exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

CHAPTER 14 Review & Discussion 1)
What are the Trojan, Apollo, and Amor asteroids?
a) Asteroids that originate from the asteroid belt; cross into Jupiter’s orbit; approach Mars’s orbit
b) Asteroids that orbit near Jupiter’s Lagrange points; cross Earth’s orbit; approach Earth’s orbit without crossing it
c) Asteroids that orbit near Saturn; cross Venus’s orbit; approach Mercury’s orbit
d) Asteroids that orbit entirely within the asteroid belt; cross Neptune’s orbit; approach Uranus’s orbit

A

b) Asteroids that orbit near Jupiter’s Lagrange points; cross Earth’s orbit; approach Earth’s orbit without crossing it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CHAPTER 14 Review & Discussion 3)
How do the compositions of comets provide clues to the formation of the solar system?

a) Comets contain only ice, which suggests that water was the first material to form in the solar system.
b) The dust and gas in comets are similar to the chemical composition of the Sun, providing evidence of the Sun’s origin.
c) Comets contain a mixture of ice, dust, and organic molecules, offering insight into the early solar system’s conditions and the building blocks of planets and life.
d) Comets are made of metals and gases, indicating that the inner planets formed first and the outer planets followed.

A

c) Comets contain a mixture of ice, dust, and organic molecules, offering insight into the early solar system’s conditions and the building blocks of planets and life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CHAPTER 14 Review & Discussion 7)
Where in the solar system do most comets reside?
A) The asteroid belt
B) The Kuiper Belt
C) The Oort Cloud
D) The inner solar system

A

C) The Oort Cloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CHAPTER 14 Review & Discussion 8)
Describe the various parts of a comet while it is near the Sun. What are the typical ingredients of a comet nucleus?
a) The coma, tail, and nucleus; Ice, dust, and organic compounds.
b) The corona, photosphere, and nucleus; Gas, dust, and metals.
c) The core, mantle, and atmosphere; Hydrogen, helium, and silicates.
d) The core, tail, and corona; Water, methane, and carbon dioxide.

A

a) The coma, tail, and nucleus; Ice, dust, and organic compounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CHAPTER 14 Review & Discussion 10)
Why can comets approach the Sun from any direction, but asteroids generally orbit close to the plane of the ecliptic?
a) Comets are primarily found in the Kuiper Belt, while asteroids are located in the Oort Cloud, which lies in the ecliptic plane.
b) Comets originate from the spherical Oort Cloud, while asteroids primarily orbit within the flat plane of the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.
c) Comets are formed from interstellar material and move randomly through the solar system, while asteroids are bound by Jupiter’s gravity to the ecliptic plane.
d) Comets are pushed into random directions by solar wind, while asteroids are confined to the ecliptic plane by magnetic forces from the Sun.

A

b) Comets originate from the spherical Oort Cloud, while asteroids primarily orbit within the flat plane of the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CHAPTER 14 Review & Discussion 12)
Why has the number of planets in the solar system recently decreased?

A

In 2006 the IAU decided that the icy dwarf planets beyond Neptune would henceforth be known as plutoids.

Comets may ram into the Sun or a planet, or they may gradually lose all of their ice via sublimation, leaving rocky debris that may enter the Earth’s atmosphere to be observed as a meteor shower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CHAPTER 14 Review & Discussion 15)
What do meteorites reveal about the age and formation of the solar system?

A

Radioactive dating of meteorites reveals that the age of the solar system is about 4.4 - 4.6 billion years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

CHAPTER 15 Review & Discussion 1)
Which of the following are examples of present-day properties that our solar system model does not have to explain, and why is no explanation necessary?
a) The existence of the asteroid belt; It is a stable region between Mars and Jupiter
b) The presence of Saturn’s rings; They are transient and expected to change over time
c) The retrograde motion of Venus; It is explained by the planet’s unique rotation
d) The inclination of Pluto’s orbit; It is an irregular orbit due to past gravitational interactions

A

a) The existence of the asteroid belt; It is a stable region between Mars and Jupiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CHAPTER 15 Review & Discussion 2)
Describe some ways in which random processes played a role in the determination of planetary properties

A

In the evolutionary theories, changes occur gradually. In the catastrophic theories, changes occur suddenly as the result of one-time events such as violent collisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CHAPTER 15 Review & Discussion 3)
Describe three methods astronomers use to search for extrasolar planets

A
  • Transit Method: excels in detecting small planets but requires edge-on orbits.
  • Radial Velocity Method is effective for detecting massive planets in a range of orbits but struggles with small planets.
  • Direct Imaging provides the most detailed information but is technically demanding and suited for specific types of planets.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CHAPTER 15 Review & Discussion 6)
What properties of exoplanets can be inferred from planetary transit measurements? What properties can be inferred from radial velocity measurements?

a) Transit measurements provide information about the planet’s size and orbit, while radial velocity measurements reveal its mass and orbital velocity.
b) Transit measurements provide data on the planet’s surface temperature, while radial velocity measurements reveal its atmosphere composition.
c) Transit measurements show the planet’s age and distance from its star, while radial velocity measurements reveal its composition and surface features.
d) Transit measurements provide information about the planet’s magnetic field, while radial velocity measurements reveal its atmospheric pressure.

A

a) Transit measurements provide information about the planet’s size and orbit, while radial velocity measurements reveal its mass and orbital velocity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CHAPTER 15 Review & Discussion 7)
What measurements are required to estimate the bulk density of an exoplanet?
A) The exoplanet’s temperature and distance from its star
B) The exoplanet’s radius and mass
C) The exoplanet’s orbital speed and inclination
D) The exoplanet’s composition and atmosphere

A

B) The exoplanet’s radius and mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CHAPTER 15 Review & Discussion 11)
Which of the following exoplanet properties challenged existing theories of planetary formation based on the solar system, and how were these challenges resolved?

a) Hot Jupiters; The discovery of planet migration, where gas giants could move inward after formation
b) Exoplanets with very eccentric orbits; The realization that gravitational interactions with other planets can cause orbit circularization
c) Super-Earths; The theory that larger planets form in a wider range of environments, including beyond the frost line
d) Ice giants in close orbits; The discovery that these planets could form far from their host star and migrate inward

A

a) Hot Jupiters; The discovery of planet migration, where gas giants could move inward after formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CHAPTER 15 Review & Discussion 12)
Is our solar system unusual among planetary systems?
A) Yes, it has gas giants located far from the star and terrestrial planets close to the star.
B) No, it is similar to most planetary systems observed.
C) Yes, its nearly circular planetary orbits and large, distant gas giants are uncommon.
D) No, it has more planets than most other systems.
e) A and C

A

e) A and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CHAPTER 15 Review & Discussion 14)
What is the habitable zone of a star?

A

The goldilocks zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CHAPTER 15 Review & Discussion 15)
What evidence is required to find habitable Earth-like planets orbiting other stars?
A) The planet’s mass, size, and distance from its star
B) The planet’s surface temperature and atmospheric composition
C) The star’s brightness and distance from Earth
D) The planet’s orbit and the number of moons it has

A

A) The planet’s mass, size, and distance from its star

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CHAPTER 16 Review & Discussion 1)
Which of the following correctly names and describes the main regions of the Sun and gives the approximate temperatures of the solar surface and core?

a) Core, radiative zone, convective zone, photosphere, chromosphere, corona; surface temperature ~5,500 K, core temperature ~15 million K
b) Photosphere, mantle, outer core, corona, heliosphere; surface temperature ~2,000 K, core temperature ~10 million K
c) Core, photosphere, ionosphere, thermosphere, corona; surface temperature ~8,000 K, core temperature ~12 million K
d) Radiative zone, convective zone, stratosphere, chromosphere, corona; surface temperature ~6,000 K, core temperature ~20 million K

A

a) Core, radiative zone, convective zone, photosphere, chromosphere, corona; surface temperature ~5,500 K, core temperature ~15 million K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CHAPTER 16 Review & Discussion 2)
What is luminosity, and how is it measured in the case of the Sun?
A) Luminosity is the brightness of a star as seen from Earth, measured in apparent magnitudes.
B) Luminosity is the total energy emitted by a star per second, measured by combining the star’s temperature and radius.
C) Luminosity is the distance of a star from Earth, measured using parallax techniques.
D) Luminosity is the heat output of a star, measured using its surface temperature alone.

A

B) Luminosity is the total energy emitted by a star per second, measured by combining the star’s temperature and radius.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CHAPTER 16 Review & Discussion 3)
what are the temperatures of the sun’s core and surface respectively?

A

The solar core has a temperature of about 15 million K. The solar surface (the photosphere) has a temperature of about 6,000K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CHAPTER 16 Review & Discussion 5)
How do observations of the Sun’s surface tell us about conditions in the solar interior?
a) By studying helioseismology, which analyzes oscillations on the Sun’s surface to infer its internal structure
b) By observing the Sun’s magnetic field, which directly originates from the core
c) By detecting gamma rays emitted from the core through the Sun’s surface
d) By measuring the composition of solar wind particles, which represent the Sun’s interior material

A

a) By studying helioseismology, which analyzes oscillations on the Sun’s surface to infer its internal structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CHAPTER 16 Review & Discussion 8)
What is the solar wind?
a) A stream of charged particles emitted by the Sun, including electrons and protons
b) A flow of gases from the Sun’s surface that causes solar flares
c) A type of radiation emitted by the Sun’s core
d) The interaction between the Sun’s magnetic field and Earth’s atmosphere

A

a) A stream of charged particles emitted by the Sun, including electrons and protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CHAPTER 16 Review & Discussion 15)
What would we observe on Earth if the Sun’s internal energy source suddenly shut off? How long do you think it might take—minutes, days, years, or millions of years—for the Sun’s light to begin to fade? Repeat the question for solar neutrinos
a) The Sun’s light would begin to fade in minutes; Solar neutrinos would stop arriving almost immediately.
b) The Sun’s light would begin to fade in days; Solar neutrinos would stop arriving in days.
c) The Sun’s light would begin to fade in years; Solar neutrinos would stop arriving in years.
d) The Sun’s light would begin to fade in millions of years; Solar neutrinos would stop arriving in minutes.

A

a) The Sun’s light would begin to fade in minutes; Solar neutrinos would stop arriving almost immediately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

chapter 14 multiple choice: 2)
Most main-belt asteroids are about the size of
(a) the Moon;
(b) North America;
(c) a U.S. state;
(d) a small U.S. city

A

(d) a small U.S. city.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

chapter 14 multiple choice: 3)
Spectroscopic studies indicate that the majority of
asteroids contain large fractions of
(a) carbon;
(b) silicate rocks;
(c) iron and nickel;
(d) ice

A

(a) carbon;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

chapter 14 multiple choice: 4)
Trojan asteroids orbiting at Jupiter’s Lagrangian points are located
(a) far outside Jupiter’s orbit;
(b) close to Jupiter;
(c) behind and in front of Jupiter, sharing its orbit;
(d) between Mars and Jupiter

A

(c) behind and in front of Jupiter, sharing its orbit;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

chapter 14 multiple choice: 5)
The tails of a comet
(a) point away from the Sun;
(b) point opposite the direction of motion of the comet;
(c) curve from right to left;
(d) curve clockwise with the interplanetary magnetic field

A

(a) point away from the Sun;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

chapter 14 multiple choice: 6)
Compared with the orbits of the short-period comets, the orbits of long-period comets
(a) tend to lie in the plane of the ecliptic;
(b) look like short-period orbits, but are simply much larger;
(c) are much less eccentric;
(d) can come from all directions

A

(d) can come from all directions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

chapter 14 multiple choice: 7)
Kuiper belt objects are not regarded as planets because
(a) they orbit too far from the Sun;
(b) their masses are too low to clear other objects from their orbital paths;
(c) they are all irregular in shape;
(d) they are predominantly icy in composition

A

(b) their masses are too low to clear other objects from their orbital paths;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

chapter 14 multiple choice: 9)
A meteorite is a piece of interplanetary debris that
(a) burns up in Earth’s atmosphere;
(b) misses Earth’s surface;
(c) glances off Earth’s atmosphere;
(d) survives the trip to the surface

A

(d) survives the trip to the surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

chapter 15 multiple choice: 1)
A successful scientific model of the origin of planetary systems must be able to account for all of the following solar system features, except for
(a) intelligent life;
(b) the roughly circular planetary orbits;
(c) the roughly coplanar planetary orbits;
(d) the extremely distant orbits of the comets

A

(a) intelligent life;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

chapter 15 multiple choice: 2)
According to the standard model of planetary system formation, the fact that (blank) is an example of an irregularity
(a) Mercury has no moon;
(b) Pluto is not a gas giant;
(c) Uranus has an extremely tilted rotation axis;
(d) there is no planet between Mars and Jupiter

A

(c) Uranus has an extremely tilted rotation axis;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

chapter 15 multiple choice: 3)
Astronomers have confirmed the existence of at least ___ planets beyond our own solar system
(a) one;
(b) ten;
(c) several hundred;
(d) several thousand

A

(c) several hundred;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

chapter 15 multiple choice: 4)
The distance to the nearest exoplanetary system is
(a) a few light-years;
(b) about 100 light-years;
(c) about 1000 light-years;
(d) thousands of light-years

A

(a) a few light-years;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

chapter 15 multiple choice: 7)
Super-Earths are
(a) made of nickel and iron;
(b) comparable in size to Neptune;
(c) a few times more massive than Earth;
(d) usually found in “hot” orbits

A

(c) a few times more massive than Earth;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

chapter 15 multiple choice: 9)
A planet in the habitable zone
(a) has living creatures on it;
(b) may have liquid water on its surface;
(c) is rocky, like Earth;
(d) has an oxygen atmosphere

A

(b) may have liquid water on its surface;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

chapter 15 multiple choice: 10)
The total number of habitable, Earth-like exoplanets is approximately
(a) 10;
(b) 100;
(c) 1000;
(d) unknown

A

(d) unknown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

chapter 16 multiple choice: 1)
Compared with Earth’s diameter, the Sun’s diameter is about
(a) the same;
(b) 10 times larger;
(c) 100 times larger;
(d) 1 million times larger

A

(c) 100 times larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

chapter 16 multiple choice: 2)
Overall, the Sun’s average density is roughly the same as that of
(a) rain clouds;
(b) water;
(c) silicate rocks;
(d) iron-nickel meteorites

A

(b) water;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

chapter 16 multiple choice: 3)
Sun spins on its axis roughly once each
(a) hour;
(b) day;
(c) month;
(d) year

A

(c) month;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

chapter 16 multiple choice: 4)
If astronomers lived on Venus instead of on Earth, the solar constant they measure would be
(a) larger;
(b) smaller;
(c) the same

A

(a) larger;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

chapter 16 multiple choice: 5)
The primary source of the Sun’s energy is
(a) fusion of light nuclei to make heavier ones;
(b) fission of heavy nuclei into lighter ones;
(c) the slow release of heat left over from the Sun’s formation;
(d) the solar magnetic field

A

(a) fusion of light nuclei to make heavier ones;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

chapter 16 multiple choice: 7)
A typical solar granule is about the size of
(a) a U.S. city;
(b) a large U.S. state;
(c) the Moon;
(d) Earth

A

(b) a large U.S. state;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

chapter 16 multiple choice: 8)
As we move to greater and greater distances above the solar photosphere, the temperature in the Sun’s atmosphere
(a) steadily increases;
(b) steadily decreases;
(c) first decreases and then increases;
(d) stays the same

A

(c) first decreases and then increases;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

chapter 16 multiple choice: 9)
The time between successive sunspot maxima is about
(a) a month;
(b) a year;
(c) a decade;
(d) a century

A

(c) a decade;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

chapter 16 multiple choice: 10)
The solar neutrino problem is that
(a) we detect more solar neutrinos than we expect;
(b) we detect fewer solar neutrinos than we expect;
(c) we detect the wrong type of neutrinos;
(d) we can’t detect solar neutrinos

A

(b) we detect fewer solar neutrinos than we expect;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

exam 1: 1)
Blue light has a:
a) shorter wavelength and a higher energy than red light.
b) longer wavelength and a higher energy than red light.
c) longer wavelength and a lower energy than red light.
d) shorter wavelength and a lower energy than red light.

A

a) shorter wavelength and a higher energy than red light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

exam 1: 2)
A total eclipse of the Sun is observed from inside the___ A partial solar eclipse is observed from inside the____.
- south pole; north pole
- north pole; south pole
- penumbra; umbra
- celestial equator
- umbra; penumbra

A
  • umbra; penumbra
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

exam 1: 3)
The Sun is located at one focus of the Earth’s orbit. What is located at the other focus?
- nothing
- the Moon
- another star
- Jupiter

A
  • nothing
  • Kepler’s first law: sun at one focus and the other focus empty
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

exam 1: 4)
The semi-major axis of an ellipse is
a) half the width of the ellipse measured across the shortest dimension
b) half the width of the ellipse measured across the longest dimension,
c) equal to the period of the orbit.
d) the width of the ellipse measured across the longest dimension

A

b) half the width of the ellipse measured across the longest dimension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

exam 1: 5)
At the time that Newton was developing his laws of motion and gravitation, ___ was the best data available, which was based on observations made with___
- Galileo’s; telescopes
- Tycho’s; telescopes
- Galileo’s; giant protractors
- Tycho’s, giant protractors

A
  • Tycho’s, giant protractors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

exam 1: 6)
In Kepler’s model of the universe, the ___ is at the center and the planetary motions are based on___
- moon; triangles
- Sun; triangles
- Sun; ellipses
- moon; circles
- Earth; circles

A
  • Sun; ellipses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

exam 1: 7)
When a lunar eclipse occurs, it can be seen from
- the north pole only.
- anyplace on the night side of the Earth
- the south pole only.
- anyplace on the day side of the Earth.
- the equator only

A
  • anyplace on the night side of the Earth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

exam 1: 8)
Phosphine has been detected in the atmosphere of the planet Venus. This could indicate ___ , since this compound is ___.
a) volcanic activity on Venus; not likely to last long in the atmosphere of Venus
b) possible life in the atmosphere of Venus; not likely to last long in the atmosphere of Venus
c) possible underground life on Venus; likely to last long in the atmosphere of Venus
d) ancient life on Venus; likely to last long in the atmosphere of Venus

A

b) possible life in the atmosphere of Venus; not likely to last long in the atmosphere of Venus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

exam 1: 9)
The angle subtended by the Moon is 30 arc-minutes. If the Moon’s diameter is held constant but we move it twice as far away. then its angular size would become
- 1 arc-minute
- 15 arc-minutes
- 1/3 arc-second
- 60 arc-minutes
- 1 degree

A
  • 15 arc-minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

exam 1: 10)
If we replaced the Sun with a larger, blue star, the habitable zone for life would
- disappear.
- move outward towards Mars.
- move inwards towards Venus.
- include the Moon.
- stay the same

A
  • move outward towards Mars.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

exam 1: 11)
Which of the following points in the sky is located on the celestial equator?
- 24h RA, 90 degrees DEC
- 10h RA, 90 degrees DEC
- Oh RA, 5 degrees DEC
- 12h RA, 0 degrees DEC

A
  • 12h RA, 0 degrees DEC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

exam 1: 12)
Consecutive full Moons Occur every
- solar day.
- sidereal day.
- synodic month.
- sidereal month.
- all of the above

A
  • synodic month.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

exam 1: 13)
If a light source is approaching you at high speed, then the Doppler effect causes
- the wavelength of the light to be increased.
- the energy of the light to be increased.
- the frequency of the light to be decreased
- the energy of the light to be decreased.
- interference

A
  • the energy of the light to be increased.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

exam 1: 14)
In the photoelectric effect, red light___ any electrons to leave the metal plate because___
- fails to cause; the photons of red light do not have enough energy
- causes; the photons of red light have enough energy
- causes; the photons of red light do not have enough energy
- fails to cause; the photons of red light have enough energy

A
  • fails to cause; the photons of red light do not have enough energy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

exam 1: 15)
Tycho Brahe used___ to make his measurements of planetary positions. The stars return to the same positions in the sky every___
- telescopes; synodic month
- protractors and straight rods; 24 sidereal hours
- protractors and straight rods; 24 solar hours
- all of the above
- telescopes; 24 sidereal hours

A
  • protractors and straight rods; 24 sidereal hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

exam 1: 16)
Kepler’s laws apply to___
- only Earth’s orbit around the Sun
- only objects orbiting the Sun
- all orbital motions
- only objects orbiting the Earth

A
  • all orbital motions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

exam 1: 17)
In the Ptolemaic and Copernican models of the universe, respectively, the objects in the universe in order of increasing distance from the center are:
a) earth, moon, mercury, venus, sun, jupiter, saturn; mercury, venus, sun, saturn, mars, jupiter, earth
b) earth, moon, mercury, venus, sun, jupiter, saturn; sun, mercury, venus, earth, mars, jupiter, saturn
c) mercury, earth, moon, venus, sun, jupiter, saturn; sun, mercury, venus, earth, mars, jupiter, Saturn
d) Jupiter, moon, mercury, venus, Sun, saturn; sun, mercury, venus, jupiter, mars, earth, saturn
e) moon, earth, mercury, venus, sun, jupiter, saturn,; sun, earth, merCury, venus, mars, jupiter, saturn

A

b) earth, moon, mercury, venus, sun, jupiter, saturn; sun, mercury, venus, earth, mars, jupiter, saturn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

exam 1: 18)
The ecliptic is the path of the___ which is tilted 23.5 degrees from___
- Sun; the Celestial Equator
- Moon; the Celestial Equator
- Moon; the North Celestial Pole
- Saturn; the Celestial Equator
- Sun; the North Celestial Pole

A
  • Sun; the Celestial Equator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

exam 1: 19)
We showed in class that the equation relating the distance D to the parallax angle A is given by:
D = (180 R) / pi A
where the parallax angle A is assumed to be in degrees and R= 6378 km is the Earths radius. If the parallax angle is 1 arc second (1”), then the distance D to the object in space is
- 1.3x 10^7km
- 1.3x 10^8 km
- 1.3x 10^9 km
- 3.3x 10^7 km
- 3.3x 10^8 km

A
  • 1.3x 10^9 km
  • there are 3600 arc seconds in a degree. so a = 1/3600
    total calculation: D = (180x6378)/(pix(1/3600))
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

exam 1: 20)
AS we view stars around the North Celestial Pole from Fairfax, they appear to rotate___ around Polaris, while stars in the eastern sky appear to___
- counter-clockwise; rise
- Clockwise; set
- clockwise; rise
- counter -Clockwise; set

A
  • counter-clockwise; rise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

exam 1: 21)
If the Moon’s orbital plane around the Earth was NOT tilted with respect to the Earth’s orbital plane around the Sun, then
- the Earth would be in shadow all the time.
- lunar and solar eclipses would occur every month.
- lunar and solar eclipses would never occur at all.
- solar eclipses would still occur.
- lunar eclipses would still occur

A
  • lunar and solar eclipses would occur every month.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

exam 1: 22)
In the Copernican model of the universe, the___ is at the center and the planetary motions are based on___
- Moon; triangles
- Earth; elipses
- Sun; triangles
- Moon; circles
- Sun; circles

A
  • Sun; circles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

exam 1: 23)
The North Celestial Pole is located at celestial coordinates___. On March 21, the Sun is located___
a) 0h RA, 90 degrees DEC; on or near the celestial equator
b) 0h RA, 90 degrees DEC; at 60 degrees declination
c) 24h RA, 90 degrees DEC; at 30 degrees declination
d) 0h RA, 0 degrees DEC; at 70 degrees declination
e) 24h RA, 0 degrees DEC; at 80 degrees declination

A

a) Oh RA, 90 degrees DEC; on or near the celestial equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

exam 1: 24)
According to Kepler’s law, P^2 = A^3, where P is the orbital period measured in Earth years and A is the length of the semi-major axis measured in astronomical units. What would be the orbital period be for a planet orbiting the Sun with A = 4?
- 58.1 Earth years
- 18.7 Earth years
- 2 Earth years
- 29.3 Earth years
- 8 Earth years

A
  • 8 Earth years
  • just take the value for ‘a’ and put it to the power of 1.5: a^1.5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

exam 1: 25)
Eratosthenes measured the Earth’s radius based on measurement of the ___ on June 22, combined with the distance from Syrene to Alexandria
- angle of the planet Mars from the horizon in Alexandria
- all of the above
- angle of the sun from the zenith in Syrene
- angle of the sun from the zenith in Alexandria
- angle of the horizon from the zenith in Syrene

A
  • angle of the sun from the zenith in Syrene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

exam 1: 26)
Procession of the Earth’s spin axis causes___
- the North Celestial Pole to move through different stars
- more earthquakes
- extreme hurricanes
- stronger tides

A
  • the North Celestial Pole to move through different stars
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

exam 1: 27)
Consider the equation F = m a, where F is the applied force, ‘m’ is the mass of the object, and ‘a’ is the resulting acceleration. if we___ while holding ‘m’ constant, we ___
a) halve F; double a
b) double F; triple a
c) double F; halve a
d) halve F; halve a

A

d) halve F; halve a
* if one was doubled the other would be as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

exam 1: 28)
The first people on earth to witness a given solar eclipse see it beginning at ___. The track of the eclipse shadow moves across the earth’s surface from ___.
- sunrise; west to east
- sunset; west to east
- noon; east to west
- midnight; east to west

A
  • sunrise; west to east
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

exam 1: 30)
Kepler’s third law implies that Mercury has a ___ orbital velocity than the earth. according to Kepler’s second law, a line connecting Mercury with the sun ___.
a) faster; sweeps out area faster than the earth’s line
b) faster; sweeps out equal areas in equal times
c) slower; sweeps out equal areas in equal times
d) slower; sweeps out more area than Jupiter’s line

A

a) faster; sweeps out area faster than the earth’s line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

exam 1: 31)
During the Copernican revolution, ___ was the first to place the sun at the center, and ___ made the first telescopic observations.
- Galileo; Copernicus
- Kepler; Brahe
- Galileo; Brahe
- Copernicus; Newton
- Copernicus; Galileo

A
  • Copernicus; Galileo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

exam 1: 32)
Aristotle concluded that the Earth is round due to ___.
- the straight shadow of the earth on the moon during a lunar eclipse
- the change in the positions of the stars in the sky as the observer’s latitude changes
- the curved shadow of the earth on the moon during a lunar eclipse
- none of the above
- the change in the positions of the stars in the sky as the observer’s longitude changes

A
  • the curved shadow of the earth on the moon during a lunar eclipse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

exam 1: 33)
In newton’s theory of planetary motion, the shapes of the orbits are due to ___. but Einstein’s theory the shapes of the orbits are due to ___.
- the curvature of space-time; the force of gravity
- the light we receive from the sun; the force of gravity
- the force of gravity; the presence of Jupiter
- the force of gravity; the curvature of space-time
- the curvature of space-time; the light we receive from the sun

A
  • the force of gravity; the curvature of space-time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

exam 1: 34)
The Copernican principle is important for the observational astronomy because according to it:
- light takes 8 minutes to reach the sun
- physical laws are the same throughout the universe
- physical laws are different throughout the universe
- light takes 1.5 seconds to reach the moon
- time travel is possible

A
  • physical laws are the same throughout the universe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

exam 1: 35)
The parallax technique allows us to determine distances to objects in space using triangles. Stellar parallax uses ___ as the baseline for the triangle and regular parallax uses ___.
- the earth’s radius; the moon’s radius
- the moon’s distance from the earth; the moon’s radius
- the earth’s radius; the earth’s distance from the sun
- the earth’s distance from the sun; the earth’s radius
- the earth’s radius; the moons distance from the earth

A
  • the earth’s distance from the sun; the earth’s radius
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

exam 1: 36)
The angular height of the North Celestial Pole (Polaris) above the northern horizon is ___.
- impossible to determine from available information
- always equal to 45 degrees
- always equal to 25 degrees
- equal to the observer’s latitude
- equal to the observer’s longitude

A
  • equal to the observer’s latitude
81
Q

exam 1: 37)
Einstein used the experimental photoelectric effect to establish that radiation energy ___.
- comes in discrete in units called photons
- is continuously absorbed by electrons
- is equal to zero
- is larger for radio waves than for gamma rays

A
  • comes in discrete in units called photons
82
Q

exam 1: 38)
One sidereal day is ___ than one solar day
- 3.9 seconds shorter
- 4.8 hours shorter
- 3.9 minutes shorter
- 3.9 minutes longer

A
  • 3.9 minutes shorter
83
Q

exam 1: 39)
The peak of the blackbody curve (the Plank spectrum) for a 3000K object is located
- cannot be detected by any instrument
- at longer wavelength than for a 5000K object
- at shorter wavelength than for a 5000K object
- at shorter wavelength than for a 7000K object
- none of the above

A
  • at longer wavelength than for a 5000K object
84
Q

exam 1: 40)
If we traveled away from earth through the galaxy, the constellations ___. The scientific method can be summarized using the three words ___.
- would remain exactly the same; predict, compare, falsify
- would appear to slowly change shape; speculate, meditate, rationalize
- would all become much brighter; observation, theory, testing
- would appear to slowly change shape; observation, theory, testing

A
  • would appear to slowly change shape; observation, theory, testing
85
Q

exam 1: 41)
During the Copernican revolution, ___ used Tycho Brahe’s data to reduce the 3 laws of planetary motion, and ___ developed the physical laws explaining why the planets follow elliptical orbits.
- Copernicus; Galileo
- Galileo; Copernicus
- Kepler; Brahe
- Kepler; Newton
- Copernicus; Newton

A
  • Kepler; Newton
86
Q

exam 1: 42)
In the Ptolemaic model, when Mars appears in retrograde motion, its direction of motion in space as viewed from the North celestial pole is ___, whereas in the Copernican model, Mars always moves ___.
- clockwise; counterclockwise
- counterclockwise; counterclockwise
- clockwise; clockwise
- up; down
- down; up

A
  • clockwise; counterclockwise
87
Q

exam 1: 43) Choose Newton’s laws of motion from the list
1)the cube of a planet’s semi-major axis is proportional to the square of its orbital period
2) to every action the is an equal and opposite reaction
3) planets follow elliptical orbits with the sun at one focus
4) things at rest remain at rest and things in motion travel at uniform velocity unless acted on by an external force
5) the line between the sun and a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals
6) the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the force acting on the object and inversely proportional to its mass
7) gravitational acceleration is caused by the curvature of space-time

A

2) to every action the is an equal and opposite reaction
4) things at rest remain at rest and things in motion travel at uniform velocity unless acted on by an external force
6) the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the force acting on the object and inversely proportional to its mass

88
Q

exam 1: 44)
if the distance between two objects is increased by a factor of 3, then the gravitational force between them will:
- increase by a factor of 3
- it can’t be determined from the available info
- decrease by a factor of 3
- increase by a factor of 9
- decrease by a factor of 9

A
  • decrease by a factor of 9
89
Q

exam 1: 45)
use the list to choose Kepler’s laws of planetary motion:
1)the cube of a planet’s semi-major axis is proportional to the square of its orbital period
2) to every action the is an equal and opposite reaction
3) planets follow elliptical orbits with the sun at one focus
4) things at rest remain at rest and things in motion travel at uniform velocity unless acted on by an external force
5) the line between the sun and a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals
6) the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the force acting on the object and inversely proportional to its mass
7) gravitational acceleration is caused by the curvature of space-time

A

1)the cube of a planet’s semi-major axis is proportional to the square of its orbital period
3) planets follow elliptical orbits with the sun at one focus
5) the line between the sun and a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals

90
Q

exam 1: 46)
Retrograde motion occurs when a planet appears to move ___. When Mars appears to be in retrograde motion as viewed from earth, then ___ as viewed from Mars.
- eastward relative to the stars; earth’s motion is retrograde
- eastward relative to the stars; earths motion is prograde
- westward relative to the stars; earths motion is prograde
- westward relative to the stars; earths motion is retrograde

A
  • westward relative to the stars; earths motion is prograde
91
Q

exam 1: 47)
in Ptolemy’s model of the universe, the ___ is at the center and ___ motion of the planets is explained using ___.
- sun; retrograde; ellipses
- sun; retrograde; epicycles
- earth; retrograde; epicycles
- earth; direct; ellipses

A
  • earth; retrograde; epicycles
92
Q

exam 1: 48)
An eclipse of the moon can be observed only during a ___, while an eclipse of the sun can be observed only during a __.
- full moon; new moon
- new moon; full moon
- new moon; new moon
- third quarter moon; new moon
- full moon; full moon

A
  • full moon; new moon
93
Q

exam 1: 49)
Galileo’s observations of the full phase of Venus were inconsistent with the Ptolemaic model of the solar system because:
- the shadow of the earth on the moon during a lunar eclipse is always a circle
- in the Ptolemaic model Venus is always farther from earth than the sun is
- in the Ptolemaic model the sun is at the center of the solar system
- in the Ptolemaic model the earth is flat
- in the Ptolemaic model Venus is always closer to the earth than the sun is

A
  • in the Ptolemaic model Venus is always farther from earth than the sun is
94
Q

exam 1: 50)
Suppose you point a telescope at a star and then clamp the telescope to the ground so it that it can’t move. If you wait ___, then the telescope will be pointing to a different star with ___:
- one solar hour; the same declination but one more hour of right ascension
- one solar hour; the same right ascension but one more degree of declination
- one sidereal hour; the same declination but one more hour of right ascension
- one sidereal hour; the same right ascension but one more degree of declination

A

one sidereal hour; the same declination but one more hour of right ascension

95
Q

exam 2: 1)
Asteroids and comets are important in astronomy because they are ___. However, comets are even more primordial since they are made of ___.
a) Leftover from the formation of the Solar System; Ice
b) Remnants of planetary formation; Metal
c) Fragments of ancient stars; Gas
d) Captured objects from interstellar space; Rock

A

a) Leftover from the formation of the Solar System; Ice

96
Q

exam 2: 2)
Most of the hydrogen in the earth’s early atmosphere has been ___. Most of the oxygen in earth’s current atmosphere was ___.
a) Lost to space; Produced by photosynthesis
b) Captured by the Moon; Released by volcanic activity
c) Converted into methane; Released from Earth’s crust
d) Absorbed by the oceans; Created by volcanic eruptions

A

a) lost to space; produced by photosynthesis

97
Q

exam 2: 3)
Radio Astronomy can be performed ___. Most large telescopes are reflectors and not refractors because___.
a) In poor weather, during the day, from the surface of the Earth, at night; Large lenses are difficult to support, difficult to fabricate, suffer from chromatic aberration.
b) Only at night, on other planets, only in clear weather, during solar eclipses; Refractors are easier to manufacture, cheaper, and more effective for all wavelengths.
c) In space, during thunderstorms, on the Moon, only in extreme temperatures; Reflectors are less expensive and easier to maintain than refractors.
d) Only during the day, in clear weather, on the Moon, in space; Refractors are heavier and have better image resolution than reflectors.

A

a) in poor weather, during the day, from the surface of the Earth, at night; large lenses are difficult to support, difficult to fabricate, suffer from chromatic aberration.

98
Q

exam 2: 4)
Tides on the Earth are caused by ___.
a) The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon.
b) The Earth’s rotation and the Moon’s orbit.
c) The solar wind and Earth’s magnetic field.
d) Earth’s distance from the Sun and its axial tilt.

A

a) the gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon

99
Q

exam 2: 5)
Due to the tidal bulge in the earth’s crust caused by the moon, the earth’s rate of spin is ___, and the moon is ___.
a) Slowing down; Moving farther from Earth
b) Increasing; Moving closer to Earth
c) Unchanged; Staying at a constant distance
d) Accelerating; Moving at a faster rate toward Earth

A

a) slowing down; moving farther from Earth

100
Q

exam 2: 6)
consider two telescopes, one with a 3 inch diameter and one with a 12 inch diameter. The 12 inch telescope receives ___ times more light energy per second than the 3 inch telescope
a) 16 times
b) 4 times
c) 12 times
d) 36 times

A

a) 16 times
* (12/3)^2 = 4^2 = 16

101
Q

exam 2: 7)
Uranium 238 has a half-life of about 4 billion years and decays into lead. How long will it take for 3/4 of the Uranium to change into lead?
a) 4 billion years
b) 6 billion years
c) 8 billion years
d) 12 billion years

A

c) 8 billion years

102
Q

exam 2: 8)
if the concentration of CO2 in the earth’s atmosphere increases, then ___.

A

the Earth’s temperature will increase due to enhanced greenhouse effects

103
Q

exam 2: 9)
if two planets with the same mass but different temperatures start off with the same amount of hydrogen gas in their atmospheres, then the ___ planet will retain ___ of its hydrogen than the ___ planet

A

cooler; more; hotter

104
Q

exam 2: 10)
use the following list to choose methods that can be used to detect planets with similar masses to that of earth
1) searches for periodic doppler shifts of lines in the spectrum of the central star
2) searches for periodic changes in the pulsations observed from a pulsar
3) searches for planets with satellites in orbit around them
4) searches for periodic drops in the light from the central star due to transits by a planet
5) searches for periodic, bright flashes from the central star
6) searches for supernova explosions

A

1) searches for periodic doppler shifts of lines in the spectrum of the central star
4) searches for periodic drops in the light from the central star due to transits by a planet

105
Q

exam 2: 12)
when atoms are excited via ___ and then de-excited via ___, this process cools the gas
a) Absorption; Spontaneous emission
b) Spontaneous emission; Absorption
c) Ionization; Recombination
d) Excitation; Collisional ionization

A

a) absorption; spontaneous emission

106
Q

exam 2: 13)
the tidal force that the moon exerts on the earth is ___ than the tidal force that the earth exerts on the moon
a) Stronger
b) Weaker
c) the same
d) Unpredictable

A

c) the same

107
Q

exam 2: 14)
Ionization is the process in which high-energy radiation causes ___.

a) Atoms to bond together
b) Electrons to be ejected from atoms
c) Protons to be released from the nucleus
d) Neutrons to decay into protons and electrons

A

b) electrons to be ejected from atoms

108
Q

exam 2: 15)
we do not detect shear waves on the side of the earth opposite from an earthquake. from this evidence we can deduce that ___.
a) Shear waves cannot travel through liquids.
b) The Earth’s core is made entirely of solid rock.
c) Shear waves are absorbed by the atmosphere.
d) Earthquakes only produce compressional waves.

A

a) shear waves cannot travel through liquids

109
Q

exam 2: 16)
Adaptive optics is the process in which a laser “guide star” is used to ___. This technique allows us to achieve ___ from earth’s surface
a) Create an artificial star; Better resolution through the atmosphere.
b) Improve telescope alignment; Higher magnification in space.
c) Measure atmospheric distortion; Clearer images in the infrared.
d) Guide spacecraft movement; More accurate space travel navigation.

A

a) create an artificial star; better resolution through the atmosphere

110
Q

exam 2: 17)
to track a distant galaxy using a telescope on an equatorial mount, we need to ___.
a) Align the telescope with the North Celestial Pole.
b) Point the telescope directly at the galaxy’s position in the sky.
c) Align the telescope with the South Celestial Pole.
d) Set the telescope’s altitude and azimuth to the galaxy’s coordinates.

A

a) align the telescope with the north celestial pole

111
Q

exam 2: 18)
Use the following list to choose the methods that can be used to detect extra-solar planets:
1) searches for periodic doppler shifts of lines in the spectrum of the central star
2) searches for periodic changes in the pulsations observed from a pulsar
3) searches for planets with satellites in orbit around them
4) searches for periodic drops in the light from the central star due to transits by a planet
5) searches for periodic, bright flashes from the central star
6) searches for supernova explosions

A

1) searches for periodic doppler shifts of lines in the spectrum of the central star
2) searches for periodic changes in the pulsations observed from a pulsar
4) searches for periodic drops in the light from the central star due to transits by a planet

112
Q

exam 2: 19)
Equatorial telescope mounts are convenient when photographing dim astronomical objects like distant galaxies because:

A

they allow the telescope to automatically track objects as the Earth rotates, requiring no manual adjustments during long exposures.

113
Q

exam 2: 20)
use the following list to choose what applies to terrestrial planets:
1) small, dense, rocky, with solid surfaces
2) clustered close to the sun and each other
3) large and gaseous, with no solid surfaces
4) spread throughout the outer solar system
5) weak magnetic fields, slow rotation
6) strong magnetic fields, rapid rotation

A

1) small, dense, rocky, with solid surfaces
2) clustered close to the sun and each other
5) weak magnetic fields, slow rotation

114
Q

exam 2: 21)
the Fraunhofer lines in the solar spectrum are ___ lines mostly due to ___
a) Dark; Absorption by elements in the Sun’s atmosphere
b) Bright; Emission from the Sun’s core
c) Dark; Emission from the Sun’s photosphere
d) Bright; Scattering by particles in the Sun’s corona

A

a) dark; absorption by elements in the Sun’s atmosphere

115
Q

exam 2: 22)
focusing x-rays and gamma rays requires grazing incidence reflection because ___
a) X-rays and gamma rays have very short wavelengths.
b) X-rays and gamma rays cannot pass through Earth’s atmosphere.
c) X-rays and gamma rays are absorbed by most materials.
d) X-rays and gamma rays are too energetic for regular lenses.

A

a) X-rays and gamma rays have very short wavelengths.

116
Q

exam 2: 23)
the highest high tides occur when the earth, moon, and the sun form ___. the lowest high tides occur when the earth, moon, and sun form ____.

A

a straight line; a right angle

117
Q

exam 2: 25)
the amount of CO2 in the earth’s atmosphere is ___, which causes ___.

A

increasing; global warming

118
Q

exam 2: 26)
the shifts of absorption and emission lines in the stellar spectra tell us about ___. Atmospheric convection is caused by ___.
a) The composition; Solar heating
b) The temperature; Magnetic fields
c) The distance; Gravitational forces
d) The velocity; Atmospheric pressure

A

a) the composition; solar heating

119
Q

exam 2: 27)
As gas is heated in a sealed tube, it produces higher frequency radiation because ___
a) The gas molecules move faster, emitting higher energy photons.
b) The pressure inside the tube increases, leading to faster radiation emission.
c) The gas undergoes ionization, producing ultraviolet light.
d) The gas molecules absorb energy and emit it as visible light.

A

a) the gas molecules move faster, emitting higher energy photons

120
Q

exam 2: 28)
use the following list to select features that apply to Jovian planets:
1) small, dense, rocky, with solid surfaces
2) clustered close to the sun and each other
3) large and gaseous, with no solid surfaces
4) spread throughout the outer solar system
5) weak magnetic fields, slow rotation
6) strong magnetic fields, rapid rotation

A

3) large and gaseous, with no solid surfaces
4) spread throughout the outer solar system
6) strong magnetic fields, rapid rotation

121
Q

exam 2: 29)
when white light is passed through a cool, thin gas, the photons that are absorbed ___ and ___
a) Cause radiative excitation; Are re-emitted in random directions.
b) Cause ionization; Are absorbed permanently.
c) Cause electron transitions; Are emitted as X-rays.
d) Cause thermal excitation; Are re-emitted as infrared radiation.

A

a) cause radiative excitation; are re-emitted in random directions.

122
Q

exam 2: 30)
X-ray and gamma-ray astronomy can be performed ___Optical astronomy can be performed ___
a) Only from space; Anywhere
b) Only during the day; Only at night
c) From Earth and space; Only from space
d) Only from space; Only with special filters

A

a) only from space; anywhere

123
Q

exam 2: 31)
the earth’s surface is heated by ___ and it cools mainly ___

A

solar radiation; infrared radiation emitted back into space

124
Q

exam 2: 32)
seismic ___ waves cannot propagate through the earth’s core, while seismic ___ waves can
a) Shear (S) waves; Compression (P) waves
b) Compression (P) waves; Shear (S) waves
c) Surface waves; Body waves
d) Rayleigh waves; Love waves

A

a) shear (S) waves; compression (P) waves

125
Q

exam 2: 33)
the energy levels in ___ are determined by the electronic structure only, whereas the energy levels in ___ are also affected by rotation and vibration
a) Atoms; Molecules
b) Molecules; Atoms
c) Solids; Liquids
d) Stars; Planets

A

a) atoms; molecules

126
Q

exam 2: 34)
The greenhouse effect occurs when___

A

carbon dioxide builds up and traps heat in the atmosphere from the sun

127
Q

exam 2: 35)
If the Earth were not spinning___

A
  • One side of the Earth would always face the Sun
  • There would be no Coriolis effect ( no hurricanes )
  • No centrifugal force
  • tides would mostly depend on the gravitational interaction between the earth and moon
128
Q

exam 2: 36)
The length of an Earth day is___
a) 24 hours exactly
b) 23 hours 56 minutes
c) 24 hours 10 minutes
d) 23 hours 50 minutes

A

b) 23 hours 56 minutes

129
Q

exam 2: 38)
theoretical resolution of a telescope
a = 2.5 * 10^-5 * lambda/Diameter
if we ___ the value of lambda while leaving Diameter fixed, then the resolution angle a is ___.

A

if we increase lambda, then the resolution angle increases and vis versa

130
Q

exam 2: 39)
Atmospheric blurring is due to ___. Interferometry is the process that uses two or more telescopes to __.
a) Turbulent motions in the Earth’s atmosphere; Improve the resolution to that of a telescope.
b) Cloud cover in the atmosphere; Increase the brightness of distant objects.
c) Magnetic fields in the atmosphere; Measure the distance to stars.
d) Gravitational lensing by the Earth’s atmosphere; Focus light from distant objects.

A

a) turbulent motions in the Earth’s atmosphere; improve the resolution to that of a telescope

131
Q

exam 2: 40)
The emission and absorption lines of hydrogen gas occur at ___ frequencies. The pattern of emission and absorption lines ___ the composition of the gas.
a) Specific; Reveals
b) Random; Hides
c) Variable; Disguises
d) Broad; Changes

A

a) specific; reveals

132
Q

exam 2: 42)
the structure of the earth’s interior has been determined by ___.
a) Seismic (S) waves
b) Magnetic fields
c) compression (P) waves
d) Surface temperature measurements

A

a) seismic waves (S)

133
Q

exam 2: 43)
chromatic aberration ___.
a) Is an issue for refracting telescopes but not for reflecting telescopes.
b) Occurs in reflecting telescopes but not in refracting telescopes.
c) Can be corrected with a single lens.
d) Is caused by the curvature of the telescope’s mirrors.

A

a) is an issue for refracting telescopes but not for reflecting telescopes

134
Q

exam 2: 44)
the ___ force causes hurricanes to spin ___ in the Northern hemisphere.
a) Coriolis; Counterclockwise
b) Gravitational; Clockwise
c) Centripetal; Counterclockwise
d) Magnetic; Counterclockwise

A

a) Coriolis; counterclockwise

135
Q

exam 2: 45)
Meteorites are important because they are comprised of ___. most meteorites have a ___ composition.
a) Silicon or iron; Stony
b) Carbon or hydrogen; Metallic
c) Oxygen or nitrogen; Volcanic
d) Water or methane; Gaseous

A

a) silicon or iron; stony

136
Q

exam 2: 46)
A hot dense gas at high pressure produces __. a hot thin gas produces ___.
a) Continuous spectrum; Emission lines
b) Emission lines; Continuous spectrum
c) Absorption lines; Emission lines
d) Continuous spectrum; Absorption lines

A

a) continuous spectrum; emission lines

137
Q

exam 2: 49)
the color of a star gives its temperature via ___. the wavelengths of absorption and emission lines tells us about ___.
a) Wien’s Law; The composition of the star
b) Stefan-Boltzmann Law; The size of the star
c) Kirchhoff’s Law; The star’s age
d) Planck’s Law; The luminosity of the star

A

a) Wien’s Law; the composition of the star

138
Q

exam 2: 50)
the slow drift of the continents reflects the action of ___.

A

plate tectonics

139
Q

exam 3: 1)
Venus and Mars have about the same percentage of CO2 in their atmospheres. However, only Venus has a strong greenhouse effect because ___.

A

Venus has a much thicker atmosphere, trapping more heat.

140
Q

exam 3: 2)
Based on telescopic observations, it is easy to see that the maria (dark regions) on the Moon have far fewer craters than the highlands (bright regions). This led scientists to believe that ___.
a) The highlands are 4 billion years old and the maria are 3 billion years old.
b) The highlands are 1 billion years old and the maria are 4 billion years old.
c) The highlands are 4 billion years old and the maria are 100 million years old.
d) The highlands are 1 billion years old and the maria are 100 million years old.
e) The highlands and the maria are both 2 billion years old.

A

c) The highlands are 4 billion years old and the maria are 100 million years old. *

141
Q

exam 3: 3)
water ice is able to survive near the ___ on the moon and mercury because it is ___ and the is no ___.
a) Poles or deep shaded craters; Shielded from solar radiation; Atmosphere
b) Equator; Exposed to solar radiation; Atmosphere
c) Poles; Shielded from solar radiation; Gravity
d) Equator; Shielded from solar radiation; Atmosphere

A

a) Poles or deep shaded craters; Shielded from solar radiation; Atmosphere

142
Q

exam 3: 4)
the clouds of Venus are composed of droplets of ___. the water that was once on Venus has been ___.
a) Sulfuric acid; Lost to space
b) Water vapor; Absorbed by the surface
c) Ammonia; Trapped in the atmosphere
d) Sulfuric acid; Converted into hydrogen and oxygen

A

a) Sulfuric acid; Lost to space

143
Q

exam 3: 5)
The moon and mercury have no significant atmospheres because ___. the lack of an atmosphere causes ___ daily temperature variations

A

low mass ; extreme

144
Q

exam 3: 6)
the internal heating that powers the volcanoes on Io is caused by ___ which is connected with the fact that ___.
a) radioactive decay; Io has a large metallic core
b) tidal forces from Jupiter; Io has an elliptical orbit due to gravitational influence of Europa
c) heat from Jupiter’s magnetosphere; Io is constantly bombarded by charged particles
d) internal friction from tectonic movements; Io’s crust is made of soft, deformable material

A

b) tidal forces from Jupiter; Io has an elliptical orbit due to gravitational influence of Europa

145
Q

exam 3: 7)
active water outflows on mars are observed ___.
a) As a huge flood of water from the southern highlands into the northern lowlands
b) As small streams flowing from the polar ice caps
c) In the form of underground rivers near the equator
d) As ice geysers erupting from the surface near the poles

A

a) as a huge flood of water from the southern highlands into the northern lowlands

146
Q

exam 3: 8)
Mercury is similar in size to many of the moons in the solar system. However, Mercury’s ___ is much ___ than that of the moons.

A

core; more dense

147
Q

exam 3: 9)
Consider a planet that is tidally locked in its orbit around a star. Which of the following is probably true about this planet?
a) Its orbit is highly elliptical, and its rotation rate varies greatly over time.
b) It has a synchronous orbit, meaning the same face always faces the star.
c) It rotates rapidly, completing multiple rotations during each orbit.
d) It experiences seasons due to a significant axial tilt.

A

b) has a synchronous orbit, same face always faces the star

148
Q

exam 3: 10)
planetary rings occur ___. some small moons of Saturn are able to exist in the same region as the rings because ___.
a) Inside the Roche limit; Of resonances with the various satellites of Saturn
b) Outside the Roche limit; Of gravitational attraction from the rings
c) Within the atmosphere of the planet; Of the planet’s strong magnetic field
d) Beyond the Roche limit; Of the moon’s ability to maintain a stable orbit

A

a) inside the Roche limit; of resonances with the various satellites of Saturn

149
Q

exam 3: 11)
Venus has no detectable magnetic field because ___. it is surprising that Mercury has a weak but detectable magnetic field because ___.

A

of very slow rotation; it probably has a large, dense molten core like earth

150
Q

exam 3: 12)
the magnetic fields of Earth, Jupiter, and Neptune are thought to be generated in regions containing ___, respectively.
a) metallic hydrogen; ionic slush; molten iron
b) molten iron; metallic hydrogen; ionic slush
c) ionic slush; molten iron; metallic hydrogen
d) molten iron; metallic hydrogen; metallic hydrogen
e) molten iron; metallic hydrogen; molten iron

A

b) (Earth) molten iron; (Jupiter) metallic hydrogen; (Neptune) ionic slush *

151
Q

exam 3: 13)
the summer in the southern hemisphere on Mars is hotter than in the northern hemisphere because during summer in the southern hemisphere ___.

A

mars is closest to the sun

152
Q

exam 3: 14)
even though it is close to the sun, Mercury’s orbit is not synchronous because ___. the densities of Venus and Mercury are similar to the density of the Earth, which implies that Venus and Mercury ___.
a) circular orbits can’t be synchronous; the atmospheres of the two planets are probably similar.
b) elliptical orbits can’t be synchronous; they probably have massive iron cores
c) the cratering rate is too high on Mercury; the presence of active volcanoes.
d) the solar wind keeps the orbit from being synchronous; widespread erosion from the solar wind.

A

b) elliptical orbits can’t be synchronous; they probably have massive iron cores

153
Q

exam 3: 15)
the presence of iron oxide on the surface of Mars indicates that planet ___ because ___.

A

cooled quickly; of very little differentiation

154
Q

exam 3: 16)
we think that the famous Martian Meteorites are from Mars because ___.

A

Gases trapped in bubbles in the rock are identical in composition to that of mars

155
Q

exam 3: 17)
the fact that Jupiter’s moon Ganymede has a magnetic field is surprising because __.
a) It is in a synchronous orbit and is frozen solid
b) It is farther from Jupiter than any other moon
c) It lacks an atmosphere and is tidally locked
d) It has no iron core, unlike most other moons

A

a) it is in a synchronous orbit and is frozen solid

156
Q

exam 3: 18)
The radius of the Moon is R=1.7x 10^8 cm and its mass is M=7.4x 10^25g. From these values, we conclude that the volume is ___ and the mean density ‘p’ is ___. Hint: the volume V of a sphere of radius R is given by the formula V= (4/3) pi R^3 and the mean density ‘p’ is given by the formula p=M/V
a) 2.06×10^25 cm32.06×10 25 cm^3 ; 3.60 g/cm^3
b) 3.60×10^25 cm33.60×10 25 cm^3 ; 2.06 g/cm^3
c) 1.70×10^25 cm31.70×10 25 cm^3 ; 4.00 g/cm^3
d) 2.06×10^24cm 32.06×10 24 cm^3; 3.00 g/cm^3

A

a) 2.06×10^25 cm^3; 3.60g / cm^3

157
Q

exam 3: 19)
the 70% albedo of Venus is due to ___. the runaway greenhouse effect occurred on Venus because ___.
a) The reflective cloud layer; Hydrogen was lost into space due to the high temperature and low mass
b) The dense atmosphere; The lack of a magnetic field allowed solar winds to strip away gases
c) Sulfuric acid clouds; Volcanoes released excessive carbon dioxide
d) The thick carbon dioxide layer; The absence of oceans prevented heat regulation

A

a) the reflective cloud layer; hydrogen was lost into space due to the high temperature and low mass

158
Q

exam 3: 20)
Helium precipitation occurs on Saturn but not on Jupiter because Jupiter ___. Helium precipitation in Saturn’s atmosphere helps to explain its ___ and also the lack of ___ in its clouds.
a) is too cold for helium to condense; high temperature; methane
b) is too cold for helium to condense; low temperature; hydrogen
c) is too warm for helium to condense; high temperature; helium
d) is too warm for helium to condense; high temperature; methane
e) is too warm for hydrogen to condense; low temperature; helium

A

c) is too warm for helium to condense; high temperature; helium *

159
Q

exam 3: 21)
the current absence of liquid water on the surface of Mars resulted from ___. the water that used to be on the surface is now ___.

A

its thin atmosphere and low pressure; in the soil as permafrost

160
Q

exam 3: 22)
the channels and outflow features discovered on Mars by Mariner 9 and the Mars Global surveyor show that ___.
a) there was a huge flood of lava from the southern highlands into the northern lowlands.
b) there was a huge flood of lava from the northern highlands into the southern lowlands.
c) there was a huge flood of water from the southern highlands into the northern lowlands.
d) there was a huge flood of water from the northern highlands into the southern lowlands.

A

c) there was a huge flood of water from the southern highlands into the northern lowlands. *

161
Q

exam 3: 23)
The clouds observed on Jupiter and Saturn have rotation periods that vary with latitude. This is called ___ rotation. the motion of the great red spot on Jupiter is driven by ___.
a) prograde; the shear motion of the surrounding belts
b) differential; the shear motion of the surrounding belts
c) differential; the orbital motion of the jovian moons
d) transverse; the shear motion of the surrounding belts
e) prograde; the orbital motion of the jovian moons

A

b) differential; the shear motion of the surrounding belts *

162
Q

exam 3: 24)
since the average densities of the moon and mars are about ___. we conclude that both objects ___.
a) 5-6 gm/cm^3; have a large fraction of iron
b) 5-6 gm/cm^3; do not have a large fraction of iron
c) 3-4 gm/cm^3; have a large fraction of iron
d) 3-4 gm/cm^3; do not have a large fraction of iron
e) formed due to violent collisions in the past

A

d) 3-4 gm/cm^3; do not have a large fraction of iron *

163
Q

exam 3: 25)
Consider the following list of items:
(i) X-ray astronomy.
(ii) the Doppler shift of reflected radar signals.
(ii) radio astronomy observations of the Planck curve.
(iv) the observations of Giovanni Schiaparelli.
(v) the Hubble Space Telescope.
Which of the items on the list were used to discover the high surface temperature of Mercury?

A

(ii) radio astronomy observations of the Planck curve.

164
Q

exam 3: 26)
the huge “Valles Marineris” (Mariner Valley) on Mars was formed by ___. the grand canyon on earth was formed by ___.
a) water erosion; volcanic flows
b) wind erosion; water erosion
c) volcanic flows; water erosion
d) water erosion; tectonic fracturing
e) tectonic fracturing; water erosion

A

e) tectonic fracturing; water erosion *

165
Q

exam 3: 27)
Active outflows on Mars are observed in the ___ hemisphere on mars. The liquid involved is thought to be ___.

A

Southern; water

166
Q

exam 3: 28)
although the main atmosphere constituent on mars and Venus is ___, the atmosphere of Venus is about ___ more dense than that of mars.
a) CO2; 10,000
b) Nitrogen; 1,000
c) Oxygen; 100
d) Water vapor; 100,000

A

a) CO2; 10,000

167
Q

exam 3: 29)
the narrow, braided shape of Saturn’s F-ring is caused by ___. Shepherd satellites are able to exist inside the Roche limit because ___.

A

Shepherd satellites; they are so small they are held together by electrostatic forces

168
Q

exam 3: 30)
Because they are the closest planets to the Sun, Mercury and Venus are generally easiest to observe ___.
a) Just before sunrise or just after sunset
b) In the middle of the night
c) When they are at opposition
d) During a solar eclipse

A

a) just before sunrise or just after sunset

169
Q

exam 3: 31)
the planets Uranus and Neptune are more ___ in appearance than Jupiter and Saturn because Uranus and Neptune ___.
a) red; Uranus and Neptune have less methane gas in their atmospheres.
b) blue; Uranus and Neptune have more methane gas in their atmospheres.
c) red; Uranus and Neptune have more ammonia gas in their atmospheres.
d) blue; Uranus and Neptune have less ammonia gas in their atmospheres.
e) red; the rate at which infrared radiation is emitted by Uranus and Neptune into space equals the rate of solar heating.

A

b) blue; Uranus and Neptune have more methane gas in their atmospheres. *

170
Q

exam 3: 32)
the various gaps observed in Saturn’s rings are caused by ___. the Cassini division is due to ___.
a) Orbital resonances with Saturn’s moons; A 2:1 orbital resonance with the moon Mimas
b) Gravitational forces from Saturn’s moons; The Roche limit
c) Saturn’s magnetic field; The interaction between ring particles and solar winds
d) The planet’s rotation; A 3:1 orbital resonance with the moon Enceladus

A

a) orbital resonances with Saturn’s moons ; a 2:1 orbital resonance with the moon Mimas.

171
Q

exam 3: 33)
impact craters on mercury are generally ___ than impact craters on the moon ___ because:
a) smaller; the Moon is closer to the Earth.
b) larger; the Moon has more active volcanoes.
c) smaller; the surface gravity of Mercury is higher.
d) larger; the surface gravity of Mercury is lower.
e) smaller; Mercury is closer to the Sun.

A

c) smaller; the surface gravity of Mercury is higher. *

172
Q

exam 3: 34)
some scientists think that the organic material inside the famous Martian meteorites is actually due to the contamination on earth. this is unlikely because ___.

A

the concentration of the materials increases towards the center of the sample

173
Q

exam 3: 35)
The theory for the Moon’s formation thought to be most likely is ___. there is some evidence that the earth originally had ___.
a) the capture theory; no moons
b) the daughter or fission theory; another moon
c) the sister or conformation theory; no moons
d) the collision or impact theory; another moon

A

d) the collision or impact theory; multiple moons

174
Q

exam 3: 36)
The densities of the Jovian moons lo, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto decrease with increasing distance form Jupiter. However, the moons of Saturn do not show this trend. This is because ___.
a) Jupiter is closer to the Sun than Saturn is.
b) Saturn is closer to the Sun than Jupiter is.
c) Jupiter radiated much more heat during the formation of its moons than Saturn did, causing more differentiation of the moon system.
d) Saturn radiated much more heat during the formation of its moon than Jupiter did, causing more differentiation of the moon system.

A

c) Jupiter radiated much more heat during the formation of its moons than Saturn did, causing more differentiation of the moon system. *

175
Q

exam 3: 37)
Currently, Venus is very hot and Mars is very cold. It may be possible for Mars to become Earth-like in the future, but this is not the case for Venus because the water molecules ___.
a) have been absorbed by the rocks under the surface.
b) have been removed by volcanoes.
c) have been split up by solar radiation, with the hydrogen escaping into space.
d) have been split up by solar radiation, with the oxygen escaping into space.
e) have been frozen solid during a solar eclipse.

A

c) have been split up by solar radiation, with the hydrogen escaping into space. *

176
Q

exam 3: 38)
Consider the following list of items:
(i) X-ray astronony.
(ii) the Doppler shift of reflected radar signals.
(ii) radio astronomy observations of the Planck curve.
(iv) the observations of Giovanni Schiaparelli.
(v) the Hubble Space Telescope.
Which of the items on the list were used to discover the retrograde rotation of Venus?

A

(ii) the Doppler shift of reflected radar signals.
(v) the Hubble Space Telescope.

177
Q

exam 3: 39)
Jupiter emits about twice as much energy per second as it receives from the Sun, probably because of ___ Saturn emits about three times as much energy per second as it receives from the sun, probably because of ___.
a) escape of residual heat; ongoing differentiation
b) ongoing differentiation; escape of residual heat
c) nuclear reactions; ongoing differentiation
d) escape of residual heat; nuclear reactions
e) tidal forces; rapid rotation

A

a) escape of residual heat; ongoing differentiation *

178
Q

exam 3: 40)
The reverse runaway greenhouse effect probably occurred on Mars because ___.

a) the planet was too warm for enough CO2 and H2O gas to be retained in the atmosphere to form a thermal blanket.
b) the planet was too cold for enough CO2 and H2O gas to be retained in the atmosphere to form a thermal blanket.
c) too many asteroids were hitting the planet.
d) the layer of glass surrounding the planet shattered.

A

b) the planet was too cold for enough CO2 and H2O gas to be retained in the atmosphere to form a thermal blanket. *

179
Q

exam 3: 41)
Saturn’s moon Titan is unique because it has ___ composed mostly of ___.
a) a magnetic field; iron
b) a surface ocean; methane
c) an atmosphere; nitrogen
d) a solid surface; ice

A

c) an atmosphere; Nitrogen

180
Q

exam 3: 42)
The retrograde spin of Venus and the 98 degree tilt of the spin axis of Uranus are thought to be due to ___.
a) recent volcanic activity.
b) violent collisions in the distant past.
c) ancient volcanic activity.
d) huge floods.
e) heating from the Sun.

A

b) violent collisions in the distant past. *

181
Q

exam 3: 43)
The sidereal rotation period of Mars is about___.

A

24.6 hours long

182
Q

exam 3: 44)
The most common gas in the atmospheres of Mars and Venus is ___. The most common gas in the atmospheres of Jupiter and Saturn is ___.
a) CO2; N2
b) N2; O2
c) CO2; H2
d) H2O; CO2

A

c) CO2; H2

183
Q

exam 3: 45)
Consider the following list of items:
(i) X-ray astronomy.
(ii) the Doppler shift of reflected radar signals.
(ii) radio astronomy observations of the Planck curve.
(iv) the observations of Giovanni Schiaparelli.
(v) the Hubble Space Telescope.
Which of the items on the list above were used to discover the 3:2 spin-orbit resonance of Mercury?

A

(ii) the Doppler shift of reflected radar signals.

184
Q

exam 3: 46)
radio observations of Venus’s ___ revealed that the surface temperature is about ___.
a) Blackbody (Planck) spectrum radiated by the surface of Venus; 600 K
b) Visible light spectrum reflected by Venus; 400 K
c) Infrared radiation emitted by Venus; 300 K
d) X-ray emissions from Venus; 700 K

A

a) blackbody (Planck) spectrum radiated by the surface of Venus; 600 K

185
Q

exam 3: 47)
we see that the densities of the planets ___ as we move outward through the solar system, due to ___.
a) increase; condensation, which causes the dense material to stay away from the Sun.
b) decrease; condensation, which causes the dense material to stay near the Sun.
c) increase; differentiation, which causes the dense material to stay away from the Sun.
d) decrease; differentiation, which causes the dense material to stay near the Sun.

A

d) decrease; differentiation, which causes the dense material to stay near the Sun. *

186
Q

exam 3: 48)
Based on radioactive dating of lunar samples brought back to Earth by the Apollo astronauts, we now know that the highlands are actually ___ years older than the maria. this implies that ___.
a) 1 million years; the cratering rate in the solar system increased sharply about 3.5 billion years ago
b) 0.5 billion years; the cratering rate in the solar system dropped sharply about 3.5 billion years ago
c) 0.5 billion years; the cratering rate in the solar system increased sharply about 3.5 billion years ago
d) 1 million years; the cratering rate in the solar system dropped sharply about 3.5 billion years ago

A

b) 0.5 billion years; the cratering rate in the solar system dropped sharply about 3.5 billion years ago *

187
Q

exam 3: 49)
The sidereal rotation period of Jupiter’s magnetic field is approximately ___.
a) 1 hour
b) 10 hours
c) 24 hours
d) 59 hours
e) 100 hours

A

b) 10 hours *

188
Q

exam 3: 50)
Due to the tilt of the Martian spin axis combined with the ___ orbit of Mars, seasons in the ___ hemisphere are more extreme than those in the ___ hemisphere.
a) Elliptical; Southern; Northern
b) Circular; Northern; Southern
c) Inclined; Northern; Southern
d) Wide; Northern; Southern

A

a) elliptical; southern; northern

189
Q

supplemental practice test:
1, The Apollo Asteroids _______, and the Trojan Asteroids _______.

a) cross the orbit of Mars; are located 60 degrees from Jupiter
b) cross the orbit of Earth; are located 60 degrees from Jupiter
c) cross the orbit of Mars; are located 60 degrees from Earth
d) cross the orbit of Earth; are located 60 degrees from Mars
e) cross the orbit of Mars; are located 60 degrees from Venus

A

b) cross the orbit of Earth; are located 60 degrees from Jupiter *

190
Q

supplemental practice test:
2. We see that the densities of the planets _______ as we move outward through the solar system, due to _______.
a) increase; condensation, which causes the dense material to stay away from the Sun
b) decrease; condensation, which causes the dense material to stay near the Sun
c) increase; differentiation, which causes the dense material to stay away from the Sun
d) decrease; differentiation, which causes the dense material to stay near the Sun

A

d) decrease; differentiation, which causes the dense material to stay near the Sun *

191
Q

supplemental practice test:
3. The dust tail of a comet is not as straight as the ion tail because _______.
a) the ions are more massive than the dust particles
b) the dust particles are more massive than the ions
c) the dust tail is influenced by Jupiter
d) the dust tail is influenced by the Moon

A

b) the dust particles are more massive than the ions *

192
Q

supplemental practice test:
4. The Kirkwood gaps in the asteroid belt are due to _______.
a) orbital resonances with Neptune
b) orbital resonances with Jupiter
c) orbital resonances with Pluto
d) orbital resonances with Saturn
e) orbital resonances with Uranus

A

b) orbital resonances with Jupiter *

193
Q

supplemental practice test:
5. Most short period comets are located in the _______ right now.
a) Kuiper belt
b) Oort cloud
c) Asteroid belt
d) inside the orbit of Mercury
e) inside the orbit of Venus

A

a) Kuiper belt *

194
Q

supplemental practice test:
6. Most long period comets are located in the _______ right now.
a) Kuiper belt
b) Oort cloud
c) Asteroid belt
d) inside the orbit of Mercury
e) inside the orbit of Venus

A

b) Oort cloud *

195
Q

supplemental practice test:
7. The Condensation Theory for planetary formation adds _______ to the Nebular Theory.
a) helium gas
b) carbon dioxide
c) ice
d) dust
e) lithium gas

A

d) dust *

196
Q

supplemental practice test:
8. Protoplanetary nebula observed in our galaxy radiate strongly in the _______ region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
a) optical
b) gamma-ray
c) radio
d) infrared
e) X-ray

A

d) infrared *

197
Q

supplemental practice test:
9. The majority of meteorites found on Earth have a composition that is mostly _______.
a) silicate or iron
b) carbon
c) oxygen or iron
d) hydrogen
e) helium

A

a) silicate or iron *

198
Q

supplemental practice test:
10. The Widmanstatten patterns in iron meteorites reveal that the meteorites were _______.
a) frozen solid
b) cooled slowly over millions of years
c) cooled quickly in a few thousand years
d) mostly hydrogen
e) mostly helium

A

b) cooled slowly over millions of years *

199
Q

extra:
how much bigger is the mass of the sun than the earth?

A

The mass of the Sun is about 300,000 times greater than the mass of the Earth