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Fire Marshal PKG Dawgs > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1:

CO may cause a victim to appear life-like (____ to _____ color of lips, eyelids, or skin). This would indicate the victim was alive at the time of the fire.
A: pale to blue

B: yellow to pink

C: pink to red

D: pink to cherry red

A

A: pale to blue

B: yellow to pink

C: pink to red

D:✔pink to cherry red

Explanation:
TB Arson 4.4

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2
Q

Question 2:

No member shall make, possess, or present a facsimile of any official badge or identification card. Members shall not use official Department badges under any circumstances to elicit consideration of a personal nature or circumvent regulations or laws. Facsimile of badges may only be possessed by members with the approval of the _____ when the badge is part of permanent plaque or trophy.
A: Fire Commissioner

B: Chief of Department

C: Chief of Operations

D: Division Commander

A

A:✔Fire Commissioner

B: Chief of Department

C: Chief of Operations

D: Division Commander

Explanation:
Regs 25.2.9

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3
Q

Question 3:

FDNY members should know that when “charges” are warranted, the trial notice must be served on the respondent at least ___ days before time set for trial unless the respondent waives such notice or applies, or has applied for, service retirement.

A: 30

B: 10

C: 5

D: 3

A

A: 30

B:✔10

C: 5

D: 3

Explanation:
Regs 26.5.1

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4
Q

Question 4:

Charges are not to be served on the respondent until they are approved by ______
A: Chief Fire Marshal

B: Chief of Operations

C: BITS

D: IG

A

A: Chief Fire Marshal

B: Chief of Operations

C:✔BITS

D: IG

Explanation:
Charges are not to be served on the respondent until they are approved by the Bureau of Investigation and Trials (BITS,) which may direct that further investigation be conducted or further documentation provided.
Regs 26.1.3

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5
Q

Question 5:

Every member on light or full duty who is taking a prescribed medication that might be impairing the mental or physical ability to fulfill his or her work duties shall immediately notify ______.

A: The Chief of Operations

B: The Fire Commissioner

C: His/her commanding officer (or civilian supervisor, if the member has such a supervisor)

D: The Director of the Office of Medical Affairs

A

A: The Chief of Operations

B: The Fire Commissioner

C:✔His/her commanding officer (or civilian supervisor, if the member has such a supervisor)

D: The Director of the Office of Medical Affairs

Explanation:
AUC 202 5.2

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6
Q

Question 6:

A member studying for the Fire Marshal exam was correct when he explained to another member that charges must be prepared and forwarded with endorsements within ___ days after occurrence, unless delayed due to unusual circumstances.

A: 1

B: 3

C: 7

D: 10

A

A: 1

B: 3

C: 7

D:✔10

Explanation:
Regs 26.1.3

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7
Q

Question 7:

A member of the Bureau of Fire Investigation (BFI) shall be deemed to be “available” for random drug testing in all of the following cases below except in which choice?

A: conducting an arrest

B: conducting an interview in a major case

C: conducting an interrogation in a major case

D: on military leave

A

A: conducting an arrest

B: conducting an interview in a major case

C: conducting an interrogation in a major case

D:✔on military leave

Explanation:
Choices A, B, & C… If the BFI member is engaged in any of these activities, then that BFI member shall be tested as soon as practicable. A BFI member shall be deemed otherwise not available if the BFI member is on vacation, military or medical leave.
AUC 202 Add 1 4.2.6

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8
Q

Question 8:

What is the most significant sign of possible alcohol or drug abuse by a member?

A: A change in a member’s pattern of behavior

B: A member who is always on his personal cell phone

C: A member who is always using the Department telephone

D: A member who is always coming to work tired

A

A:✔A change in a member’s pattern of behavior

B: A member who is always on his personal cell phone

C: A member who is always using the Department telephone

D: A member who is always coming to work tired

Explanation:
Top of page 1. AUC 202 Add 2

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9
Q

Question 9:

The express purpose of the ___ Amendment is to safeguard individuals against unreasonable search and seizure or invasion of privacy without consent, a valid search warrant or exigent circumstances.

A: Second

B: Third

C: Fourth

D: Fifth

A

A: Second

B: Third

C:✔Fourth

D: Fifth

Explanation:
AUC 317 7.2

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10
Q

Question 10:

Many types of arson fires can be expected in vacant buildings. Of the following, which choice contains incorrect information?

A: Fires set in the center or rear of buildings, negating placement of tower ladders for stream operation.

B: Accelerants spread over several floors, first ignited on the highest floor. This creates a large volume/area fire within a short time.

C: Separate fires set in the building, one on a lower floor and another on the top floor.

D: Where there is a row of vacant buildings, fires may be set in alternate buildings and can spread to exposures.

A

A: Fires set in the center or rear of buildings, negating placement of tower ladders for stream operation.

B:✔Accelerants spread over several floors, first ignited on the highest floor. This creates a large volume/area fire within a short time.

C: Separate fires set in the building, one on a lower floor and another on the top floor.

D: Where there is a row of vacant buildings, fires may be set in alternate buildings and can spread to exposures.

Explanation:
B. Accelerants spread over several floors, ignited on a lower floor. This could create a heavy volume of fire on multiple floors within a short period of time.
FFP Vacants 4.3

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11
Q

Question 11:

At vacant building fires, a collapse zone should be established early in the operation. A seasoned fire marshal would know that woodframe buildings often experience _____________, especially corner buildings and isolated (stand-alone) frame buildings.

A: a pancake collapse

B: an A-frame collapse

C: an inward-outward or ninety degree wall collapse

D: V shaped collapse or lean-to collapse

A

Question 11:

At vacant building fires, a collapse zone should be established early in the operation. A seasoned fire marshal would know that woodframe buildings often experience _____________, especially corner buildings and isolated (stand-alone) frame buildings.

A: a pancake collapse

B: an A-frame collapse

C:✔an inward-outward or ninety degree wall collapse

D: V shaped collapse or lean-to collapse

Explanation:
FFP Vacants 7.1

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12
Q

Question 12:

A Supervising Fire Marshal questions you about fire spread in a taxpayer constructed under the 1968 building code. You were correct to tell her that the area of a taxpayer structure requires sprinklers if more than _____ square feet.

A: 2,000

B: 3,500

C: 5,000

D: 7,500

A

A: 2,000

B: 3,500

C: 5,000

D:✔7,500

Explanation:
Taxpayer 2.5.1

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13
Q

Question 13:

You are responding to a large, suspicious rubbish fire located outside a foreign embassy. The unit that extinguished the blaze transmitted a 10-99. You would be correct to know that this unit will be on scene, operating for at least?
A: 60 minutes

B: 30 minutes

C: 20 minutes

D: 10 minutes

A

A: 60 minutes

B:✔30 minutes

C: 20 minutes

D: 10 minutes

Explanation:
Comm 8.5

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14
Q

Question 14:

A ____ most correctly defines a “mechanical, chemical, or electrical means used to initiate a fire”
A: Plant

B: Trailer

C: Ignition device

D: Accelerant

A

A: Plant

B: Trailer

C:✔Ignition device

D: Accelerant

Explanation:
TB Arson 1.2.7

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15
Q

Question 15:

You are ordered to investigate a fire where a 10-77 was transmitted. You would be correct to know you will be responding to what kind of building?

A: High Rise Office Building

B: Any type of High Rise Building

C: High Rise Multiple Dwelling

D: Low Rise Multiple Dwelling

A

A: High Rise Office Building

B: Any type of High Rise Building

C:✔High Rise Multiple Dwelling

D: Low Rise Multiple Dwelling

Explanation:
Comm 8.5

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16
Q

Question 16:

You are special called to provide security at a large scale “Major Emergency Response” where “Enhanced Technical Rescue Resources” are required. You would be correct to know that you would be operating at an event defined by which code?

A: 10-60 no code

B: 10-60 code 1

C: 10-60 code 2

D: 10-80 code 1

A

A: 10-60 no code

B:✔10-60 code 1

C: 10-60 code 2

D: 10-80 code 1

Explanation:
Comm 8.5
There is no 10 code for a 60 code 2

17
Q

Question 17:

A 10-22 is the correct code to be transmitted in which choice below?

A: A car fire (with license plates.)

B: A brush fire.

C: A fire in outside rubbish that has extended to a building.

D: A fire in outside rubbish that has not extended to a building.

A

A: A car fire (with license plates.)

B: A brush fire.

C: A fire in outside rubbish that has extended to a building.

D:✔A fire in outside rubbish that has not extended to a building.

Explanation:
Comm 8.5

18
Q

Question 18:

A threat preceding a fire would be most correctly defined as being a/an ____ fire.
A: Incendiary

B: Suspicious

C: Accidental

D: Intentional

A

A: Incendiary

B:✔Suspicious

C: Accidental

D: Intentional

Explanation:
Remember, a fire is not Incendiary until it is determined to be incendiary by fire marshals
TB Arson 1.2.3

19
Q

Question 19:

At fatal fire and arson investigations, security of the incident scene is of the utmost importance. Evidence must be documented, collected and preserved. Depending on the incident, the investigation may extend over a period of time. In these situations, a fire line must be established and relatives, neighbors, spectators, the media and members of the Department shall not cross established fire lines unless authorized by?

A: any Fire Marshal

B: the Incident Commander

C: the assigned Fire Marshal and/or Chief of Department

D: the assigned Fire Marshal and/or Chief of Operations

A

A: any Fire Marshal

B: the Incident Commander

C: the assigned Fire Marshal and/or Chief of Department

D:✔the assigned Fire Marshal and/or Chief of Operations

Explanation:
TB Arson 4.1

20
Q

Question 20:

Lividity is COMPLETED after _____ hours and could indicate that the victim was moved after death and placed at the fire scene.

A: 1 to 2

B: 2 to 3

C: 3 to 4

D: 4 to 5

A

A: 1 to 2

B: 2 to 3

C:✔3 to 4

D: 4 to 5

Explanation:
TB Arson 4.5

21
Q

Question 21:

Contamination is seldom a problem associated with the _______ of evidence.

A: Collection

B: Packaging

C: Preservation

D: Exchange

A

A:✔Collection

B: Packaging

C: Preservation

D: Exchange

Explanation:
“Contamination is seldom a problem associated with the collection of evidence, but can become a problem in relation to its packaging and preservation.”
TB Arson 5.2

22
Q

Question 22:

When a 10-41 is transmitted for a taxpayer-type building that has a Fire Command Station, the incoming fire marshal can find the Incident Command Post at what location?

A: Outside, in proximity to the front of the building

B: In the lobby, in proximity to the Elevator Control Panel

C: At the Fire Command Station

D: At the Lobby Security Desk

A

A: Outside, in proximity to the front of the building

B: In the lobby, in proximity to the Elevator Control Panel

C:✔At the Fire Command Station

D: At the Lobby Security Desk

Explanation:
FFP Taxpayer 5.8.2

23
Q

Question 23:

In compliance with the Smoke-Free Air Act, the Department has designated the ______ to receive and respond to smoking-related complaints.

A: Chief Compliance Officer

B: BHS

C: OSHA Unit

D: Chief of Operations

Explanation:
PAID 9 ch 13 sec 4.1

A

A: Chief Compliance Officer

B: BHS

C:✔OSHA Unit

D: Chief of Operations

Explanation:
PAID 9 ch 13 sec 4.1

24
Q

Question 24:
Smoking is prohibited in what vehicle(s) at all times?

A: FDNY vehicles and ambulances

B: FDNY Fire Apparatus only

C: FDNY ambulances only

D: Smoking is permitted in all vehicles

A

A:✔FDNY vehicles and ambulances

B: FDNY Fire Apparatus only

C: FDNY ambulances only

D: Smoking is permitted in all vehicles

Explanation:
PAID 9 ch 13 sec 3

25
Q

Question 25:

As a Fire Marshal monitoring the Department radio, you hear a progress report indicating a fire that will require the operation of more than two (2) hoselines to extinguish the fire. You would be correct to determine this to be a _______.

A: Light Fire Situation

B: Medium Fire Situation

C: Heavy Fire Situation

D: Significant Fire Situation

A

A: Light Fire Situation

B: Medium Fire Situation

C:✔Heavy Fire Situation

D: Significant Fire Situation

Explanation:
Comm 10.4.11

26
Q

Question 26:

You would be most correct to know that a condition by which the extension of fire via the exterior of a building from a fire originating in the same building is defined as _______.

A: In-building exposure

B: General exposure

C: Exposure hazard

D: Auto exposure

A

A: In-building exposure

B: General exposure

C: Exposure hazard

D:✔Auto exposure

Explanation:
C) Exposure Hazard: The probability that a building will be exposed to the danger of ignition from a fire in an adjoining property.
Comm 10.5.1, 10.5.2

27
Q

Question 27:

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the use of “Plain Speak” for Fireground Communications?

A: Plain speak exposure identification is the process of identifying building and/or occupancies by name, occupancy type, address or any other distinctive characteristic.

B: It should be used on the fireground in situations whether or not it would benefit fire operations.

C: It can be used in combination with the standard alpha-numeric exposure identification system to clearly define operational locations.

D: It can be particularly effective for operations involving taxpayer fires. These types of operations usually have separate occupancies with distinctive characteristics that can be used in conjunction with the alpha-numeric exposure system (O2A, 04B, 3, etc).

A

A: Plain speak exposure identification is the process of identifying building and/or occupancies by name, occupancy type, address or any other distinctive characteristic.

B:✔It should be used on the fireground in situations whether or not it would benefit fire operations.

C: It can be used in combination with the standard alpha-numeric exposure identification system to clearly define operational locations.

D: It can be particularly effective for operations involving taxpayer fires. These types of operations usually have separate occupancies with distinctive characteristics that can be used in conjunction with the alpha-numeric exposure system (O2A, 04B, 3, etc).

Explanation:
B) It should be used on the fireground in situations when it would benefit fire operations.
Comm 10 Add 2 10.1

28
Q

Question 28:

An investigating Fire Marshal would be correct to identify a fire with 2 orange tag patients and 1 yellow tag patient as having?

A: Two 10-45 code 1’s and One 10-45 code 2

B: Three 10-45 code 3’s

C: Two 10-45 code 3’s and One 10-45 code 4

D: Two 10-45 code 3’s and One 10-45 code 2

A

A: Two 10-45 code 1’s and One 10-45 code 2

B:✔Three 10-45 code 3’s

C: Two 10-45 code 3’s and One 10-45 code 4

D: Two 10-45 code 3’s and One 10-45 code 2

Explanation:
Comm 8.5

29
Q

Question 29:

A cut or disconnected gas line found upon investigation of a building fire is most correctly identified as a(n)?

A: Plant

B: Trailer

C: Ignition Device

D: Accelerant

A

A: Plant

B: Trailer

C: Ignition Device

D:✔Accelerant

Explanation:
TB Arson 1.2.6

30
Q

Question 30:

All of the following are possible indicators of the use of flammable accelerants except in which choice?
A: Charring of the ceiling or high burn marks on the wall or over the door or on the upper part of the door.

B: Char in broken patterns or “puddle-like” circle burns on the floor.

C: Low burning and deep charring.

D: Heavy body of fire with little contents.

A

A:✔Charring of the ceiling or high burn marks on the wall or over the door or on the upper part of the door.

B: Char in broken patterns or “puddle-like” circle burns on the floor.

C: Low burning and deep charring.

D: Heavy body of fire with little contents.

Explanation:

A) Charring of the floor or low burn marks on the wall or under the door or on the lower part of the door.
TB Arson 3.7

Fire Marshal PKG Dawgs (12 decks)

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