Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NSG 312 OB > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

menarche

A

first menses; marks reproductive age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

menopause

A
  • occurs 46-50 years
  • reproductive system shuts down
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

amenorrhea

A

absence of menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

primary amenorrhea

A

no periods by age of 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

secondary amenorrhea

A

no periods for at least 3 months in women who had periods before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

causes of amenorrhea

A
  • menopause
  • pregnancy
  • excessive exercise
  • low body fat
  • PCOS
  • thyroid disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how many women are affected by amenorrhea?

A

up to 5% of women of childbearing age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

dysmenorrhea

A

medical term for menstrual cramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

primary dysmenorrhea

A

common and normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

secondary dysmenorrhea

A

signal reproductive tract disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

symptoms of primary dysmenorrhea

A
  • occurs on 1st day of period
  • lasts 8-72 hours
  • in lower abdomen, may radiate to lower back and legs
  • improves with age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

symptoms of secondary amenorrhea

A
  • occurs 1-2 days before period
  • lasts > 3 days
  • in lower abdomen and may radiate to lower back and legs
  • tends to worsen with age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

causes of primary dysmenorrhea

A

natural uterine contractions due to high prostaglandin concentration, aimed at shedding its lining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

causes of secondary dysmenorrhea

A
  • endometriosis
  • uterine fibroids
  • PID
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what can help dysmenorrhea?

A
  • diet and exercise
  • herbal supplements
  • home remedies
  • medications and surgery
  • heating pads/hot baths
  • pelvic rock exercises/yoga
  • meditation
  • decrease salt and refined sugar 7-10 days before menses
  • natural diuretics: asparagus, cranberry juice, peaces, watermelon
  • medications: prostaglandin inhibitors, oral contraceptive agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PMS

A

period symptoms prior to menses after ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

symptoms of PMS

A
  • bloating
  • headache/bachache
  • irritability, mood swings, anxiety, depression
  • fatigue/sleeping disturbances
  • constipation or diarrhea
  • appetite changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how can we help PMS?

A
  • be active throughout the month
  • eat healthy every day
  • get plenty of sleep
  • don’t smoke or vape
  • keep track of period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

3 common symptoms of endometriosis

A
  • painful intercourse
  • heavy menstruation
  • infertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is endometriosis?

A
  • endometrial tissue outside of uterus
  • no portal of exit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is gorserelin (zoladex) used for?

A

to reverse endometriosis
- gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist
- suppresses pituitary gonadotropin secretion
- FSH and LH stimulation declines
- women may experience menopause symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

complications of STIs

A
  • preterm labor
  • low birth weight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how can we prevent STIs?

A
  • identify risk factors
  • change risky behaviors (reduce # of partners)
  • use condoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

5 P’s for sexual history

A
  1. Partners
  2. Prevention of pregnancy
  3. Protection form STIs
  4. Practices
  5. Past history of STIs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

risk reduction measures for STIs

A
  • abstinence of activities with fluid exchange
  • avoid practices that increase tissue damage, direct contact with lesions, increased # of partners
  • knowledge of partner’s sexual history
  • vaccinations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

4 main bacterial infections

A
  • gonorrhea (often asymptomatic)
  • chlamydia (often asymptomatic)
  • syphilis
  • bacterial vaginosis
    *all are reportable communicable diseases (except bacterial vaginosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

common treatments for all bacterial infections

A
  • antibiotics
  • both partners much be treated even if asymptomatic (except bacterial vaginosis)
  • abstinence during treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how can gonorrhea be spread?

A
  • primarily genital to gential contact
  • can also be spread by oral-genital and anal-genital
  • may be transmitted to newborn during birth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

clinical manifestations of gonorrhea

A
  • often asymptomatic
  • diagnosis requires a culture
  • menstrual irregularities
  • greenish-yellow purulent endocervical discharge
  • chronic or acute severe pelvic of lower abdominal pain
  • vaginitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

most prevalent STI in USA

A

chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how is chlamydia diagnosed?

A
  • difficult to diagnose and complications are highly destructive
  • often asymptomatic
  • expensive to culture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how is syphilis spread?

A
  • enters body through small breaks in skin or mucous membranes
  • kissing, biting, oral-genital sex
  • can be spread to fetus via transplacental transmission during pregnancy
  • can lead to stillbirth, deformed bones, anemia, enlarged spleen and liver, blindness, jaundice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

secondary stage of syphilis

A
  • systemic
  • 6 weeks - 6 months after chancre is seen
  • maculopapular rash on palms and soles
  • fever, alopecia, headache, lymphadenopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what kind of complications can the tertiary stage of syphilis cause?

A

cardiovascular, neurological, musculoskeleta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the most common type of vaginitis?

A

bacterial vaginosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is bacterial vaginosis associated with?

A

preterm labor and birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

symptoms of bacterial vaginosis

A
  • thin grayish-white discharge
  • woman complains of fishy odor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

do sexual partners need to be treated in bacterial vaginosis?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how do we treat viral infections?

A

no curative treatments available ~ treat only symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what do we teach patients to avoid viral infections?

A

use condoms, hygiene, vaccines, being tested, avoid bodily fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

one of the most common STIs

A

herpes simplex virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

HSV 1

A
  • transmitted non-sexually
  • fever blisters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

HSV 2

A
  • usually transmitted sexually
  • usually vaginal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

localized symptoms of HSV

A
  • painful lesions that progress from macules to papules to vesicles
  • typically lasts 4-15 days before crusting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

systemic symptoms of HSV

A
  • typically appear 3-4 days after lesions
  • fever, malaise, headache, photophobia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

suppressive therapy for HSV

A

famvir, valtrex, zovirax (acyclovir)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what would happen if a mom has herpes and experiences tingling or there are lesions present near time of delivery?

A

a C/S will be perfromed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

HPV

A
  • genital warts
  • most prevalent viral STI
  • linked with cervical and vulvar cancer
  • cauliflower-like
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

how do we treat HPV

A
  • difficult to treat
  • vaccine (gardasil)
  • topical: TCA, cryotherapy, electrocautery, laser therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

when should vaccination occur for HPV?

A

ideally, before youth become sexually active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

HAV

A
  • acquired primarily through fecal-oral rout
  • influenza-like symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

HBV

A
  • most threatening to fetus and neonate
  • transmitted parenterally, perinatally, orally (rare) and through intimate contact
  • vaccination series
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

HCV

A
  • most common blood-borne infection
  • risk factor for pregnant women is history of injecting IV drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

HIV

A
  • heterosexual transmission now most common means of transmission in women
  • occurs through exchange of body fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

2nd most common type of vaginal infection

A

yeast/candidiasis (not an STI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

signs of yeast infection

A
  • itching
  • odorless, thick, cheesy vaginal discharge
  • dysuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

if someone constantly gets yeast infections what can we consider?

A

diabetes or HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

GBS

A
  • considered normal flora in non-pregnant women
  • a concern in pregnancy: inc. risk for preterm and transmission to newborn
59
Q

PID

A

bacterial infections including gonorrhea and chlamydia

60
Q

symptoms of PID

A
  • abnormal vaginal discharge
  • pain in lower abdomen
  • pain in upper right abdomen
  • abnormal menstrual bleeding
  • fever and chills
  • painful urination
  • N/V
  • painful intecourse
61
Q

what can PID lead to?

A
  • infertility
  • ectopic pregnancy
  • abscess formation
  • chronic pelvic pain
62
Q

how do we manage PID?

A
  • prevention: education regarding STI prevention
  • antibiotics
  • abstain from intercourse until treatment is done
63
Q

physiologic jaundice

A

jaundice that is due to liver immaturity

64
Q

what should jaundice levels never exceed?

A

12

65
Q

main way to treat hyperbilirubinemia

A
  • early feedings: facilitates removal of bilirubin through stools
  • breastfed infants have inc. incidence of jaundice
66
Q

what does phototherapy do?

A

use light therapy that will break down bilirubin in skin into substances that can be excreted in feces and urine

67
Q

nursing care in phototherapy

A
  • infant is unclothes
  • eyes must be protected by an opaque mask
  • infants’ temp should be monitored
  • feedings should be adequate to prevent dehydration
  • amount of output should be monitored
68
Q

criteria for physiologic jaundice

A
  • jaundice appears after 24 hours
  • disappears by end of 7th day
  • levels should not exceed 12 in term and 15 in preterm
  • if the above does not fit, then could be pathologic problem
69
Q

what can untreated pathologic jaundice lead to?

A
  • sensorineural hearing loss
  • mild cognitive delays
  • kernicterus
70
Q

kernicterus

A
  • bilirubin encephalopathy
  • caused by deposits of bilirubin in the brain
  • will pass BBB
  • may cause necrosis of brain neruons
  • bilirubin levels 20-25 places full term infant at risk
71
Q

signs of kernicterus

A
  • decreased activity
  • lethargy
  • irritability
  • hypotonis
  • seizures
72
Q

potential complications

A
  • respiratory (most common): distress, apnea, ROP
  • hematologic: anemia
  • cardiovascular: PDA
  • temperature: heat loss/temp maintenance
  • neurologic: bleeding in brain
  • nutritional: feeding difficulties
  • GI/hepatic: necrotizing enterocolitis, hyperbilirubinemia
73
Q

causes of respiratory distress in preterm infants

A
  • dec. number of functional alveoli
  • deficient surfactant levels
  • smaller lumen
  • weak or absent gag reflex
  • immature capillaries in lunghs
74
Q

clinical manifestations of respiratory distress WETFROG

A

Wheezing
Effort
Tachypnea
Flaring (nasal)
Retractions
Oxygenation
Grunting

75
Q

hypothermia and hypoglycemia lead to

A

respiratory distress

76
Q

how is surfactant administered?

A

via ET tube directly to lungs

77
Q

apnea

A

pause in respirations longer than 20 seconds with accompanying bradycardia

78
Q

why is apnea common in preterm babies

A
  • fatigue easily
  • immature respiratory mechanisms
79
Q

how can we prevent apnea?

A
  • maintain body temperature
  • gentle handling to avoid fatigue
  • avoid vagal stimulation
  • observe after feedings: full stomach will put pressure on diaphragm
80
Q

why do intracranial hemorrhages happen in newborns?

A

they have fragile capillaries rupture whenever there is a change in cerebral BP

81
Q

how can we prevent intracranial hemorrhages?

A
  • recognize events that may precipitate hemorrhage
  • maintain O2 levels
  • avoid rapid IV infusions
  • monitor BP closely
  • monitor for pneumothorax
  • position infant with HOB elevated slightly
82
Q

why do preterm infants have difficulties with intake?

A
  • lack of coordination suck/swallow reflex
  • inability to suck due to congenital anomaly
  • respiratory distress requiring ventilator
  • lack of O2 reserves
83
Q

how are preterm newborns metabolism rate?

A

it is accelerated

84
Q

how many calories do preterms need vs terms?

A
  • preterm: 115-140 calories per kg
  • term: 100-110 calories per kg
85
Q

non-nutritive sucking

A
  • gavage or parenterally fed
  • pacifier is provided during feeding times
  • may improve oxygenation and decrease energy expenditure
86
Q

what is preferred OG tube or NG tube?

A

OG because infants are nose breathers

87
Q

necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)

A
  • inflammation of the intestines
  • acute inflammatory disease of GI mucosa
  • may result in ulcerations and perforation
88
Q

major cause of NEC

A
  • intestinal ischemia: from hypoxia at birth
  • bacterial or viral infection
  • immature gut
89
Q

nursing management of NEC

A
  • supportive
  • NPO
  • OG tube for decompression
  • strict infection control
  • antibiotics
  • surgical resection may be necessary
  • main thing is to keep GI tract empty!!!
90
Q

common complications of IDM

A
  • congenital anomaly/cardiomyopathies
  • macrosomia
  • perinatal asphyxia/RDS
  • hypoglycemia
  • polyhydramnios
  • polycythemia leading to hyperbilirubinemia
91
Q

if skin blanches, what might it be?

A

mongolian spots

92
Q

if skin doesn’t blanch, what might it be?

A

petechiae or bruising

93
Q

erb-duchenne paralysis

A
  • brachial paralysis of upper arm
  • caused from stretching or pulling head away from shoulder
94
Q

clinical manifestations of erb-duchenne paralysis

A
  • flaccid arm with elbow extended and hand rotated inward
  • absence of moro reflex on affected side
  • intact grasp reflex
  • loss of sensation over lateral aspect of arm
95
Q

clinical manifestations of sepsis in preterm

A
  • respiratory: WETFROG
  • cardiovascular: tachycardia, hypotension, decreased perfusion
  • CNS: temperature instability, lethargy, hypotonia, irritability, seizures
  • GI: decreased suck strength, increased residual, abdominal distention
  • integumentary: jaundice, pallor, mottling, petechia
95
Q

clinical manifestations of sepsis in preterm

A
  • respiratory: WETFROG
  • cardiovascular: tachycardia, hypotension, decreased perfusion
  • CNS: temperature instability, lethargy, hypotonia, irritability, seizures
  • GI: decreased suck strength, increased residual, abdominal distention
  • integumentary: jaundice, pallor, mottling, petechia
96
Q

how do we assess sepsis in a NB?

A

blood cultures, CBC, vital signs

97
Q

how do we treat sepsis in a NB?

A
  • IV antibiotics
  • O2 or other respiratory aids
  • breast feeding
98
Q

when do we treat GBS?

A

during labor

99
Q

NAS symptoms

A
  • jitteriness and hyperactivity
  • shrill and persistent cry
  • yawn or sneeze frequently
  • hyperactive tendon reflexes
  • poor feeding and sucking
  • abnormal sleep cycles
100
Q

definition of postpartum hemorrhage

A
  • loss of > 500 mL after vaginal birth
  • loss of > 1000 mL after C/S
  • 10% change in hematocrit
101
Q

most critical postpartum time

A

the first hour after to check for hemorrhage

102
Q

uterine atony

A
  • hypotonia of uterus
  • uterus does not contract
103
Q

how many cases of postpartum hemorrhage does uterine atony count for?

A

> 90%

104
Q

most common cause of excessive postpartum bleeding

A

uterine atony

105
Q

nurses role in uterine atony

A
  • maintain good uterine tone
  • prevent bladder distention
106
Q

what could cause increased bleeding in uterine atony?

A

if the bladder is full

107
Q

if the uterus is palpated higher than expected and deviated to the right, what can we suspect?

A

a full bladder

108
Q

common causes of uterine atony

A
  • high parity
  • polyhydramnios
  • macrosomic fetus
  • multifetal gestation
  • use of pitocin
  • prolonged labor
109
Q

1st nursing action in management of uterine atony

A

firm massage of uterine fundus (uterus will most likely feel “boggy”

110
Q

what else can we do to help with uterine atony?

A
  • express any clots that may be in uterus
  • eliminate bladder distention
  • medications: IV oxytocin, IM hemabate, IM methergine, cytotec
  • bimanual compression
111
Q

when might we suspect a laceration?

A

if bleeding continues despite a firm fundus

112
Q

causes of laceration

A
  • large baby
  • labor was too quick
  • position of baby coming out
  • use of forceps or vaccuum
  • weakened area
113
Q

classifications of perineal lacerations

A
  • 1st degree: skin and structures superficial to muscle
  • 2nd degree: through muscle of perineal body
  • 3rd degree: through anal sphincter muscle
  • 4th degree: involves anterior rectal wall
114
Q

subinvolution

A

uterus that does not return to a non-pregnant state

115
Q

why might involution process be delayed?

A
  • excessive analgesia use during labor
  • exhaustion from prolonged or difficult labor
  • multiple gestation
  • grand multiple parity
116
Q

when does late PP hemorrhage usually occur?

A
  • 24 hours after delivery
  • < 6 weeks PP
117
Q

what is subinvolution cause from?

A
  • retained placental fragments
  • infection
118
Q

S/S of subinvolution

A
  • prolonged lochial discharge
  • uterus does not decrease in size as expected
  • irregular or excessive bleeding
  • possibly hemorrhage
119
Q

most common cause of subinvolution

A

retained placenta

120
Q

non-adherent retained placenta

A

small piece of amniotic membrane or a large part of placenta

121
Q

adherent retained placenta

A

abnormal adherence of entire placenta at implantation

122
Q

with an adherent retained placenta why might attempts to remove it be unsuccessful?

A

may result in tearing of cord, placenta or uterine lining

123
Q

treatment of adherent retained placenta

A

surgical removal

124
Q

inversion of uterus

A
  • turned inside out
  • life threatening
  • may be partial or complete inversion
125
Q

what medications can be given for an inverted uterus?

A

oxytocin, methergine, hemabate, cytotec, broad spectrum antibiotics

126
Q

what can occur if hypovolemic shock is not fixed?

A

death may occur

127
Q

symptoms of hypovolemic shock

A
  • RR rapid and shallow
  • pulses rapid, weak, irregular
  • BP decreases (late sign)
  • skin cold, clammy, cool
  • urinary output decreased
  • LOC-lethargy-coma
  • mental status-anxiety-coma
  • central venous pressure decrease
128
Q

thromboembolic disease

A
  • blood clots inside blood vessel
  • major causes: venous stasis, hypercoagulation
129
Q

clinical manifestations of DVT

A
  • pain and tenderness in lower extremity (unilaterally)
  • positive homan’s sign
  • warmth, redness
130
Q

anticoagulant therapy for DVT

A
  • heparin IV
  • lovenox SQ
  • PO anticoagulant therapy
131
Q

symptoms of PE

A

hypoxia, fatigue, confusion, crackles in lungs, coughing, chest pain, tachypnea, dyspnea

132
Q

what drugs do we use for PE?

A
  • IV heparin
  • PO anticoagulant therapy
  • heparin and warfaring are both safe if breastfeeding (warfarin teratogenic if she becomes pregnant)
133
Q

first symptom of infection

A

fever (over 100.4 for two consecutive days during first 10 days PP)

134
Q

why don’t we count any fevers that occur during first 24 hours PP?

A

it is normal, dehydrated from labor - give fluids

135
Q

when does mastitis usually occur?

A

between week 2 and 4 PP

136
Q

clinical manifestations of mastitis

A
  • obstruction flow of milk in lobe
  • fever and chills
  • breast tenderness
  • malaise
  • redness and axillary adenopathy
137
Q

how do we manage mastitis?

A
  • prevention through education
  • antibiotics
  • breastfeed or use a breast pump every 2-4 hours
  • heat/cold therapy
  • hydration
138
Q

management of uterine prolapse

A
  • kegel exercises several times a day
  • pessaries support uterus and holds it in position
  • hysterectomy if all else fails
139
Q

cystocele

A

opening from vaginal canal to bladder

140
Q

rectocele

A

opening from rectum to vaginal canal

141
Q

clinical manifestations of cystocele

A
  • “something in my vagina”
  • urinary frequency/retention/incontinence
  • bulging of anterior wall of vagina
142
Q

management for cystocele

A
  • vaginal pessary
  • surgical repair

NSG 312 OB (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions