 minimum net capital requirement. During the year, nine proprietary transactions were executed. Their net capital requirement:

a. Increases to $50.000
b. Increases to $100,000
c. Increases to $250,000
d. Remains at $5,000

A

D- Introducing broker-dealers with a minimum net capital requirement may only do occasional trades for their own accounts (no more than 10 per calendar year). Clay is allowed 10 proprietary transactions at the $5,000 minimum net capital require. Once 11 transactions are reached, the capital requirement for a broker-dealer increase to $100,000, as the firm is now defined as a dealer.

197
Q

Clay Brokerage has a $5,000 minimum net capital requirement. During the year, nine proprietary transactions were executed. Their net capital requirement:

a. Increases to $50.000
b. Increases to $100,000
c. Increases to $250,000
d. Remains at $5,000

A

D- Introducing broker-dealers with a minimum net capital requirement may only do occasional trades for their own accounts (no more than 10 per calendar year). Clay is allowed 10 proprietary transactions at the $5,000 minimum net capital require. Once 11 transactions are reached, the capital requirement for a broker-dealer increase to $100,000, as the firm is now defined as a dealer.

198
Q

Turnaround Brokerage is a firm that only executes client orders. After the firm receives an order from a client who wants to purchase a security, it will purchase as principal an equal number of shares or purchase shares to accumulate the number of shares necessary to complete the order. These transactions will be cleared through another registered broker-dealer. Sell orders are executed in the same manner. The firm’s minimum net capital requirement is:

a. $5,000
b. $100,000
c. $250,000
d. $1,000,000

A

A- This type of activity may be conducted by a $5,000 broker-dealer. There is no limit as to the number of trades that may be conducted in this manner. These trades are referred to as riskless principal transactions.

199
Q

Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE concerning a municipal securities broker’s broker?
I. The firm is required to maintain a minimum net capital $150,000.
II. The firm is required to maintain a minimum net capital $100,000.
III. The firm may not maintain a proprietary account.
IV. The firm must limit their business to municipal and government securities.
a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV

A

A- Under SEC Rule 15c3-1, the Net Capital Rule, a broker-dealer that is defined as a municipal securities broker’s broker is required to maintain a minimum net capital of $150,000. The firm may only transact business in municipal (not government) securities, and it may not maintain a proprietary account.

200
Q

A broker-dealer has insurance claims that are not covered by an opinion of outside counsel that the claims are valid. When is a deduction taken in calculating the firm’s net capital?

a. After 7 calendar days
b. After 7 business days
c. After 30 calendar days
d. After 30 business days

A

B- Net capital is computed by starting with net worth (equity) and making certain deductions based on the liquidity of the broker-dealer’s assets. These adjustments can generally be classified into two general groups – (1) haircuts on securities positions and (2) any other reductions, which are usually referred to as deductions. Insurance claims which after 7 business days from the date of the loss that are not covered by an opinion of outside counsel that the claim is valid, are deducted when calculating the firms net capital.

201
Q

The haircut on a money-market fund is:

a. Zero
b. 1%
c. 2%
d. 3%

A

C- The haircut on a money-market fund is 2% of the market value.

202
Q

What is the SRO maintenance requirement on a $1 million dollar purchase of a 2x Long Gold Index ETF?

a. $1,000,000 since these securities are not eligible for additional margin
b. $500,000
c. $250,000
d. $125,000

A

B- Leveraged ETFs have maintenance requirements in excess of the typical SRO thresholds of 25% on long positions and 30% on short positions. The margin requirement on these securities can be computed by multiplying the portfolio leverage factor by the standard SRO maintenance requirement. In this case, the standard long requirement is 25% multiplied by a factor of 2, so the client must maintain a 50% margin.

203
Q

What is the SRO maintenance requirement on a $1 million dollar purchase of a 2x Long Gold Index ETF?

a. $1,000,000 since these securities are not eligible for additional margin
b. $500,000
c. $250,000
d. $125,000

A

B- Leveraged ETFs have maintenance requirements in excess of the typical SRO thresholds of 25% on long positions and 30% on short positions. The margin requirement on these securities can be computed by multiplying the portfolio leverage factor by the standard SRO maintenance requirement. In this case, the standard long requirement is 25% multiplied by a factor of 2, so the client must maintain a 50% margin.

204
Q

Aggregate indebtedness includes which TWO of the following choices?
I. Credit balances in customers’ and noncustomers’ accounts having short positions in securities
II. Amounts payable against securities loaned which have not been sold
III. Fixed liabilities adequately secured by assets used in the ordinary course of business
IV. Credit balances in customers’ and noncustomers’ accounts
a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV

A

B- In general, aggregate indebtedness (AI) includes liabilities that are not secured by a specific asset of the broker-dealer. Liabilities that are secured by a broker-dealer’s assets are usually excluded from AI. Credit balances in customers’ and noncustomers’ accounts having short positions in securities, as well as credit balances in customers’ and noncustomers’ accounts are both defined as aggregate indebtedness. Amounts payable against securities loaned which have not been sold, as well as fixed liabilities adequately secured by assets used in the ordinary course of business are both excluded from the definition of AI. The following chart summarizes what is included and excluded from the definition of aggregate indebtedness.
Included in
Aggregate Indebtedness NOT Included in
Aggregate Indebtedness
• Fails to receive for the accounts of customers
• Fails to receive for the account of the firm, resold • Fails to receive for the account of the firm
• Loans collateralized by customer securities • Loans collateralized by firm securities
• Securities loaned for the accounts of customers • Securities loaned for the account of the firm
• Customer credit balances
• Accounts payable
• Taxes payable • Trading account of the firm - sold to customers (short trading account)
• Short security difference over 30 days old
• Subordinated loans
• Fixed liabilities adequately secured by assets used in the BD’s business
• Liabilities on open contractual commitments

205
Q

What is the SRO maintenance requirement on a $1 million short position of a 3x Inverse Gold Index ETF?

a. $3,000,000
b. $1,000,000
c. $900,000
d. $300,000

A

C- Leveraged ETFs have maintenance requirements in excess of the typical SRO thresholds of 25% on long positions and 30% on short positions. The margin requirement on these securities can be computed by multiplying the portfolio leverage factor by the standard SRO maintenance requirement. In this case, the standard short requirement is 30% multiplied by a factor of 3, so the client must maintain a 90% margin. $1,000,000 x 30% = $300,000. $300,000 x 3 = $900,000.