Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What would you teach a client to help promote a healthy bladder?

A

take time to empty bladder fully

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2
Q

How much fluid should a client drink a day?

A

1500 mL

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3
Q

What type of incontinence does an aging male with hesitancy and straining have?

A

overflow incontinence

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4
Q

What type of incontinence is characterized by pressure on the pelvic floor?

A

stress incontinence

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5
Q

What type of incontinence is a female likely to experience when sneezing and coughing?

A

stress incontinence

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6
Q

What type of elimination issue may be caused by an increased intake of caffeine?

A

urinary incontinence

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7
Q

How can a nurse prevent a CAUTI?

A

keep the drainage bag below the clients bladder

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8
Q

What are clients who have an indwelling urinary catheter at risk for?

A

CAUTI (catheter associated urinary tract infection)

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9
Q

What type of incontinence can be caused by limited mobility?

A

functional incontinence

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10
Q

What type of intervention is appropriate for a client with urinary incontinence?

A

assist with a voiding schedule

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11
Q

When will a nurse empty a clients urinary drainage bag?

A

when it is half full, prior to ambulation, and before client transfers

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12
Q

What are the common symptoms of UTI?

A

urgency, dysuria, and frequency

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13
Q

With what amount of output should a nurse act?

A

output of less than 30 ml/hr

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14
Q

What type of laxative/cathartic can lead to dependence for defecation?

A

stimulant

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15
Q

What may lead to decreased peristalsis?

A

opioid analgesics

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16
Q

What type of enema solution is isotonic?

A

normal saline

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17
Q

What type of solution is a fleet enema?

A

hypertonic solution

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18
Q

What may a vagus nerve reaction cause?

A

decrease in heart rate and blood pressure

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19
Q

What function is inhibited during an intestinal obstruction?

A

ability to pass gas

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20
Q

What type of laxative is least likely to cause fluid and electrolyte shifts?

A

bulk forming

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21
Q

When will the nurse initiate bladder or bowel training?

A

at scheduled intervals

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22
Q

What religious practice correlates to a Kosher diet?

A

orthodox judaism

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23
Q

What does a BMI of 31.2 indicate?

A

obese

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24
Q

What does BMI <18.5 indicate?

A

underweight

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25
What does the BMI range of 18.5-24.9 indicate?
normal weight
26
What does the BMI range of 25-29.9 indicate?
overweight
27
What does the BMI range of 30-34.9 indicate?
obese
28
What does the BMI range > 35 indicate?
morbid obesity
29
What finding may indicate a nutritional deficit?
albumin of 2.9 g/dL
30
What may a client with dysphagia exhibit?
change in voice after swallowing
31
What item is essential for safety when feeding a client with dysphagia?
suction
32
What technique will the nurse use to feed a client with dysphagia?
tilt head forward and chin down
33
What is a common source of food borne illness?
food prepared by unwashed hands
34
What specific nutrient type are potatoes?
polysaccharide
35
What specific food is a good source of vitamin K?
broccoli
36
What is an example of a complete protein?
chicken
37
What is an example of a food that contains saturated fat?
beef
38
What is the minimum daily intake of water for an adult?
1500 mL
39
What food is a major source of vitamin C?
oranges
40
What food is a good source of vitamin E?
spinach (dark leafy greens)
41
What type of diet is it important to have a maintained, consistent intake of prescribed carbohydrates?
(ADA)/ diabetic diet
42
What happens to client's metabolic needs during cancer?
increase
43
What is important for AIDS patients due to their reduced resistance to infection?
food safety
44
What kind of dessert can be given to a client on a clear liquid diet?
popsicles
45
What dietary limitation may be found for a client with hypertension or heart failure?
sodium
46
What are some dietary limitations of a renal diet?
protein, fluid, and sodium
47
What liquid consistency is as thick as heavy syrup, but can still be sipped through a straw?
nectar
48
How many calories per gram do carbohydrates contain?
4 calories/gram
49
How many calories per gram do fats contain?
9 calories/gram
50
What is transient incontinence?
caused by a temporary condition
51
What kind of incontinence can be caused by limited mobility (unable to toilet in time)?
functional
52
What type of incontinence is characterized by urge to urinate but has hesitancy, dribbling, and straining?
overflow
53
What type of incontinence is triggered by sneezing, coughing, and pressure to pelvic floor muscles?
stress incontinence
54
what type of incontinence causes an intense need to urinate with a sudden onset?
urge
55
What type of incontinence is caused by a neurological deficit (brain does not communicate with bladder)?
reflex
56
What are some causes of overflow incontinence?
obstruction, enlarged prostate, unemptied catheter, and retention of urine
57
What is a common cause of transient incontinence?
UTIs
58
How many flicks and sustained contractions should be done with kegels?
5 quick flicks and 10 sustained contractions
59
What factors can increase urge incontinence?
artificial sweetener, caffeine, and alcohol
60
What conditions are commonly a cause of functional incontinence?
Alzheimer's and dementia
61
What education can be provided to encourage to reduce a risk of UTI?
limit being submerged in water, fully empty bladder, do not hold urine, stay hydrated, and wipe from front to back
62
What kind of catheters usually cause CAUTIs?
indwelling/ foley
63
How can a nurse reduce CAUTIs?
empty bag when half full, closed tubing system, do not set equipment on floor, prevent kinking of tubing, and clean daily
64
When should catheter bags be emptied?
1/2 full, before transportation, and before ambulation
65
How soon after condom catheter application should the nurse assess the penis?
15-30mins
66
What may be visible if poor circulation occurs due to condom catheter application?
discoloration, discomfort, and swelling
67
How much space should be left between the glans penis and end of condom catheter?
2.5-5cm (1-2inches)
68
Should you pull back foreskin before placing a condom catheter?
no you should not
69
How often should a condom catheter catheter be changed?
24-48 hrs
70
In what order should an abdominal assessment be performed in?
inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation
71
What are expected with contour of stomach?
flat and rounded
72
What are unexpected contour findings of stomach?
scaphoid and protuberant
73
What may occur to the umbilicus of a pregnant woman?
eversion
74
What type of stool is characterized by separate hard lumps and are results of severe constipation?
type 1
75
What type of stool is characterized by hard sausage-formed lumps and are results of constipation?
type 2
76
What type of stool is within normal limits and appears as a sausage with cracks?
type 3
77
What type of stool is considered normal and looks like a smooth sausage?
type 4
78
What type of stool that appears as soft blobs with clear edges and is a result of lacking fiber?
type 5
79
What stool type is mushy with ragged edges?
type 6
80
What stool type is very liquidy as a result of severe diarrhea?
type 7
81
Where did we begin auscultation of the stomach? why?
right lower quadrant due to the location of the ileocecal valve
82
How long do you have to wait for abdomen sounds before you can consider them absent?
five minutes
83
What are hyperactive bowel sounds?
5-30/min and sounds like high-pitched gurgling
84
What do hyperactive bowel sounds sound like?
>30/min; rushing and tinkling
85
What are some factors that may cause hypoactive bowel sounds?
surgery, opioids, peritonitis, and a late bowel obstruction
86
What may cause hyperactive bowel sounds?
gastroenteritis, diarrhea, laxatives, and an early bowel obstruction
87
Where can percussable dullness be heard?
over distended bladder, masses/organs, adipose tissue, and over fluid
88
What is the normal sound heard with percussion of the abdomen?
tympany
89
What do we assess for for while performing deep palpation of the abdomen?
organomegaly, guarding, tenderness, and masses
90
What is expected for a client with an intestinal obstruction?
lack of passing gas or stool
91
What type of client is at risk for developing a GI obstruction?
recent abdominal surgery
92
What are the risk factors for diarrhea?
antibiotics, infectious agents, anxiety, increase fluid, and food sensitivities (allergens/lactose/gluten, etc)
93
What is a hemorrhoid, what may cause one?
dilated vein in rectum (internal or external), and caused by straining, obesity, or pregnancy
94
What statement will the nurse include in their instructions for the client prescribed bulk forming laxatives?
"This agent is not advised if the physician has restricted your fluid intake."
95
What clients should avoid bulk forming laxatives?
those with fluid restrictions
96
What type of laxative increases intestinal secretion of water, has short term relief, and doesn't specifically cause a bowel movement but generally makes it easier for clients to go?
emollient
97
What type of laxative pulls fluid into the intestine, causing increased peristalsis and distension?
osmotic
98
What type of laxative may cause a dependence, and acts by limiting water reabsorption in the large intestine?
stimulant
99
What type of metabolism can be classified as building up?
anabolism
100
What type of metabolic process breaks down substances?
catabolic
101
What equation is used to calculate Body Mass Index?
lb/in^2 x 703
102
How many calories are in a gram of carbohydrates?
4 cal/gram
103
How many calories are in a gram of fat?
9 cal/gram
104
How many calories are in a gram of protein?
4 cal/gram
105
What must a protein contain to be considered complete?
all 9 amino acids
106
Are animal products generally saturated or unsaturated fats?
saturated
107
What type of fats are usually more healthy?
unsaturated
108
What type of fat are olive oil, peanut oil, canola oil, almonds, hazelnuts, and pecans?
unsaturated
109
What specific patient group should avoid saturated fats?
high cholesterol and heart issues
110
When can children have honey and cow milk?
12 months
111
What nutritional components should increase for adolescents?
Calories, protein, calcium, and iron
112
What is the BRAT diet? Who is it used for?
bananas, rice, applesauce and toast clients with gastrointestinal issues (diarrhea)
113
What are expected albumin levels?
3.5-5
114
What is considered within normal limits for triglycerides?
less than 150
115
What cholesterol levels are considered normal?
less than 200
116
How much intake should fats be?
25-35%
117
What percent of intake should be made of carbs?
45-65%
118
What percent of intake should be protein?
10-35%
119
What foods are highest in fiber?
beans, broccoli, whole grains, and fruit with peeling attached
120
What kind of enema is water?
hypotonic
121
What are some examples of nectar-thick liquids?
122
How does an oil retention enema work?
lubricating the rectum and colon and then is absorbed by the feces