Exam 3 to End Flashcards

1
Q

Going up the main sequence (red to blue stars) mass, radius and luminosity all…

A

Increase

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2
Q

Which stars are more luminous: high-mass or low-mass?

A

High-mass stars

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3
Q

High-mass stars burn their fuel supply much _____ than low-mass stars.

A

Faster

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4
Q

Star lifetimes:
Red dwarf (0.1 M@) —->
Sun (1 M@) —->
Blue supergiant (10 M@) —->

A

Star lifetimes:
>10^12 yr
10^10 yr
2 x 10^7 yr

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5
Q

Which stars move through all phases faster: high-mass or low-mass?

A

High-mass stars

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6
Q

Where do stars form?

A

In cold, dense interstellar clouds

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7
Q

What is a dark nebula?

A

A dense cloud of gas and dust, which absorbs visible light and obscures stars behind it.

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8
Q

What is cloud collapse and what causes it?

A

When a cloud goes out of hydrostatic equilibrium. This is caused by gravity, meaning the cloud is compressed by a shockwave.

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9
Q

What are possible triggers of a cloud collapse?

A

A nearby supernova, a cloud passing through a galaxy’s spiral arm, or cloud collision

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10
Q

True of false: As gravitational contraction of a cloud continues, gas is compressed and heated.

A

True

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11
Q

Protostars are surrounded by what (which is also where they form)?

A

Dense gas and dust clouds

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12
Q

How are protostars best observed?

A

In infrared

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13
Q

Which is less absorbed by dust: Visible light or infrared?

A

Infrared

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14
Q

When does H-fusion begin in the core of a protostar?

A

When its central temperature reaches 10^7 K

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15
Q

Which stage begins a star’s main sequence?

A

A protostar

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16
Q

What does an H-R diagram show?

A

A star’s evolutionary track as it’s luminosity and temperature change.

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17
Q

What kind of luminosity and temperature does a protostar have?

A

High luminosity and low temperature

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18
Q

What is a reflection nebulae?

A

A bluish haze seen around hot, young stars due to interstellar dust.

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19
Q

A reflection nebulae’s dust reflects blue or red light more effectively?

A

Blue light (the red light appears redder than its true color)

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20
Q

What is interstellar reddening?

A

When dust clouds between a star and its observer scatter more blue light than red light out of its beam, which makes the star appear redder than its true color.

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21
Q

Why does Earth’s sky appear blue?

A

Because air molecules reflect more blue light than red light.

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22
Q

Why does the sun look red near the horizon?

A

Because more blue light than red light has been removed and the light travels through more atmosphere near the horizon.

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23
Q

What are lower end main sequence limits?

A

Below 0.08 M@ when the central temperature is too low for fusion

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24
Q

What are upper end main sequence limits?

A

Above about 100 M@ when the radiation pressure blows stars apart

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25
Q

What are the evolutionary stages of a 1 M@ Star?

A
  1. Main sequence
  2. Red giant
  3. Helium flash
  4. Horizontal branch
  5. Second red giant
  6. Planetary nebula
  7. White dwarf
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26
Q

Nuclear fusion in a main sequence star’s core converts…

A

Hydrogen to Helium

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27
Q

When does a star leave the main sequence?

A

When the hydrogen is used up in its core

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28
Q

How long will the sun spend on its main sequence?

A

10^10 years

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29
Q

True or false: More massive stars burn through Hydrogen slower?

A

False, they burn through it faster.

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30
Q

When H fusion ends in a star’s core, does it continue somewhere else during the red giant phase?

A

Yes, in the shell around the core.

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31
Q

What causes a star’s core to contract and heat during the red giant phase?

A

Gravity

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32
Q

During the red giant phase, the star’s outer region…

A

Expands and cools due to increased pressure

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33
Q

What are some red giant properties?

A

Big, bright, and cool
R = 100 R@ = 0.5 AU
L = 1000 L@
T = 3500 K

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34
Q

What is a helium flash?

A

When the central temperature of a red giant is 10^8 K and Helium fusion begins in its core.

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35
Q

What is the triple-a process?

A

3 He —-> C + energy

He = helium nucleus = a-particle
C = carbon nucleus
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36
Q

What fuses in the horizontal branch phase of a star?

A

Helium fuses to carbon in its core, some Helium fuses with carbon to form oxygen.

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37
Q

What does the star’s core do in the horizontal branch phase?

A

It expands, cools and becomes bluer.

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38
Q

Which luminosity is higher: the sun or a horizontal branch star?

A

A horizontal branch star’s luminosity

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39
Q

True or false: Horizontal branch stars form a horizontal grouping in the H-R diagram.

A

True

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40
Q

What stage is a star in when there is no Helium left in the core and its core is now made up of carbon and oxygen?

A

Second red giant phase

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41
Q

In the second red giant phase, what does the core do and what does the envelope do?

A

The core contracts and heats, while the envelope expands and cools.

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42
Q

Towards the end of the second red giant phase, the star becomes…

A

a red supergiant

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43
Q

During the planetary nebula phase, what does the red supergiant’s envelope do?

A

It pulsates unstably, eventually becoming ejected and exposing the star’s core.

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44
Q

What is the structure of the star during its planetary nebula phase?

A

It has an expanding spherical gas shell around the small, hot star and the shell appears as a bright ring.

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45
Q

The structure of other planetary nebulae’s ejected gas can be nonspherical due to…

A

A star orbiting a binary companion, or a disk around the star producing an hourglass shape.

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46
Q

Hot, dense core becomes a white dwarf =

A

collapsed star about the size of the Earth

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47
Q

What is the density of a white dwarf?

A

10^9 kg/m^3 = 10^6 x density of water

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48
Q

What is the structure of a white dwarf?

A

Electrons are packed as closely as possible, star does not contract further, and temperature and luminosity decrease in time.

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49
Q

What is the Chandra limit?

A

The maximum possible mass for a white dwarf = 1.4 M@

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50
Q

Which kind of star must collapse to a smaller size and higher density?

A

A more massive burned-out star

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51
Q

Which objects are highly collapsed?

A

Neutron stars and black holes

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52
Q

What is an open star cluster?

A

a cluster of young, recently formed stars found in the disk of a Galaxy where most stars are near the main sequence.

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53
Q

What is the age of an open star cluster?

A

2 x 10^7 years

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54
Q

What is a globular star cluster?

A

a cluster of only old stars (greater than 10^10 yr) found in the bulge/halo of our Galaxy, with almost no stars present on the upper main sequence (M>M@).

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55
Q

What is a main sequence turnoff?

A

the location in the H-R diagram of stars just becoming red giants. The younger the cluster, the higher the mass of the turnoff stars.

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56
Q

What is an equinox?

A

An event that occurs twice a year where the day and night have equal length. The sun is overhead at equator on equinoxes.

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57
Q

When do equinoxes occur?

A

The autumnal (fall) equinox occurs around Sept. 22nd and the vernal (spring) equinox occurs around March 21st.

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58
Q

When is the day longer and when is the day shorter during the year?

A

The day is longer in the summer and shorter in the winter.

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59
Q

In which direction does the sun rise and set?

A

The sun rises due East and sets due West.

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60
Q

What is a solstice?

A

An event that occurs twice a year when the Sun reaches its highest or lowest excursion relative to the equator.

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61
Q

When do solstices occur?

A

Summer solstice (LONGEST DAY OF THE YEAR) occurs around June 21st and winter solstice (SHORTEST DAY OF THE YEAR) occurs around Dec. 21st.

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62
Q

Where does the Earth’s axis point during summer solstice?

A

It points most TOWARD the Sun.

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63
Q

Where does the Earth’s axis point during winter solstice?

A

It points most AWAY from the Sun.

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64
Q

During the evolution of a high mass star (M>10M@), nuclear fusion produces elements up to…

A

Iron (but the core does not undergo fusion, it occurs in the shells surrounding the core)

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65
Q

In a high mass star (M>10M@), the core is the size of…

A

the Earth

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66
Q

When the core mass of a high mass star exceeds 1.4M@ (Chandra limit), it becomes…

A

Unstable

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67
Q

What is a supernova and how does it occur?

A

The death of a massive star. It occurs when gravity overcomes outward electron pressure in iron core, causing rapid collapse.

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68
Q

Electrons and protons combine in a supernova and form…

A

Neutrons (in nucleus of an atom), and then a pulse of neutrinos (very low mass particles) are produced.

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69
Q

What stops the core’s collapse in a supernova and when?

A

Neutron pressure, when the core is 20 km (12 mi) across. The pressure balances gravity again in the core.

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70
Q

Describe the supernova’s blast.

A

The core bounces outward and energy is released by its collapse, which causes a shockwave and the rest of the exploded star to travel out.

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71
Q

What kind of elements are produced in a supernova blast?

A

Elements heavier than iron are produced in a supernova blast.

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72
Q

What kind of elements are produced in massive stars?

A

Elements heavier than Hydrogen and Helium.

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73
Q

What do supernova blasts return Hydrogen and Helium to?

A

Interstellar gas

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74
Q

What was Supernova 1987A?

A

The closest supernova observed in the past 400 years.

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75
Q

Where was Supernova 1987A observed, when, and how far away was it?

A

It was observed in Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC) in Feb. 1987 and it was 160,000 ly away.

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76
Q

Describe the Supernova 1987A.

A

It was a blue supergiant that exploded. Its luminosity increased by a few 1,000x and had three bright rings which provided evidence for the hourglass wind flow of a doomed star.

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77
Q

What did the Chandra X-ray observatory find out about Cas A supernova?

A

That its remnant was an expanding cloud of hot gas, seen about 300 years after the supernova, about 10 ly in radius.

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78
Q

What is a type of stellar remnant from a supernova blast and describe its structure?

A

Neutron star, ultra-collapsed core, Mass is equal or greater than 1.4M@, Radius is 10 km or 6 mi, It is made of tightly packed neutrons.

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79
Q

True of false: Neutron stars can emit all forms of electromagnetic radiation: from radio to gamma-rays.

A

True

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80
Q

Describe the pulsar quality of neutron stars produced by supernova blasts.

A

The neutron star has a pulsing source of radio, visible, or x-ray. It was discovered by Bell in 1967. The pulse periods were 0.0014 sec to 10’s of sec., up to 700 flashes per sec. The first explanation was alien signals.

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81
Q

What is the lighthouse effect/model for pulsars?

A

When radiation is beamed along the neutron star’s magnetic axis and the rotational axis and the magnetic axis of the neutron star are not aligned.

82
Q

Why is rotation of pulsar star after a supernova blast so fast?

A

Because of the “lighthouse effect”. As its core collapses, the spin rate greatly increases.

83
Q

What is a pulsar?

A

A rapidly rotating neutron star (post-supernova).

84
Q

What is the fastest pulsar spin rate?

A

700 per sec = 42,000 rpm

85
Q

How does gas escape from normal stars and form an accretion disk (matter)?

A

It is attracted by the gravity (spiraling inward in disk) of the collapsed star.

86
Q

The gas escaping from normal stars is heated to a high temperature by friction and radiates…

A

Ultraviolet rays and X-ray

87
Q

What is the x-ray luminosity of neutron star binaries?

A

10^5 L@

88
Q

What is the maximum mass for a neutron star?

A

3 M@

89
Q

Some x-ray binaries have collapsed stars with…

A

M > 3M@

90
Q

If Cygnus X-1 has a visible star that is a B supergiant with strong winds and the collapsed star has a mass of at least 11 M@…

A

It must be a black hole.

91
Q

What did Einstein’s Theory of General Relativity (1916) say?

A

That nothing can travel faster than light and that gravity causes space to curve.

92
Q

What is a black hole?

A

An object with such strong gravity that nothing can escape from its vicinity - not even light.

93
Q

When a star becomes a black hole it collapses to a point of ______ _______ - a _______

A

Infinite density, singularity

94
Q

What causes space to curve?

A

Mass

95
Q

High mass concentration causes surrounding space to…

A

Pinch off from rest of universe.

96
Q

What is an event horizon?

A

The spherical boundary surrounding the location of a black hole.

97
Q

Inside the event horizon, the escape speed exceeds…

A

the speed of light.

98
Q

The black hole’s mass and its event horizon’s size ________ as material falls in.

A

Increase

99
Q

What kind of path do photons follow in curved space?

A

A curved path (even the Sun bends starlight by a small amount)

100
Q

The more _____ a star is the more it ______ the surrounding space.

A

Collapsed, curves

101
Q

Where are black holes?

A

In binary star systems (our galaxy contains AT LEAST 10 binaries with a BH) and at centers of galaxies.

102
Q

What is the average mass of supermassive black holes?

A

Between 10^6 to 10^10 M@

103
Q

How do black holes power active galaxies and quasars (an extremely massive and remote celestial object)?

A

Through gravitational energy release

104
Q

Stars with M < 10 M@:

A
  • white dwarf
  • M (of a white dwarf) < 1.4M@
  • R (of a white dwarf) = R (of Earth)
105
Q

Stars with M > 10 M@:

A
  • neutron star
  • M (of NS) < 3M@
  • R (of NS) = 10km
106
Q

Stars with M > 25M@:

A
  • black hole
  • M (of BH) > 3M@
  • R (of BH) = 3km x M (of BH)
107
Q

What is the Milky Way?

A

Our galaxy, a large spiral galaxy (with about 10^11) stars, the Sun is in our disk.

108
Q

Can you see more stars looking through the disk of our galaxy or looking out of the disk? Why?

A

You can see more stars looking THROUGH disk than out of disk because the path through the disk is longer.

109
Q

Why is the Milky Way best viewed in infrared light?

A

Because dust blocks the view in visible light. Dust emits longer wavelength in infrared and lower temp. (cooler). Stars emit shorter wavelength in infrared and higher temp. (hotter).

110
Q

How is the disk of the Milky Way galaxy shaped and what is its structure?

A

Like a frisbee. It contains stars (young and old), gas, and dust in a spiral pattern and is 2,000 ly thick.

111
Q

Since the Milky Way galaxy orbits circularly, what is the orbital period of the sun and how many orbits has it completed?

A

The orbital period of the sun is 2 x 10^8 yr. The sun has completed 25 orbits.

112
Q

Describe the evolution that occurs in the disk of the Milky Way.

A

Star formation is ongoing. Each stellar generation adds “metals” (elements heavier than Hydrogen and Helium) to interstellar gas, from supernova explosions.

113
Q

Why do young stars have higher metal content in their atmospheres than old stars?

A

Because young stars form from enriched gas due to supernova explosion.

114
Q

What are the spheroidal components of the Milky Way?

A

The nucleus, bulge, and halo (contains no gas and dust, so star formation isn’t occurring - old stars only).

115
Q

True or false: It was once thought that the sun was at the center of the galaxy.

A

True. Shapley discovered this.

116
Q

What is a standard candle?

A

An object of known luminosity.

117
Q

A standard candle measures _____ _______.

A

Apparent brightness

118
Q

Apply the inverse square law to get distance:

A

B = L/d^2 (discovered by Shapley)

119
Q

Where is our galactic center located and how far is the sun from it?

A

In Sagittarius. About 25,000 ly from the galactic center.

120
Q

How is the galactic nucleus best observed and describe the region.

A

It’s best observed using infrared and radio telescopes. It is a crowded, active and dense region where nonstellar and gamma-ray emission can be observed.

121
Q

What does the galactic nucleus contain?

A

A supermassive black hole

122
Q

High speed stellar orbits (faster as it gets closer to black hole) indicate the mass of the black hole is…

A

4 x 10^6 M@

123
Q

What produces gamma-rays near a black hole?

A

electron-positron annihilation

124
Q

There is a large amount of dark mass in the halo due to…

A

the stars in the halo having high speeds.

125
Q

How far does the halo extend in relation to the size of the disk?

A

It extends at least 10x the size of the disk.

126
Q

What kind of dark matter could the halo possibly contain?

A
  • “Jupiters” (M = 0.001 M@)

- brown dwarfs (M = massive compact halo objects (very low mass stars or collapsed stellar remnants)

127
Q

What are some examples of MACHOs?

A

white dwarfs, neutron star, or black hole

128
Q

How can MACHOs be detected?

A

Through gravitational lensing (when an object passing between a light source and the observer bends the light and it temporarily appears brighter)

129
Q

As much as __% of dark matter is still not known. Most of it is supposed to be in the form of ______.

A

90, WIMPs

130
Q

What causes each star to orbit the globular cluster in a rosette pattern?

A

Gravity

131
Q

Describe cluster evolution.

A

Close encounters occur between pairs of stars, some stars are kicked into core or halo, others collapse and shrink to become denser.

132
Q

How are close binary stars formed?

A

By gravitational interactions in the core.

133
Q

What makes and x-ray binary?

A

If one of the two stars is a white dwarf, neutron star, or black hole.

134
Q

What can eject binaries and singles from a cluster and what happens to them after they are ejected?

A

Gravitational interactions between them. They join the galactic halo.

135
Q

What kind of stars are most cluster stars?

A

Low-mass, red, old stars

136
Q

What are blue stragglers?

A

Small numbers of higher-mass, blue, apparently young stars.

137
Q

What does the stellar evolution theory say about blue stragglers?

A

That they should not exist now and that they should have evolved to red giants then white dwarfs.

138
Q

What is the theory for blue stragglers and where did the Hubble space telescope detect them?

A

The theory is that they were formed by stellar collisions. The telescope detected them in cluster cores, where collision rate is higher.

139
Q

Is there a large black hole at the center of globular cluster M15?

A

Possibly. Black holes would cause a sharp increase in stellar speed toward its center but it can be measured by a central concentration of white dwarfs and neutron stars, so it’s not positively a black hole.

140
Q

What are nebulae?

A

faint, fuzzy, cloud-like objects in the sky that don’t move relative to fixed stars, thus are not comets.

141
Q

What is Meissier’s List (1781)?

A

A list of the 103 brightest nebulae. Ex.) M1 = Crab Nebula, M31 = Andromeda Nebula, M51 = Whirlpool Nebula.

142
Q

What is an island universe?

A

A self-contained stellar system outside the Milky Way - another name for a galaxy.

143
Q

What is a hypothesis about nebulae in the island universe model?

A

That most nebulae are galaxies.

144
Q

When, by whom, and how was the island universe model confirmed?

A

In 1924, by Hubble, when he found Cepheid variable stars in M31 (Andromeda nebulae).

145
Q

What is a cepheid variable?

A

a star that varies between a larger, brighter state and a smaller, denser one

146
Q

What is a cepheid variable’s period?

A

The time between its luminosity peaks

147
Q

How do you find a cepheid variable’s distance?

A

Use the inverse-square law (B=L/d^2) to find distance from its apparent brightness and luminosity.

148
Q

What kind of luminosity do the brightest cepheid variables have?

A

L > 10^4 L@

149
Q

Where is M31 (the Andromeda Galaxy)?

A

It lies well outside the Milky Way at the distance 2 x 10^6 ly.

150
Q

What is a spiral galaxy and what are two examples of one?

A

It is a galaxy made up of a disk w/ spiral pattern and spheroid (and bulge and halo), with young and old stars. Two examples are the Milky Way and the Andromeda Galaxy (M31).

151
Q

What is an elliptical galaxy?

A

It is a galaxy with a smooth, symmetric structure; spheroidical only (like football); old stars only.

152
Q

What is an S0 (S-zero) Galaxy?

A

It is a galaxy with a disk but NO gas, dust, or spiral structure (unlike all others). Old stars only.

153
Q

What is an irregular galaxy?

A

It is a galaxy with asymmetric structure, high gas/dust, vigorous star formation. (Ex.) Magellanic clouds)

154
Q

Most galaxies are found in ______ or ______.

A

Groups, clusters

155
Q

What is the range of size for galaxy clusters?

A

10^6 to 10^7 ly across

156
Q

What is the local group?

A

The nearest 30 galaxies to us.

157
Q

What is the structure of the local group?

A

Mostly irregular and elliptical galaxies. MW and Andromeda (M31) are on opposite sides falling towards each other, may merge into an elliptical in 5 x 10^9 yr.

158
Q

True or false: Stars collide in galaxy collisions.

A

False. They are too far apart.

159
Q

True or false: Gas clouds collide in galaxy collisions.

A

True. Due to their large sizes. Gas can be heated and may excape from galaxies. THIS CAN TRANSFORM SPIRALS INTO S0s!

160
Q

Low-speed galaxy collisions can cause galaxy mergers in _____ ______.

A

Small groups

161
Q

High-speed galaxy collisions in large clusters do not tend to result in ______.

A

Mergers

162
Q

Collisions can compress gas clouds in galaxies, causing _____ _______.

A

Star formation

163
Q

In the galaxy NGC 6240 (which was formed by a merger), there are 2 supermassive black holes that are about 3000 ly apart. In about _____ million yr they will _____, producing strong _____ waves.

A

100, merge, gravity

164
Q

What accelerates the speed of galaxy clusters?

A

Gravitational pull

165
Q

The higher the speed of a galaxy cluster, the ______ the mass of the cluster.

A

Greater

166
Q

Less than ___% of the mass of a cluster is in visible parts of galaxies and hot gas.

A

20

167
Q

The other 80% of the mass of a cluster is ____ ____, thought to be WIMPs.

A

Dark matter

168
Q

What is a supercluster and how is it produced?

A

A group of galaxy clusters, produced by gravity.

169
Q

What are three features of a large-scale distribution of galaxies?

A

Filaments, voids, and walls

170
Q

What are filaments?

A

Apparent strings of galaxies in space

171
Q

What are voids?

A

Empty regions in space

172
Q

What are walls?

A

Sheets of galaxies in space at the edges of voids.

173
Q

How do you find the distance of galaxies?

A

Use standard candles and apply the inverse square law (B=L/d^2)

174
Q

What are 5 examples of standard candles?

A

Cepheid variable, supergiant stars, globular star clusters, galaxies, and supernovae.

175
Q

More _____ galaxies require more luminous candles.

A

Distant

176
Q

What is the Hubble Law (1929)?

A

When Hubble measured Doppler shifts of absorption lines in galaxy spectra and found that all but nearest galaxies RECEDE from Milky Way and have RED SHIFTS.

177
Q

The more distant the galaxy, the ______ it recedes.

A

Faster

178
Q

A galaxy is at a distance of 100 MPC, what is its speed?

A

v=H0(hubble constant=71)d
v=71 x 100MPC
v=7100 km/s

179
Q

How do you measure v when determining the Hubble constant?

A

You measure v from doppler shift (see formulas), then calculate d=v/H0.

180
Q

What is the interpretation of the Hubble law? What does it mean?

A

That the universe is expanding. The distances BETWEEN galaxies all increase in time. It started with the Big Bang about 14 x 10^9 yr ago.

181
Q

Other than the Sun, how many planets have been confirmed around stars and how close are they located to their parent star?

A

1000, and very close (<2 AU)

182
Q

The gravity of planets causes stars to _____, which is measured by the ______ ______.

A

Wobble, doppler shift

183
Q

The more _____ the planet and the ______ it is to the parent star, the larger the wobble of the star.

A

massive, closer

184
Q

What makes a planet habitable?

A

If it is the right mass (too high and star’s lifetime is too short, too low and too cold), solid surface, atmosphere not too thick or thin (too thin - cannot maintain liquid water - Mars; too thick - runaway greenhouse effect - Venus)

185
Q

Each star has a _______ zone.

A

Habitable

186
Q

Venus and Mars are not in habitable zone. Venus is too ____ and Mars is too _____.

A

Hot, Cold

187
Q

What is the Kepler Mission (2009-)?

A

A spacecraft based telescope helped to discover planets that orbit other stars due to sensing the dip in brightness that the causes by being in front of its parent star.

188
Q

It is estimated that ___ billion Earth-sized planets may be within the habitable zones of the Sun.

A

40

189
Q

Life on Earth is based on ______ ______.

A

Organic molecules

190
Q

What are two examples of complex organic molecules?

A

Formaldehyde and Ethyl Alcohol

191
Q

_____ may have seeded young Earth with organic materials.

A

Comets

192
Q

What is the Miller-Urey Experiment?

A

An experiment that showed that complex organic molecules form in simulated primordial Earth conditions. (Did NOT create life or DNA)

193
Q

What does the Drake Equation do?

A

It considers factors that determine the likelihood of other intelligent life in our Galaxy. (Number of intelligent civilizations in our Galaxy = R x I x U x…etc. = 1 to 1000)

194
Q

If the human race intends to find out if alien life forms exist, what are two conclusions we can come to at the present time?

A

That radio is the best means of contact (possible planets would be too far away and take 200 ly < to get there) and it is highly unlikely that aliens have visited Earth.

195
Q

What is cosmology?

A

The study of the structure and evolution of the universe. (All galaxies moving away from each other)

196
Q

What are properties of the universe’s expansion?

A

There is NO center or edge, it obeys Hubble Law, and more distant objects recede FASTER.

197
Q

As the universe expands, photons are _____. Wavelengths get _____ and photons are ___shifted.

A

Stretched, longer, red. The more distant the object is the redder it is and the higher recession velocity it has.

198
Q

The universe can be traced to a state of infinite density about ___ Gyr (10^9 yr each).

A

13.7 (extremely accurate)

199
Q

Before galaxies and stars formed, the universe was filled with ___ ____ and ______.

A

Hot gas, radiation

200
Q

What is the Cosmic Microwave Background?

A

An experiment that detected microwaves from all directions in the sky and won the 1978 Nobel Prize. It proved the Big Bang happened.

201
Q

What is the geometry of the universe and its content?

A

Flat and infinite, made up of normal and dark matter (WIMPs), and dark energy.

202
Q

The universe is expanding ever more rapidly, so will it reach a maximum and then start shrinking back?

A

Probably not. It will probably just keep expanding.