Exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

Microbiology is the study of microbes. These include all but which of the following?
A. Archaea
B. Bacteria
C. Viruses
D. Plants

A

Plants

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2
Q

What general feature is necessary to consider an organism a microbe?
A. small enough that a microscope is required to see them
B. heterotrophic
C. sexual reproduction
D. use aerobic respiration for metabolism

A

small enough that a microscope is required to see them

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3
Q

Miller’s laboratory experiments showed that:

A. it is possible to form protocells.
B. the primitive gases can react together to produce small organic molecules.
C. atmospheric pressure is required for life to begin.
D. the earth is approximately 4.5 billion years old.

A

the primitive gasses can react together to produce small organic molecules

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4
Q

Which of the following kinds of molecules is thought to have been absent from the primitive reducing atmosphere?

A. water vapor (H2O)
B. methane (CH4)
C. hydrogen (H2)
D. oxygen (O2)

A

oxygen (O2)

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5
Q

Considering the various theories, the energy used in forming organic molecules in the primitive atmosphere could have come from all EXCEPT

A. lightning.
B. ultraviolet radiation.
C. heat from volcanoes.
D. sound.

A

sound

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6
Q

What is the evolutionary relationship among archaea, bacteria, and eukarya?

A. Since archaea are the most primitive, archaean ancestors gave rise to bacteria that in turn gave rise to eukaryotes.
B. All three domains are equally distant from the most primitive common ancestor, a protocell.
C. Archaea and eukarya share nucleic acid similarities, so eukarya split off from archaea.
D. Bacterial ancestors gave rise to both archaea and to eukaryotes as two separate side branches.

A

archaea and eukarya share nucleic acid similarities, so eukarya split off from archaea

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7
Q

A new classification by domains separates prokaryotes into

A. Bacteria and Cyanobacteria.
B. photosynthetic bacteria and chemosynthetic bacteria.
C. Archaea and Bacteria.
D. autotrophs and heterotrophs.

A

archaea and bacteria

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8
Q

Bacterial cells pick up free pieces of DNA from the medium pieces that were released from dead bacteria in a process called

A. transformation.
B. transduction.
C. conjugation.
D. replication.

A

transformation

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9
Q

Which of these is a correct description of a form of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria?

A. Crossing-over occurs between paired chromosomes in meiosis.
B. Conjugation occurs when a cell passes DNA to another cell by means of a sex pilus.
C. Transformation occurs when a bacteriophage carries a bit of DNA from a previous host cell to a new host cell.
D. Transduction occurs when a live bacterium picks up DNA from dead bacteria that have shed it into the environment of the living cell.

A

conjugation occurs when a cell passes DNA to another cell by means of a sex pilus

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10
Q

One bacterial cell passes DNA to a second cell through a sex pilus in the process of

A. transformation.
B. transduction.
C. conjugation.
D. replication.

A

conjugation

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11
Q

One bacterial cell passes DNA to a second cell through a sex pilus in the process of

A. transformation.
B. transduction.
C. conjugation.
D. replication.

A

conjugation

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12
Q

Which statement is true about bacteria?

A. They contain a nucleus.
B. They lack ribosomes.
C. They usually lack a cell wall.
D. They contain a single, circular DNA molecule as the genetic material.

A

they contain a single, circular DNA molecule as the genetic material

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13
Q

Which type of genetic exchange occurs among bacteria in which DNA is carried into a bacterial cell by means of a virus?

A. conjugation
B. transformation
C. transduction
D. budding

A

transduction

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14
Q

Which statement is NOT true about bacteria?

A. They lack mitochondria.
B. They lack a nucleus but contain DNA.
C. They reproduce sexually.
D. They have a single circular chromosome.

A

the reproduce sexually

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15
Q

The capsid of a virus is composed of

A. RNA.
B. protein.
C. DNA.
D. cellulose.
E. lipid.

A

protein

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about viruses?

A. The genome may be DNA or RNA.
B. They contain nucleic acid, protein, and mitochondria.
C. They exhibit host specificity.
D. They are obligate intracellular parasites.

A

they contain nucleic acid, protein, and mitochondria

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17
Q

The innermost core of a virus’s structure is made up of

A. a membranous envelope.
B. either DNA or RNA.
C. a protein capsid.
D. a protein spore coat.

A

either DNA or RNA

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18
Q

A viral envelope describes:

A. the outer layer of some viruses composed of the host’s plasma membrane
B. viral DNA.
C. a prion.
D. a protein capsid.

A

the outer layer of some viruses composed of the host’s plasma membrane

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19
Q

Which of these is the most accurate description of a virus?

A. a noncellular living organism
B. one of the smallest bacteria known
C. a cell at the boundary between living and nonliving things
D. chemical complexes of RNA or DNA protected by protein

A

chemical complexes of RNA or DNA protected by a protein

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20
Q

Which of the following is considered to be acellular?

A. bacteria
B. fungi
C. algae
D. protozoans
E. viruses

A

viruses

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21
Q

The life cycle stage of an animal virus during which a mature capsid forms around copies of the viral RNA genome is

A. budding.
B. biosynthesis.
C. uncoating.
D. assembly.

A

assembly

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22
Q

Which stage of viral reproduction takes place when the spikes of the virus bind to a specific receptor molecule on the surface of a host cell?

A. attachment stage
B. penetration stage
C. biosynthesis stage
D. release stage

A

attachment stage

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23
Q

When an enveloped animal virus enters a cell during the entry stage,

A. the next thing it does is assemble a new virus.
B. the envelope is removed after the virus is inside the cell’s nucleus.
C. the protein capsid is removed through uncoating to expose the viral genome.
D. it immediately integrates its nucleic acid genome into the host chromosomes.

A

the protein capsid is removed through uncoating to expose the viral genome

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24
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE), or “mad cow disease,” is caused by a(n)

A. archeon.
B. bacterium.
C. cyanobacterium.
D. prion.
E. virus.

A

prion

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25
Q

Some human diseases appear to be due to protein agents that may convert other normal proteins in the cell to also become these agents. This new disease protein agent is called a(n)

A. prion.
B. cyanobacterium.
C. phage.
D. retrovirus.

A

prion

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26
Q

Who invented the term “virus”?

A. Louis Pasteur
B. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
C. Stanley Miller
D. Harold Urey

A

Louis Pasteur

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27
Q

Cyanobacteria:

A. do photosynthesis similar to green plants.
B. are heterotrophs.
C. have a nucleus and chloroplast.
D. split hydrogen sulfide.

A

do photosynthesis similar to green plants

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28
Q

The process of bacterial reproduction is referred to as

A. binary fission.
B. budding.
C. mitosis.
D. meiosis.

A

binary fission

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29
Q

The first membranes that formed before full cells were likely made of

A. fatty acids.
B. phospholipids.
C. proteins.
D. RNA.

A

fatty acids

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30
Q

Which type of archaean is likely to be found in the intestines of animals?

A. Methanogen.
B. Halophile.
C. Thermacidophile.

A

methanogen

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31
Q

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

A. improved microscope lenses to allow him to see tiny organisms he called animalcules.
B. invented the idea of spontaneous generation.
C. did experiments to refute the concept of spontaneous generation.
D. tested theories about how organic molecules could form without the presence of life.

A

improved microscope lenses to allow him to see tiny organisms he called animalcules

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32
Q

Louis Pasteur

A. improved microscope lenses to allow him to see tiny organisms he called animalcules.
B. invented the idea of spontaneous generation.
C. did experiments to refute the concept of spontaneous generation.
D. tested theories about how organic molecules could form without the presence of life.

A

did experiments to refute the concept of spontaneous generation

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33
Q

Single-celled eukaryotes are

A. Protists.
B. Archaea.
C. land plants.
D. animals.

A

protists

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34
Q

Which features set most of the members of protista apart from the rest of the kingdoms?

A. unicellular and microscopic
B. multicellular and microscopic
C. photosynthetic and unicellular
D. None of the answer choices is correct.

A

uniccellular and microscopic

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35
Q

Which features set most of the members of protista apart from the rest of the kingdoms?

A. unicellular and microscopic
B. multicellular and microscopic
C. photosynthetic and unicellular
D. None of the answer choices is correct.

A

unicellular and microscopic

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36
Q

The ____ algae are thought to be closely related to the first plants because they share most of the characteristics of plants.

A. brown
B. red
C. green
D. pink

A

green

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37
Q

Members of which genus of algae are found in ponds and have chloroplasts that are arranged in a spiral?

A. Spirogyra
B. Euglena
C. Chlamydomonas
D. Volvox

A

spirogyra

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38
Q

Which is an example of an alga?

A. amoebae
B. slime molds
C. diatoms
D. ciliates

A

diatoms

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39
Q

Which protist is NOT correctly linked to the type of movement it shows?

A. amoeboids-pseudopodia
B. ciliates-cilia
C. Euglena-pseudopod
D. Paramecium-cilia

A

Euglena-pseudopod

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40
Q

Which of the following organisms move about by means of pseudopodia?

A. trypanosome
B. Amoeba proteus
C. Chlamydomonas
D. Paramecium caudatum

A

amoeba proteus

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41
Q

The kingdom ____ are characterized by having filaments called hyphae that are used to absorb nutrients.

A. Archaea
B. Protista
C. Fungi
D. Animalia
E. Plantae

A

fungi

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42
Q

Molds (except slime and water molds) and mushrooms belong to the kingdom

A. Protists.
B. Fungi.
C. Plantae.
D. Animalia.

A

fungi

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43
Q

An organism that will feed on dead plants, animals, and microbes are called

A. autotrophic.
B. heterotrophic.
C. saprotrophs.
D. parasitic.

A

saprotrophs

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44
Q

____ are organisms that break down dead organic matter in order to absorb the nutrient molecules.

A. Eukaryotes
B. Parasites
C. Saprotrophs
D. Heterotrophs

A

saprotrophs

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45
Q

____ are mostly saprotrophic decomposers that assist in recycling of nutrients in ecosystems.

A. Algae
B. Fungi
C. Protozoans
D. Ciliates

A

fungi

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46
Q

In what way are fungi like heterotrophic bacteria?

A. They both produce gametes.
B. They are both heterotrophic and play an important role in ecosystems.
C. They both have cell walls of the same material.
D. They are both photosynthetic and thus are producers.
E. They are both eukaryotic.

A

they are both heterotrophic and play an important role in ecosystems

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47
Q

At one time, biologists thought that fungi were merely forms of plants that had lost their chlorophyll and had returned to saprotrophy to gain food. Why is this no longer considered a solid theory?

A. Fungal cell walls contain chitin rather than cellulose.
B. Fungi attack and engulf food for internal digestion.
C. Fungi have flagella at some stage, providing mobility that plants never have.
D. Plants are multicellular and fungi are unicellular or multinucleated noncellular plasmodia.
E. Plants store glycogen, while fungi store starch.

A

fungal cell walls contain chitin rather than cellulose

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48
Q

Fungi are NOT photosynthetic because they lack

A. xylem.
B. cell walls.
C. chloroplasts.
D. cell membrane.

A

chloroplasts

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49
Q

A chain of asexual spores produced by a sac fungus is called

A. a mycelium.
B. a conidia.
C. an ascospore.
D. a basidiospore.

A

conidia

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50
Q

The mycelium is a mesh of filaments, each of which is called

A. a conidium.
B. an ascospore.
C. a basidiospore.
D. a hypha.

A

hypha

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51
Q

When the cap of an average gilled mushroom is cut off and shaken, a cloud of powdery material is released. The material released are

A. mycelia.
B. sporangia.
C. hyphae.
D. spores.
E. seeds.

A

spores

52
Q

Amoebae

A. have pseudopodia.
B. have a nucleus
C. are heterotrophic.
D. all of the above are true.
E. Only A and C are true.

A

all of the above are true

53
Q

Diatoms

A. are unicellular algae with glassy cell walls.
B. have pseudopodia.
C. are excavates.
D. all of the above are true.
E. Only A and B are true.

A

are unicellular algae with glassy cell walls

54
Q

Euglena:

A. is an excavate.
B. is an chromalveolate.
C. has an eyespot.
D. all of the above are true.
E. Only A and C are true.

A

excavate AND has an eyespot

55
Q

Lichens

A. are a symbiotic relationship between an alga and fungus.
B. thrive in areas of high pollution.
C. cause the flavors in blue cheese.
D. are important in making bread.

A

are a symbiotic relationship between an alga and fungus

56
Q

The organism represented in the above image (green bean looking things)

A. is an excavate.
B. is in the genus Euglena.
C. is a flagellate.
D. is a chromalveolate.
E. is in the genus Amoeba.
F. makes pseudopodia.

A

excavate, is in the genus Euglena, AND is a flagellate

57
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true about alternation of generations life cycle?

A. Meiosis produces spores that are haploid.
B. Spores develop into the gametophyte generation.
C. The gametophyte produces eggs and sperm.
D. When the sperm fertilizes the egg, a zygote results that develops into the sporophyte.
E. The sporophyte generation produces gametes by mitosis in structures called sporangia.

A

the sporophyte generation produces gametes by mitosis in structures called sporangia

58
Q

Which sequence is correct in the life cycle of alternation of generations?

A. gametophyte → gametes → spores → sporophyte
B. gametophyte → gametes → zygote → spores → sporophyte
C. gametophyte → spores → gametes → zygote → sporophyte
D. gametophyte → gametes → zygote → sporophyte → spores

A

gametophyte → gametes → zygote → sporophyte → spores

59
Q

A major evolutionary trend among plants is

A. a reduction in the size of the gametophyte and an increase in the size of the sporophyte.
B. a reduction in the size of the sporophyte and an increase in the size of the gametophyte.
C. an increase in the size of both the sporophyte and the gametophyte.
D. a decrease in the size of both the sporophyte and the gametophyte.

A

a reduction in the size of the gametophyte and an increase in the size of a sporophyte

60
Q

Which of the following is NOT a significant event in the evolution of plants?

A. protection of the embryo
B. evolution of vascular tissue
C. evolution of the seed
D. evolution of the flower
E. evolution of the blastula

A

evolution of the blastula

61
Q

In the moss life cycle, the ______ generation is dominant.

A. haploid gametophyte
B. diploid gametophyte
C. diploid sporophyte
D. diploid antheridium

A

haploid generation

62
Q

Which life cycle phase is diploid in moss?

A. sporophyte generation
B. gametophyte generation
C. gametes
D. spores

A

sporophyte generation

63
Q

Haploid spores are produced in the ___ of a moss.

A. antheridia
B. archegonia
C. sporangium
D. anther

A

sporangium

64
Q

Which of the following is a nonvascular plant that has the longest evolutionary history on land?

A. ferns
B. bristlecone pine tree
C. moss
D. redwood tree

A

moss

65
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a fern?

A. Ferns are quite small since they lack vascular tissue
B. Fern sporophyte is the dominant generation in the fern life cycle.
C. Fern sporophyte leaves first appear in a curled-up form termed a fiddlehead.
D. Fern sporophyte is vascular.

A

ferns are quite small since they lack vascular tissue

66
Q

In the life cycle of a fern, the zygote

A. becomes the sporophyte generation.
B. becomes the gametophyte generation.
C. undergoes meiosis.
D. is haploid.

A

becomes the sporophyte generation

67
Q

In the fern life cycle, the ______ generation is dominant.

A. haploid gametophyte
B. diploid gametophyte
C. haploid sporophyte
D. diploid sporophyte

A

diploid sporophyte

68
Q

Which statement is NOT true about ferns?

A. The sporophyte stage lacks vascular tissue.
B. Antheridia and archegonia develop on the prothallus of the gametophyte stage.
C. Fertilization requires moisture for the sperm to swim to the egg within the archegonia.
D. The sporophyte stage is the dominant generation.

A

the sporophyte stage lacks vascular tissue

69
Q

The reproductive parts of an angiosperm are the

A. petals and sepals.
B. petals and stamen.
C. sepals and stamen.
D. sepals and carpel.
E. carpel and stamen.

A

carpel and stamen

70
Q

During pollination in angiosperms, pollen grains will stick to the enlarged knob in the center of the flower called the

A. stigma.
B. style.
C. ovary.
D. ovule.
E. anther.

A

stigma

71
Q

Ovules are contained within the

A. ovary.
B. stigma.
C. anther.
D. filament.
E. style.

A

ovary

72
Q

The stigma, style, and ovary are located in a

A. carpel.
B. sepal.
C. receptacle.
D. petal.
E. stamen.

A

carpel

73
Q

The site of formation of pollen grains is in the

A. carpel.
B. sepal.
C. receptacle.
D. petal.
E. stamen.

A

stamen

74
Q

Botanically, a seed is a structure developed from a(n)

A. style.
B. ovule.
C. stigma.
D. anther.
E. sepal.

A

ovule

75
Q

A plant that makes seeds but not flowers would be

A. a pine tee.
B. a grass.
C. a moss.
D. a fern.

A

pine tree

76
Q

Put these in the order in which they occurred over evolutionary time.

  1. Evolution of the Embryo
  2. Evolution of Vascular Tissue
  3. Evolution of the Seed
  4. Evolution of the Flower
A

1) Embryo
2) Vascular Tissue
3) Seed
4) Flower

77
Q

Animals that have no particular symmetry exhibit

A. asymmetry.
B. radial symmetry.
C. bilateral symmetry.
D. trilateral symmetry.

A

asymmetry

78
Q

Which type of animal symmetry produces mirror images of each other no matter how the animal is sliced longitudinally?

A. radial symmetry
B. asymmetrical symmetry
C. bilateral symmetry
D. asymmetrical symmetry and bilateral symmetry

A

radial symmetry

79
Q

The term deuterostome refers to

A. having a spiny skin.
B. having three germ layers.
C. possessing a notochord.
D. the second embryonic opening becoming the mouth.

A

the second embryonic opening becoming the mouth

80
Q

Which difference distinguishes protostomes from deuterostomes?

A. One has a nervous system, and one doesn’t.
B. Their embryonic development is different.
C. One has cephalization and one doesn’t.
D. One has a notochord and one doesn’t.

A

their embryonic development is different

81
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about protostomes?

A. They form a true coelom.
B. The first opening during embryonic development becomes the anus.
C. They will become mollusks, annelids, and arthropods.
D. They are more advanced than acoelomates, but not as advanced as deuterostomes.

A

the first opening during embryonic development becomes the anus

82
Q

Which of the following statements about sponges is NOT correct?

A. Sponges have no nerve fibers.
B. Sponges have no fully developed muscle fibers.
C. Amoeboid cells capture food particles from the water.
D. Sponges may reproduce asexually by budding or regeneration from a small piece.

A

amoeboid cells capture food from particles from the water

83
Q

Why are real bath sponges so soft?

A. The silica is washed away and the calcium carbonate remains.
B. The spongin spicules are washed away and the silky silica remains.
C. The harder silica or calcium spicules are absent and the softer spongin remains.
D. The silica and spicules are washed away and the spongin treated with softening chemicals.

A

the harder the silica or calcium spicules are absent and the softer spongin remains

84
Q

A recent study of the marine hawksbill turtle’s stomach contents revealed that sponges constitute a major portion of their diet. Sponge beds are generally protected from predators by the sponge’s calcium and silica crystals, but these were found in quantity in the turtles’ digestive systems. These structures that protect the sponges from most predators, but not turtles, are

A. amoebocytes.
B. the osculum.
C. spicules.
D. spongin.

A

spicules

85
Q

Which of the following organisms exhibit radial symmetry as adults?

A. flatworms
B. cnidarians
C. roundworms
D. clams

A

cnidarians

86
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about cnidaria?

A. The adult body is bilaterally symmetrical.
B. There are two tissue layers: an outer epidermis and inner gastrodermis.
C. Stinging cells contain a threadlike nematocyst released to capture prey.
D. A jellylike mesoglea contains cells that form a nerve net throughout the body.

A

the adult body is bilaterally symmetrical

87
Q

The stinging cells or nematocysts are characteristic of

A. sponges.
B. cnidarians.
C. flatworms.
D. roundworms.

A

cnidarians

88
Q

The molluscs look so different, and yet we can tell they are related because they all

A. are segmented.
B. have an external skeleton.
C. have a mantle, visceral mass, and a foot.
D. have shells.

A

have a mantle, visceral mass, and a foot

89
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of earthworms?

A. segmentation
B. hermaphroditic
C. paired nephridia in each segment
D. dorsal solid nerve cord

A

dorsal solid nerve cord

90
Q

Earthworms are

A. annelids.
B. molluscs.
C. platyhelminthes.
D. arthropods.

A

annelids

91
Q

Which type of organism is characterized by having jointed appendages, ability to molt, and three sets of fused segments?

A. molluscs
B. arthropods
C. annelids
D. chordates

A

arthropods

92
Q

The largest animal group, both in number of species and number of individuals, is the

A. annelids.
B. crustacea.
C. insects.
D. reptiles.

A

insects

93
Q

It is NOT correct to say that arthropods have

A. a variety of respiratory organs.
B. a well-developed nervous system.
C. jointed appendages and a segmented body.
D. a tough exoskeleton that grows by expansion.

A

a tough exoskeleton that grows by expansion

94
Q

A major characteristic of the arthropods is the presence of

A. flame cells.
B. radial symmetry.
C. a soft exoskeleton.
D. jointed appendages.

A

jointed appendages

95
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of echinoderms?

A. locomotion by muscles
B. endoskeleton of spiny, calcium-rich plates
C. larva is bilaterally symmetrical
D. both sexual and asexual reproduction

A

locomotion by muscles

96
Q

Which of the following apply to the sponge in the image?

A. no true tissues
B. animal
C. skeleton with spicules or protein spongin
D. asymmetrical
E. cnidarian
F. fungus
G. radial symmetry
H. cnidocytes

A

no true tissues
animal
skeleton with spicules or protein spongin
asymmetrical

97
Q

Which of the following apply to the anemone in the image?

A. medusa
B. polyp
C. arthropod
D. bilateral symmetry
E. cnidarian
F. fungus
G. radial symmetry
H. cnidocytes

A

polyp
cnidarian
radial symmetry
cnidocytes

98
Q

Which of the following apply to the slug and snail in the image?

A. mantle
B. gastropod
C. arthropod
D. bilateral symmetry
E. cnidarian
F. cnidocyte
G. radial symmetry
H. mollusc

A

mantle
gastropod
bilateral symmetry
mollusc

99
Q

Which of the following apply to the squid in the image?

A. cephalopod
B. gastropod
C. arthropod
D. bilateral symmetry
E. camera-type eye
F. cnidarian
G. radial symmetry
H. mollusc

A

cephalopod
bilateral symmetry
camera-type eye
mollusc

100
Q

Which of the following apply to the spider in the image?

A. exoskeleton
B. gastropod
C. arthropod
D. book lung
E. insect
F. trachae
G. chelicera
H. echinoderm

A

exoskeleton
arthropod
book lung
chelicera

101
Q

Which of the following apply to the crab in the image?

A. exoskeleton
B. gastropod
C. arthropod
D. molts to grow
E. insect
F. arachnid
G. crustacean
H. echinoderm

A

exoskeleton
arthropod
molts to grow
crustacean

102
Q

Which of the following apply to the sea stars in the image?

A. deuterostome
B. protostome
C. echinoderm
D. tube feet
E. insect
F. mollusc
G. larva with bilateral symmetry
H. larva with radial symmetry

A

deuterostome
echinoderm
tube feet
larva with bilateral symmetry

103
Q

Which of the following is NOT a unique characteristic of all chordates at some time in their life history?

A. a dorsal notochord
B. a ventral hollow nerve cord
C. pharyngeal pouches
D. radial symmetry
E. a postanal tail

A

radial symmetry

104
Q

Defining characteristics of chordates are

A. segmentation, dorsal hollow nerve cord, gill arches or pharyngeal pouches.
B. dorsal hollow nerve cord, notochord, bilateral symmetry, and postanal tail.
C. bilateral symmetry, segmentation, and well-developed coelom.
D. gill arches or pharyngeal pouches, dorsal tubular nerve cord, notochord, and postanal tail.

A

gill arches or pharyngeal pouches, dorsal tubular nerve cord, notochord, and postanal tail

105
Q

Which of the following sequences correctly represents vertebrate evolution?

A. jawless fish - lobe-finned fish - amphibians - reptiles - mammals
B. jawless fish - amphibians - reptiles - lobe-finned fish - mammals
C. lobe-finned fish - mammals - reptiles - jawless fish - amphibians
D. lobe-finned fish - reptiles - mammals - jawless fish - amphibians

A

jawless fish - lobe-finned fish - amphibians - reptiles - mammals

106
Q

In vertebrates, the _______ is/are usually replaced by ________.

A. pharyngeal pouches; gill arches
B. dorsal hollow nerve cord; a ventral solid nerve cord
C. gill arches; pharyngeal pouches
D. notochord; a dorsal hollow nerve cord
E. notochord; a vertebral column

A

notochord; a vertebral column

107
Q

Which represents the correct order of evolution of chordate features?

A. amnion - limbs - lungs - jaws - vertebrae
B. limbs - lungs - jaws - vertebrae - amnion
C. lungs - jaws - vertebrae - amnion - limbs
D. vertebrae - jaws - lungs - limbs - amnion

A

vertebrae - jaws - lungs - limbs - amnion

108
Q

What is the correct evolutionary pathway for the key features of chordates?

A. notochord - vertebrae - jaws - bony skeleton - lungs - 4 limbs - amniotic egg - mammary glands
B. vertebrae - notochord- jaws - bony skeleton - lungs - 4 limbs - amniotic egg - mammary glands
C. notochord - vertebrae - jaws - bony skeleton - lungs - amniotic egg - 4 limbs - mammary glands
D. notochord - vertebrae - jaws - bony skeleton - mammary glands - lungs - 4 limbs - amniotic egg

A

notochord - vertebrae - jaws - bony skeleton - lungs - 4 limbs - amniotic egg - mammary glands

109
Q

Jaws are believed to have evolved from the

A. cranium.
B. first ribs.
C. first pair of gill arches.
D. suckers of lampreys.

A

first pair of gill arches

110
Q

Which of these is NOT a characteristic of a shark?

A. ability to sense electric currents in the water
B. skeleton of cartilage
C. a sucker used to attach to prey
D. ability to sense pressure of other swimming objects
E. ability to detect blood in minute amounts

A

a sucker used to attach to prey

111
Q

Sharks

A. have bone skeletons.
B. lack jaws.
C. have a keen sense of smell.
D. lack the lateral line system of bony fishes

A

have a keen sense of smell

112
Q

Of the following, the most recent ancestor of amphibians would be

A. hagfish.
B. coelacanth.
C. skate.
D. ray-finned fish.

A

coelacanth

113
Q

Which of these characteristics is NOT found in the amphibians but is developed in reptiles?

A. thin, moist skin
B. internal fertilization
C. aquatic larvae
D. eggs with gelatinous covering

A

internal fertilization

114
Q

Which of these characteristics first developed in reptiles?

A. amniotic egg
B. scales on skin
C. four-legged body
D. animals with lungs

A

amniotic egg

115
Q

Which of the following features was NOT necessary for adaptation by reptiles to life on land?

A. hard, horny scales
B. internal fertilization by means of a penis
C. shelled egg
D. being cold-blooded
E. well-developed lungs

A

being cold-blooded

116
Q

Mammals are different from birds in all these characteristics EXCEPT

A. having hair.
B. having mammary glands.
C. maintaining a constant body temperature.
D. having young born alive.

A

maintaining a constant body temperature

117
Q

Which of the following features is NOT a characteristic used to distinguish birds?

A. feathers
B. air sacs
C. body temperature that varies with environment
D. hard-shelled egg
E. four-chambered heart

A

body temperature that varies with environment

118
Q

An animal that is characterized by vertebrae, dorsal hollow nerve cord, hair, and mammary glands must be a(n)

A. fish.
B. amphibian.
C. reptile.
D. bird.
E. mammal.

A

mammal

119
Q

The chief distinguishing characteristic of all mammals is the presence of

A. constant internal temperature.
B. four limbs.
C. a four-chambered heart.
D. hair and mammary glands.

A

hair and mammary glands

120
Q

All mammals have an embryo that develops with a placenta.

A. True
B. False

A

false

121
Q

Tiktaalik roseae is considered to be a transitional form between

A. lobe-finned fish and amphibians.
B. amphibians and reptiles.
C. jawless fish and cartilaginous fish.
D. monotremes and placental mammals.

A

lobe-finned fishes and amphibians

122
Q

The juvenile amphibian generally hatches from an egg and develops

A. in water.
B. on land.
C. in a nest in a tree.

A

in water

123
Q

Primates have characteristics like opposable thumbs and toes, arms that can reach in almost any direction, and stereoscopic vision with eyes at the front of the face rather than sides of the head. This characteristics are thought to be well adapted to life

A. in trees.
B. in swamps.
C. in rivers.
D. on prairies.

A

in trees

124
Q

At which number on the phylogenetic tree did vertebrates evolve four limbs, becoming tetrapods? (it wouldn’t let me upload the phylogenetic tree image)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

A

4

125
Q

At which number on the phylogenetic tree did bony skeletons evolve? (it wouldn’t let me upload the phylogenetic tree image)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

A

2

126
Q

At which number on the phylogenetic tree did amniotic eggs evolve? (it wouldn’t let me upload the phylogenetic tree image)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

A

5