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Pathogenic Microbiology > Exam 3 Study Deck > Flashcards

Exam 3 Study Deck Flashcards

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1
Q

generally, how do viruses cause upper respiratory infections

A

viruses disrupt the stratified squamous epithelial cells that line the oral/nasopharynx

this disruption allows normal bacteria in the area to produce infections

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2
Q

what are four factors that can predispose you to an infection

A

1.) overuse of antibiotics or immunosuppressive therapy (steroids/radiation)

2.) inadequate hydration

3.) malnutrition/old age

4.) immunosuppressive diseases (cancer/HIV)

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3
Q

describe some features of laryngitis

A

-usually caused by a virus
-symptoms: hoarseness/lowering of voice

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4
Q

if laryngitis is bacterial, what are the two main suspects?

A

1.) streptococcus pyogenes
2.) diphtheria

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5
Q

what are 6 types of viruses that can cause laryngitis

A

1.) influenzae
2.) rhinoviruses
3.) coronoviruses
4.) parainfluenzae
5.) adenoviruses
6.) human metapneumonviruses

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6
Q

what are the four main symptoms of laryngotracheobronchitits or “croup”

A

1.) fever
2.) difficulty breathing (stridor)
3.) hoarseness
4.) barking cough

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7
Q

what are 6 types of viruses that can cause laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

A

1.) parainfluenzae
2.) influenzae
3.) rhinoviruses
4.) respiratory syncytial virus
5.) adenovirus
6.) mycoplasma

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8
Q

what is the most common virus to cause laryngotracheobronchitis or “croup”

A

parainfluenzae

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9
Q

who are most affected by laryngotracheobronchitis or “croup”

A

young children under 3 years of age

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10
Q

who are most affected by epiglottitis

A

children between 2 and 6

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11
Q

what are the four symptoms of epiglottitis

A

1.) fever
2.) painful swallowing
3.) drooling
4.) respiratory obstruction

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12
Q

what is the most common bacteria to cause epiglottitis

A

haemophilus influenzae type b

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13
Q

which 2 types of bacteria can cause epiglottitis

A

staph and streps (strep. pneumo.)

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14
Q

young children with epiglottitis are prone to what

A

developing bacteremia

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15
Q

what are the three features of a pharyngitis or tonsillitis infection caused by arcanobacterium haemolyticum

A

1.) gram positive, diphtheroid rod
2.) beta-hemolytic on blood agar
3.) invades pharyngeal mucosa

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16
Q

what are the four features of a pharyngitis or tonsillitis infection caused by streptococcus pyogenes

A

1.) gram positive cocci in chains
2.) catalase negative and beta-hemolytic on blood agar
3.) invades pharyngeal mucosa
4.) produces toxins and virulence factors

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17
Q

what are the three features of a pharyngitis or tonsillitis infection caused by corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

1.) gram positive rod (Chinese letters)
2.) pseudomembrane produced by diphtheria toxin
3.) obstruction by pseudomembrane

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18
Q

which two mediums should be used to isolate corynebacterium diphtheriae in the case of pharyngitis and tonsillitis

A

1.) cystine-tellurite blood agar
2.) tinsdale medium

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19
Q

what is the most common bacterial cause of pharyngitis or tonsillitis

A

streptococcus pyogenes

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20
Q

which antibiotic is most commonly used to treat bacterial pharyngitis and tonsillitis caused by streptococcus pyogenes

A

penicillin

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21
Q

what are the two main consequences of untreated, strep. pyogenes pharyngitis or tonsillitis

A

post streptococcal sequelae -acute rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis

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22
Q

what are the four main symptoms of rheumatic fever

A

1.) fever
2.) carditis
3.) subcutaneous nodules
4.) polyarthritis

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23
Q

what are the four main symptoms of acute glomerulonephritis

A

1.) edema
2.) hematuria
3.) hypertension
4.) proteinuria

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24
Q

what are the four main virulence factors of bacterial pharyngitis caused by strep. pyogenes

A

1.) protein F
2.) M protein
3.) enzymes
4.) exotoxins

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25
Q

what role does protein F play in bacterial pharyngitis

A

mediates epithelial cell attachment

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26
Q

what role does M protein play in bacterial pharyngitis

A

antiphagocytic

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27
Q

what role do enzymes play in bacterial pharyngitis

A

invade and destroy

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28
Q

what are 5 enzymes involved in bacterial pharyngitis

A

1.) streptolysin O
2.) streptolysin S
3.) streptokinase
4.) DNase
5.) hyaluronidase

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29
Q

what role do exotoxins play in bacterial pharyngitis

A

mediate production of rash or multi system effects that can cause death

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30
Q

what are 6 complications of pharyngitis and tonsillitis

A

1.) necrotizing fasciitis
2.) impetigo
3.) bacteremia
4.) pneumonia
5.) toxic shock syndrome
6.) scarlet fever

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31
Q

what are three symptoms are scarlet fever

A

1.) white exudate on tonsils
2.) rash
3.) cherry-red tongue

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32
Q

what is Vincent’s Angina (necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis) or (trench mouth)

A

bacterial infection of the gingival edge

can develop into septic jugular thrombophlebitis, bacteremia, and metastatic infection

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33
Q

what are the two main bacterial organisms to cause Vincent’s Angina

A

1.) fusobacterium necrophorum
2.) spirochetes

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34
Q

what is a common organism to cause a peritonsillar abscess

A

bactericides fragilis

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35
Q

rhinitis is most commonly cause by a virus or bacteria

A

virus

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36
Q

what are 5 symptoms of rhinitis

A

1.) fever
2.) increased mucous
3.) sneezing
4.) itchy watery eyes
5.) inflammation of nasal mucosa

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37
Q

what are the three miscellaneous bacteria that cause pharyngitis

A

1.) corynebacterium diphtheriae
2.) bordetella pertussis
3.) klebsiella species

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38
Q

how long is the incubation period for corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

2 to 4 days

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39
Q

what are some complications of end stage infection of corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

nervous system damage which leads to seizures, coma, or blindness

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40
Q

what would you see on a positive tellurite plate for corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

dark colonies with black halos due to reduction of tellurite to metallic tellurium

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41
Q

what is the differential media used to grow corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

tellurite

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42
Q

what is most common medium used to isolate corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Loffler’s medium

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43
Q

what are the two main causative agents of pertussis or whooping cough

A

1.) bordetella pertussis
2.) bordetella papartussis

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44
Q

what are the three symptomatic phases of pertussis

A

1.) catarrhal stage
2.) paroxysmal stage
3.) convalescent stage

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45
Q

explain the catarrhal stage of pertussis

A

first stage
development of respiratory symptom after the 7 to 13 day incubation period

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46
Q

explain the paroxysmal stage of pertussis

A

second stage
spells of paroxysmal coughing and lymphocytosis that develop after 2 weeks

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47
Q

explain the convalescent stage of pertussis

A

third stage
disease begins to get better after four weeks

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48
Q

what are the three main virulence factors of bordetella pertussis/parapertussis

A

1.) adhesion
2.) toxicity
3.) overcoming of host defenses

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49
Q

when are bordetella pertussis/parapertussis most detectable in the lab

A

before 2 weeks
after 2 weeks, they are undetectable

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50
Q

where should one obtain samples for bordetella pertussis/parapertussis

A

areas with ciliated epithelial cells

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51
Q

which stain should be used for bordetella pertussis/parapertussis specimens

A

DFA stain with polyclonal antibodies

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52
Q

which test can commonly be used to test for bordetella pertussis/parapertussis

A

PCR tests that are sensitive to culture.DFA combo

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53
Q

what does the gram stain for bordetella pertussis/parapertussis look like

A

faintly staining minute coccobacilli in single or pairs

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54
Q

which two agents cause chronic granulomatous infection of the nasal passages, sinuses, and pharynx/larynx

A

klebsiella rhinoscleromatis or klebiella ozaenae

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55
Q

what is ozena

A

production of a foul smelling mucopurolent discharge due to a klebsiella ozaenae infection

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56
Q

what is stomatitis

A

disease of the mucous membranes of the oral cavity most commonly caused by the herpes simplex virus

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57
Q

what are the 7 host factors to prevent lower respiratory tract infections

A

1.) nasal hairs
2.) convoluted passages
3.) mucous linings
4.) cilia
5.) IgA secretions
6.) reflexes like coughing
7.) host flora

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58
Q

what are four microorganism factors that allow organisms to cause lower respiratory tract infections

A

1.) adherence
2.) toxin production
3.) growth in host tissue
4.) evasion of host response

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59
Q

define colonization

A

survival and growth on the host tissue

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60
Q

how does strep. pneumo adhere to tissue

A

production of a lipoteichoic acid adherence complexes

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61
Q

how do gram negative bacteria adhere to tissue

A

fimbriae

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62
Q

how do viruses adhere to tissue

A

production of hemagglutinin

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63
Q

staph. aureus produces which toxin

A

extracellular enzyme like coagulase

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64
Q

streptococci produces which toxin

A

hyaluronidase

65
Q

how does growth in host tissue allow an organism to cause disease

A

growth causes interference with tissue cell function

66
Q

what are the two ways organisms can evade host response

A

1.) thick polysaccharide capsule
2.) ability to multiply in host cells

67
Q

which organism is a good example of avoidance of host response

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis
gets phagocytosed and then multiplies once it gets into lymph nodes
eventually spills out of lymph nodes and spread

68
Q

what most commonly causes bronchitis and when does it most commonly occur

A

most bronchitis infections occurs secondary to the flu or common cold in the winter months

69
Q

what are the three main symptoms of acute bronchitis

A

1.) cough (croup - barking cough)
2.) fever
3.) sputum production

70
Q

which organism, bacterial or viral, most commonly causes bronchitis

A

viral

71
Q

which specimen is most commonly obtained to rule out bronchitis

A

nasopharyngeal specimens

72
Q

what are the three clinical characteristics of chronic bronchitis

A

1.) excessive mucous production
2.) 3 consecutive months
3.) acute flare ups

73
Q

who is most affected by bronchiolitis

A

those under two years old

74
Q

what are the 6 main symptoms of bronchiolitis

A

1.) acute presentation
2.) wheezing
3.) cough
4.) rhinorrhea
5.) tachypnea
6.) respiratory distress

75
Q

bronchiolitis is most commonly caused by which virus

A

respiratory syncytial virus

76
Q

when are you most likely to get bronchiolitis

A

winter to early spring

77
Q

how is bronchiolitis diagnosed

A

through nasal washes

78
Q

what are the two categories of pneumonia

A

1.) community acquired
2.) health care-associated

79
Q

what is the etiology of pneumonia in both adults and children

A

adults - bacterial
children - viral

80
Q

how are children tested for pneumonia

A

nasal washes

81
Q

which three bacterial organisms most commonly cause pneumonia in children 2 months to 5 years old

A

1.) haemophilus influenza
2.) strep. pneumo
3.) staph. aureus

82
Q

which two organisms most commonly cause pneumonia in neonates

A

1.) chlamydia trachomatis
2.) pneumocystis jiroveci

83
Q

which two organisms most commonly cause pneumonia in children 5 to 14 years old

A

1.) mycoplasma pneumoniae
2.) chlamydia pneumoniae

84
Q

what is the most common cause of pneumonia in your adults under the age of 30

A

mycoplasma

85
Q

what is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia in adults over the age of 30

A

strep. pneumo

86
Q

what is the most well known bacteria to cause chronic infections of the lower respiratory tract

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

87
Q

what is the main cause of cystic fibrosis

A

mutation in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator

88
Q

which organism is most commonly isolated in cystic fibrosis cases

A

pseudomonas

89
Q

what three things can cystic fibrosis predispose you to

A

1.) pancreas involvement
2.) sinus infections
3.) abscess formation

90
Q

how does mycobacterium tuberculosis cause lower respiratory tract infections

A

breakdown cell-mediated immune mechanisms of host (macrophages and masking foreign antigens)

this allows microbes to grow in the host without causing a large immune reaction

91
Q

what is the most common specimen submitted in the laboratory

A

sputum

92
Q

what are the two main types of sputum specimens sent to the lab

A

1.) expectorated sputum
2.) induced sputum

93
Q

what is expectorated sputum

A

sputum that is coughed out
not a good specimen cause it’s often contaminated

94
Q

what is induced sputum

A

sputum is stained through hitting the chest and draining the sputum

95
Q

what is a gastric aspirate submitted for

A

isolation of acid-fast bacilli

done for those like children who can’t produce sputum

96
Q

how are endotracheal or tracheostomy suction sputum specimens collected

A

using Luken’s trap method

97
Q

transtracheal aspirates are used to isolate what

A

actinomyces and anaerobes

98
Q

what do epithelial cells in a specimen indicate

A

oral contamination

99
Q

what does a gram stain provide the physician with

A

1.) quality of specimen
2.) possible cause of infection

100
Q

how are exogenous genital tract infections acquired

A

via sexual activity

101
Q

how are endogenous genital tract infections acquired

A

from organisms in the normal flora

102
Q

which organism most commonly causes vaginitis

A

candida albicans

103
Q

how is vaginitis caused by candida albicans treated

A

anti fungal

104
Q

how is vaginitis caused by Candida albicans detected

A

culture or molecular testing

105
Q

how is vaginitis caused by bacterial vaginosis detected

A

gram stain for clue cells

106
Q

what are two common symptoms of vaginitis caused by a trichomonas vaginalis infection

A

1.) frothy, green vaginal discharge with musty smell
2.) strawberry cervix

107
Q

how is vaginitis caused by trichomonas vaginalis detected

A

direct wet mounts of vaginal washings or molecular methods

108
Q

which three organisms commonly cause urethritis/cervicitis

A

1.) neisseria gonorrhoeae
2.) chlamydia trachomatis
3.) herpes simplex virus

109
Q

how is urethritis/cervicitis caused by chlamydia detected

A

EIA, fluorescent AB staining or PCR

110
Q

how is urethritis/cervicitis caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae detected

A

culture on selective medias (Thayer Martin)
PCR

111
Q

how is urethritis/cervicitis caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae detected in men specifically

A

gram stain - shows gram negative diplococci

112
Q

how is herpes diagnosed

A

PCR or viral cultures

113
Q

which two organisms most commonly cause proctitis

A

1.) neisseria gonorrhoeae
2.) chlamydia trachomatis

114
Q

which two organisms can cause bartholinitis

A

1.) neisseria gonorrhoeae
2.) chlamydia trachomatis
or those from normal flora

115
Q

which two organisms most commonly cause epididymitis

A

1.) neisseria gonorrhoeae
2.) chlamydia trachomatis

116
Q

which organism most commonly causes prostatitis

A

E. coli

117
Q

which organism most commonly causes orchitis

A

mumps

118
Q

what are some features of neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

1.) gram negative
2.) diplococci
3.) oxidase and glucose positive
4.) negative for sucrose-maltose-lactose
5.) needs 5% CO2
6.) doesn’t grow on maconkey
7.) colonies are sticky

119
Q

what are some features of gardenerella vaginalis

A

1.) gram variable
2.) rods
3.) pinpoint colonies
4.) hippurate positive

120
Q

how is gardenerella vaginalis detected

A

culture
DNA probes (AFFIRM)
PCR

121
Q

what are some features of candida albicans

A

1.) yeast
2.) doesn’t grow on maconkey
3.) colonies are white with feet
4.) gram positive with budding

122
Q

how is candida albicans detected

A

culture
DNA probe (AFFIRM)

123
Q

what are some features of trichomonas vaginalis

A

1.) parasite
2.) sexually transmitted

124
Q

how is trichomonas vaginalis detected

A

washes
DNA probe (AFFIRM)
PCR

125
Q

what is chancroid

A

sexually transmitted disease characterized by genital ulcerations and inflammatory inguinal adenopathy

126
Q

which organism causes chancroid

A

haemophilus ducreyi

127
Q

which two things can help diagnose chancroid

A

1.) negative for treponema pallidum infection
2.) ulcers that don’t look like HSV

128
Q

what are the four stages of syphilis

A

1.) primary
2.) secondary
3.) early latent
4.) tertiary or neurosyphilis

129
Q

explain the primary stage of syphilis

A

first stage
one or more ulcerative lesions
spirochetes detected on dark field microscopy

130
Q

which organism causes syphilis

A

treponema pallidum

131
Q

explain the secondary stage of syphilis

A

second stage
diffuse lesions with lymphadenopathy
spirochetes detected on dark field microscopy
positive serology test

132
Q

explain the early latent stage of syphilis

A

third stage
persistence of infection without symptoms in the last 12 months

133
Q

explain the late latent stage of syphilis

A

fourth stage
persistence of infection without symptoms in the last 12 months

134
Q

what is seen on tzanck smears for HSV-2

A

giant multinucleated cells

135
Q

what is granuloma inguinale

A

ulcerative disease of skin and lymphatics of general area

136
Q

which organism causes granuloma inguinale

A

calymmatobacterium (klebsiella) granulomatis

137
Q

how is granuloma inguinale diagnosed

A

through Donovan bodies in giemsa or wright stained smears

138
Q

Donovan bodies are seen in which condition

A

granuloma inguinale

139
Q

what is lymphogranuloma venereum

A

infection of chlamydia trachomatis that causes genital lesions and lymphadenopathy

140
Q

how is lymphogranuloma venereum diagnosed

A

through inclusion bodies within leukocytes seen in IF

141
Q

what are two things needed for a mucopurulent cervicitis diagnosis

A

1.) mucopurulent secretion
2.) induced endocervical bleeding

142
Q

what is pthirus pubis

A

organism known as crab lice that affects adults

143
Q

what are the three characteristics of a bioweapon

A

1.) the biological agent or toxin
2.) method of retaining the variability of the bacteria-virus-toxin
3.) a delivery system that disperses the agent or toxin

144
Q

what are 5 ideal qualities for a biologic terrorist agent

A

1.) high attack rate
2.) high case fatality rate
3.) easily transmitted between persons
4.) no effective treatment available
5.) difficult to diagnose

145
Q

what is category A of bioterrorism agents

A

high priority organisms or toxins that pose the highest risk to the public and national security

146
Q

what are two examples of category A of bioterrorism agents

A

1.) bacillus anthracis
2.) yersinia pestis (plague)

147
Q

what is category B of bioterrorism agents

A

agents that are the second highest priority

148
Q

what are two examples of category B bioterrorism agents

A

1.) brucella
2.) salmonella

149
Q

what is category C of bioterrorism agents

A

emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass spread in the future - third highest priority

150
Q

what are two examples of category C bioterrorism agents

A

1.) SARS coronavirus
2.) multi-resistant mycobacterium tuberculosis

151
Q

what are 5 epidemiological clues we look for that make us suspect a bioterrorism event

A

1.) large outbreak with a high infection and death rate
2.) single case of uncommon disease
3.) unusual symptoms
4.) infection in an abnormal geographical location
5.) unusual seasonal distribution

152
Q

what are some phenotypic features of anthrax

A

1.) gram positive rods in long chains - non-motile
2.) spore forming
3.) grows on AP but not maconkey
4.) ground glass appearance
5.) catalase positive, non-hemolytic

153
Q

which organism causes the primary disease of herbivores which are infected by ingesting spores in soil

A

anthrax

154
Q

how is anthrax transmitted

A

naturally through human contact with infection animals

155
Q

what are the three forms of anthrax

A

1.) cutaneous
2.) inhalation
3.) gastrointestinal

156
Q

how is smallpox spread

A

via respiratory droplets or aerosols expelled from the oropharynx

157
Q

what are some phenotypic characteristics of yersinia pestis (plague)

A

1.) gram negative rod - non-motile
2.) gray-white and translucent colonies on BAP and chocolate agar
3.) stains bi-polar on Giemsa
4.) catalase positive, oxidase-urea-indole negative
5.) grows in a stalactite matter in broth

158
Q

how is yersinia pestis (plague) transmitted

A

flea bites or handling infected animals like Prairie dogs

159
Q

what are the three types of the plague

A

1.) bubonic
2.) septicemic
3.) pneumonic

Pathogenic Microbiology (3 decks)

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