Exam 3 Review Questions Flashcards by Adam Sklamberg

Which of the following statements is true?

The liver has a low blood flow and a high vascular resistance
The liver has a low blood flow and a low vascular resistance
The liver has a high blood flow and high vascular resistance
The liver has a high blood flow and a low vascular resistance

The liver has a high blood flow and a low vascular resistance

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Which of the following would not be a function of the liver?

Gluconeogenesis
Formation of Urea
Synthesis of Prothrombin
Synthesis of Calbindin

Synthesis of Calbindin

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Which of the following is not characteristic of the metabolic syndrome associated with diabetes?

Peripheral Neuropathy
Obesity
Fasting Hyperglycemia
Hypertension

Peripheral Neuropathy

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Heme is released from damaged RBCs and split into globin and heme by macrophages. Heme is then converted into which of the following by heme oxygenase?

Cholic Acid
Biliverdin
Bilirubin
Urobilinogen

Biliverdin

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A higher than normal back pressure in hepatic veins may lead to the following conditions.

Jaundice
Cirrhosis
Ascites
Diabetes

Ascites

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Which of the following best represents the most important function of insulin in the body?

Activates phosphorylase and phosphatase necessary for the uptake of glucose by the liver
Controls from moment to moment whether fat or carbohydrate will be used by cells for energy
Activates lipoprotein lipase to split triglycerides into fatty acids
Activates the ornithine transport mechanism

Controls from moment to moment whether fat or carbohydrate will be used by cells for energy

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In the pituitary gland, somatotropes (acidophils) secrete which of the following trophic hormones?

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
Human Growth Factor
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
Luteinizing Hormone

Human Growth Factor

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The hormone response element is best characterized by which of the following?

An intracellular protein that binds to a lipid soluble hormone to form the hormone-receptor complex
A regulatory sequence of DNA
Phosphatidylinositol bisphosphate component of a second-messenger system
A tyrosine-binding protein for thyroxine

A regulatory sequence of DNA

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Some signal transduction mechanisms involve calcium. In these pathways a change in membrane potential opens calcium channels. Calcium ions enter the cell and bind to which of the following?

Janus Kinase
The receptor component of a G protein
Calmodulin
Diacylglycerol

Calmodulin

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Down regulation of receptors may occur as a result of which of the following:

Inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules
Activation of some of the receptor molecules
Increased production of receptors
Increase in the target cell’s responsiveness to the hormone

Inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules

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One of the best known stimuli for increasing the rate of thyroid releasing hormone secretion is…?

Cold
Anxiety
cAMP
Excitement

Cold

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Which of the following is a common cause of hyperthyroidism?

Hashimoto Disease
Grave’s Disease
Endemic Goiter
Cretinism

Grave’s Disease

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The basal membranes of thyroid cells contain symporters for iodide. What ion is co-transported with iodine by these symporters?

Sodium
Potassium
Chloride
Hydrogen

Sodium

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The major hormonal product of the thyroid gland is thyroxine. How many iodinated tyrosine residues are found in thyroxine?

One
Two
Three
Four

Four

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Pendrin is used for which of the following functions?

As a sodium-iodide symporter in the basal membrane of a thyroid follicle cell
As a hepatic-derived conjugating protein for the transport of thyroxine in the blood
As a chloride-iodide counter-transport in the apical membrane of a thyroid follicle cell
As a decoupling protein used to separate iodide from thyroglobulin during the recycling of thyroxine

As a chloride-iodide counter-transport in the apical membrane of a thyroid follicle cell

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Osteoclasts do not have receptors for parathyroid hormone; instead they respond to secondary signals from osteocytes which do have the receptors. Which of the following is important as a major secondary signal ligand in this communication process?

Osteoprotegerin
Pendrin
Calmodulin
Calbindin

Osteoprotegrin

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Hyperkalemia, mild acidosis, rise in RBC concentration, loss of ability to maintain normal blood glucose concentrations between meals, and changes in pigmentation pattern are all consistent with which of the following conditions? (Don’t assume exact same question will appear on test, think about variation could we have on the test) (Use as examples of what you will see on the test, but not word for word)

Cushing’s
Hypothyroidism
Addison’s
Hyperparathyroidism

Addison’s

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Which of the following is/are functions of glucocorticoids? (Think about which is not a function)

Stimulation of gluconeogenesis
Decreased glucose utilization by cells
Resists inflammation
Resists stress
All the above are functions of glucocorticoids

All the above are functions of glucocorticoids

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Aldosterone is the major mineralocorticoid and is secreted by which of the following regions of the adrenal cortex?

Zona Glomerulosa
Zona Fasciculata
Zona Reticularis
Zona Medullaris

Zona Glomerulosa

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Cortisol secretion is controlled mainly by which of the following factors?

Plasma potassium concentration
Angiotensinogen II
Plasma sodium concentration
ACTH

ACTH

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Which of the following resists stress, resists inflammation and stimulates gluconeogenesis but may lead to “adrenal diabetes?”

Aldosterone
Cortisol
Angiotensin II
Pregnenolone

Cortisol

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Which of the following is not a characteristic of lack of aldosterone?

Reduction in blood volume
Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia
Reduction in blood pressure

Hypernatremia

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“Adrenal Diabetes” may occur due to excess of which of the following?

Aldosterone
Mineralocorticoids
Glucocorticoids
Androgenic Hormones

Glucocorticoids

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Addison’s Disease is due to a deficiency of which of the following?

Glucocorticoids
Mineralocorticoids
Androgenic Hormones
Both A and B

Glucocorticoids

Mineralocorticoids

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Which of the following characteristics of Addison’s Disease is due to a glucocorticoid deficiency? Muscle Weakness Decrease in cardiac output Rise in RBC concentration Mild Acidosis

Muscle Weakness

The major glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex is…? Aldosterone Estrogen Cortisol DHEA

Cortisol

Spironolactone blocks mineralocorticoid receptors. This would probably have which of the following effects? Hypernatremia Increase in extracellular fluid volume Reduction in cardiac output Anemia

Reduction in cardiac output

Moon face, “buffalo torso,” hypertension and increased blood glucose are characteristics of which of the following? Addison’s Disease Cushing’s Disease Cretinism Grave’s Disease

Cushing’s Disease

The active form of Vitamin D promotes the intestinal uptake of calcium by increasing the formation of which of the following substances? Apoprotein B Calbindin Albumin Calciferol

Calbindin

Hypocalcemia usually becomes lethal at which of the following levels? 12 mg/dl 9.5 mg/dl 6 mg/dl 4 mg/dl

4 mg/dl

Normally the body takes in about 1000 mg of calcium per day orally. How much of this is lost in the feces per day? 350 mg 750 mg 900 mg 990 mg

900 mg

Parathyroid Hormone has which of the following effects on renal tubules? PTH promotes the reabsorption of potassium PTH promotes the reabsorption of calcium PTH promotes the reabsorption of sodium PTH promotes the reabsorption of potassium, calcium and sodium

PTH promotes the reabsorption of calcium

The conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-hydroxycholecalciferol in which of the following? Bone Liver Blood Kidney

Kidney

Death due to hypoparathyroidism is often due to which of the following effects? Massive losses of calcium from the skeletal system Excessive reabsorption of sodium followed by tetany Laryngeal muscle spasms Vitamin D Deficiency

Laryngeal muscle spasms

Approximately 40% of plasma calcium is bound to plasma proteins and is not filtered by the kidneys. What effect does acidosis have on plasma calcium ion concentration (unbound)? There is an increase in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration decreases There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases There is an increase in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration decreases

There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentration increases

Which of the following nerves supplies parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland? Facial Nerve Trigeminal Nerve Glossopharyngeal Nerve Vagus Nerve

Glossopharyngeal Nerve

Which of the following conditions describes the effects of the ANS on sweat glands in the hands and feet? Parasympathetic; cholinergic Parasympathetic; adrenergic Sympathetic; cholinergic Sympathetic; adrenergic

Sympathetic; cholinergic

Which of the following acts as an antihypertensive agent by being uptaken by adrenergic neurons and replacing norepinephrine in the synaptic vesicles? Methoxamine Albuterol Guanethidine Phenoxybenzadine

Guanethidine

The greater splanchnic nerve originates from spinal cord levels T5-T9. Which of the following statements concerning the nerve is correct? It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the superior mesenteric ganglion It is composed of postganglionic fibers and terminates within the wall of the gut tube It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the celiac ganglion It is composed of preganglionic fibers and synapses in the superior mesenteric ganglion

It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the celiac ganglion

Beta-3 Receptors are involved in which of the following functions? Adrenergic, Thermogenesis Adrenergic, Glycogenolysis Adrenergic, Cardiac Acceleration Adrenergic, Vasoconstriction

Adrenergic, Thermogenesis

Norepinephrine is synthesized from which of the following? Glycine Tyrosine Threonine Alanine

Tyrosine- Thyroxine is also synthesized from tyrosine

Which of the following responses would not be part of the alarm response? Increased arterial pressure Increased glycogenesis Increased blood glucose concentration Increased mental activity

Increased glycogenesis

Norepinephrine/epinephrine secreted into tissues remains active for only a few seconds. Norepinephrine/Epinephrine secreted into blood remains active longer. Which of the following explains the reason for these differences? The neurotransmitters are immediately uptaken in the tissues Monoamine-oxidase destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues COMT destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues The neurotransmitters immediately diffuse away from the site when secreted into the tissues

COMT destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues

Which of the following is an effect of the sympathetic nervous system? Relaxation of GI tract sphincters Strong stimulation of glands of upper GI tract Pupil Constriction Strong Stimulation of sweat glands

Strong Stimulation of sweat glands

Which of the following types of receptors are found at the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle cells? Nicotinic Muscarinic Alpha-1 Beta-1

Nicotinic

About 75% of all parasympathetic fibers are located in which of the following locations. Trigeminal nerve Vagus nerve Lesser splanchnic nerve Greater Splanchnic Nerve

Vagus nerve

Which of the following ANS fibers pass through the gray rami? Preganglionic sympathetic fibers Postganglionic sympathetic fibers Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers

Postganglionic sympathetic fibers

Which of the following characterize postganglionic neurons in the ANS? The are myelinated; cell bodies are located in the CNS; they all use acetylcholine They are myelinated; cell bodies are located in the PNS; they all use norepinephrine Cell bodies are located in the PNS, they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine Cell bodies are located in the CNS; they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine

Cell bodies are located in the PNS, they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine

Which of the following has antihypertensive actions as a result of its ability to deplete norepinephrine and other monoamine neurotransmitters by blocking its synthesis and storage from peripheral sympathetic nerve endings? Methoxamine Reserpine Hexamethonium Isoproteronal

Reserpine

Postganglionic fibers associated with which of the following cranial nerves provide parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular glands? Occulomotor nerve Trigeminal nerve Facial nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve

Facial nerve

Which of the following hormones exerts an interstitial cell-stimulating effect on testes of male fetus, resulting in the production of testosterone until birth? Estrogen Progesterone Human Chorionic Gonadotropin Human Somatomammotropin

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

Fructose, which provides energy for sperm, is secreted by which of the following? Seminal Vesicles Prostate Gland Cells of Leydig Sertoli Cells

Seminal Vesicles

Inhibin inhibits secretion of FSH by the anterior pituitary and is secreted by which of the following: Seminal Vesicles Prostate Gland Cells of Leydig Sertoli Cells

Sertoli Cells

Plasma testosterone levels in the newborn male are due to which of the following? Seminal Vesicles Prostate Gland Cells of Leydig Sertoli Cells

Cells of Leydig

In the progression from primordial germ cells to mature sperm cells, which of the following would be the first cells to have a haploid genome? Primary spermatocytes Secondary spermatocytes Spermatids Mature Sperm cells

Secondary spermatocytes

In order to gain motility, sperm cells must be stored in which of the following for at least 18-24 hours? Seminal vesicles Prostate Gland Epididymis Rete Testis

Epididymis

Approximately 60% of the total volume of semen is derived from which of the following sources? Bulbourethral Glands Epididymis Prostate Gland Seminal Vesicles

Seminal Vesicles

In males, gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulates mostly the release of which of the following gonadotropic hormones? LH FSH Estrogen Testosterone

During spermatogenesis residual bodies are eliminated. Residual bodies consist of which of the following components? Excess cytoplasm, RER, Golgi Excess cytoplasm, RER, Mitochondria Excess cytoplasm, RER, Centrioles Excess cytoplasm, RER, nuclear membrane

Excess cytoplasm, RER, Golgi

Interstitial Cells of Leydig are almost non-existent in the testes during which of the following stages? At Birth Early childhood After Puberty Adulthood

Early childhood

Testosterone that is not fixed in tissues is converted into other compounds and conjugated to be excreted in the gut or urine. The initial conversion to other compounds occurs in which of the following structures? Epididymis Liver Spleen Gallbladder

Liver

Shortly after birth in the ovaries of the human female, all the germ cells in the ovaries are in which of the following developmental stages? Metaphase Stage of Meiosis II First Polar Body Stage Granulosa Cell Stage Diplotene Stage of Meiosis I

Diplotene Stage of Meiosis I

The oocyte maturation-inhibiting factor that keeps ovum suspended in its primordial state prior to puberty is secreted by which of the following? Anterior Pituitary Hypothalamus Granulosa Cells Corpus Luteum

Granulosa cells

During the menstrual cycle, the early growth of a follicle is primarily stimulated by which of the following? LH FSH Estrogen Progesterone

FSH

Pregnenolone is an intermediate in the synthesis of progesterone from cholesterol. It is synthesized in which of the following? Granulosa Cells Only Granulosa and Theca Cells Theca Cells Only None of the above

Granulosa and Theca Cells

Which of the following hormones would be predominate at about day 22 of the human female sexual cycle? LH FSH Estrogen Progesterone

Progesterone

Hyaluronidase released from the sperm acrosome is necessary to breach which of the following barriers? The Corona Radiata The Zona Pellucida The Egg Plasmalemma The Thecal Cells

The Corona Radiata

Fertilization occurs in the upper third of the fallopian tube. By the time the blastocyst reaches the uterus, it consists of approximately how many cells? 11 48 100 1,000

100

During pregnancy, the progesterone needed to maintain the developing fetus is secreted primarily by which of the following? Thecal Cells Uterine Endometrium Corpus Albicans Corpus Luteum

Corpus Luteum

All nutrients for the developing embryo during the first week following implantation are supplied by which of the following? Syncytiotrophoblast Cells Corpus Luteum Cytotrophoblast Cells Decidual Cells

Decidual Cells

Which of the following values (mm Hg) represents the mean diffusion gradient pressure between the PO2 of the mother and the PO2 of the fetus? 10 20 30 40

As a result of the Bohr effect there is an increase in the capacity of the fetal blood to combine with oxygen and a decrease in the capacity of the maternal blood to combine with oxygen. This is mostly due to which of the following? The mother’s blood becomes more alkaline The mother’s blood becomes more acidic The fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than the maternal blood The fetal blood has a higher hemoglobin concentration

The mother’s blood becomes more acidic

In females, a sharp rise in gonadotropins to almost 60 times that at birth occurs during which of the following periods? Menopause Just prior to each ovulation phase Puberty Old Age

Menopause

In the ovarian follicle, both thecal cells and granulosa cells possess receptors for LH and LDL. Which of the following statements BEST characterizes the secretory activities of these cells? Both thecal and granulosa cells secrete estrogen but not androgens Thecal cells and granulosa cells both secrete androgens and estrogens Thecal cells secrete androgens and granulosa cells secrete estrogen Thecal cells secrete estrogens and granulosa cells secrete androgens

Thecal cells secrete androgens and granulosa cells secrete estrogen

In females, inhibin has a negative feedback effect on both the anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus. It is secreted by which of the following types of cells? Granulosa Cells Internal Thecal Cells External Thecal Cells Primary Oocytes

Granulosa Cells

At the time of fertilization, the oocyte has reached which of the following stages of development? Prophase I of meiosis with no polar bodies Metaphase II of meiosis with one polar body Prophase II of Meiosis with no polar bodies It has completed meiosis and has two polar bodies

Metaphase II of meiosis with one polar body

Which of the following is responsible for gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi resulting in the release of bile from the gallbladder? Gastrin Secretin CCK Motilin

CCK

Hemoglobin is released from damaged RBCs and split into globin and heme by macrophages. Heme is then converted into which of the following by heme oxygenase? Cholic acid Biliverdin Bilirubin Urobilinogen

Biliverdin

Ascites may result from which of the following? Constriction of hepatic artery Blockage of the portal vein Higher than normal pressure in hepatic veins Constriction of the celiac trunk

Higher than normal pressure in hepatic veins

Kupffer cells are found in which of the following spaces? Space of disse Hepatic sinusoids Bile canaliculi Space of wirsung

Hepatic Sinusoids

Which of the following prevents the pancreas from digesting itself? Chymotrypsin inhibitor Trypsin inhibitor Phospholipase Pancreatic Amylase

Trypsin Inhibitor

Which of the following characterizes pancreatic secretions under low flow rates? Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride ions Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and bicarbonate ions Hypotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride ions Hypotonic, composed mostly of sodium and bicarbonate ions

Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride ions

Which of the following orient themselves on the outside of micelles? Cholesterol Free fatty acids Carbohydrates Bile Salts

Bile Salts

Which of the following levels of blood constituents would NOT be observed in a diabetic coma? Low blood glucose Low keto acids High bicarbonate ion Low cholesterol

High bicarbonate ion

Which of the following statements is TRUE? The liver has a low blood flow and a high vascular resistance The liver has a low blood flow and a low vascular resistance The liver has a high blood flow and a high vascular resistance The liver has high blood flow and a low vascular resistance

The liver has high blood flow and a low vascular resistance

Flexed arms and legs that resist extension would result in which of the following on the apgar test? A score of 0 A score of 1 A score of 2 Not measured on apgar test

A score of 2

Which of the following vitamins is needed by the fetus to create normal clotting factors? A C E K

Fetal blood from the right ventricle going to the descending aorta is pumped through which opening? Foramen ovale Ductus arteriosus Ductus venosus Foramen soventus

Ductus arteriosus

For the first three to four days after birth, the neonate relies on what energy source? Glucose from mother’s milk Fat from mother’s milk Stored Glucose Stored protein and fat

Stored protein and fat

Excessive variations in blood gasses normally seen in neonates is typically due to which of the following? Residual fluid in the lungs Under-developed central nervous systems respiratory center High heart rate Frequent periods of apnea

Frequent periods of apnea

If there is a mutation in the growth hormone receptor and growth hormone is unable to bind to liver cells, what would the outcome be? Low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure High levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C), expression, growth failure Low levels of IGF-1 (Somatomedin C) expression, no effect on growth Low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, accelerated growth

Low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure

ADH is primarily formed in which of the following locations? Supraoptic nuclei Acidophils of adenohypophysis Paraventricular nuclei Basophils of adenohypophysis

Supraoptic nuclei

Growth hormone adenoma that develop in adulthood can result in what condition? Gigantism Dwarfism Acromegaly None of these

Acromegaly

The facial nerve is responsible for which of the following? Motor Control of the Muscles of the Eyes Motor Control of the Heart Motor Control of the muscles of facial expression Taste in the posterior third of the tongue

Motor Control of the muscles of facial expression

The ciliary ganglion is an extension of which cranial nerve? III VII IX X

III

The cranial nerve is responsible for taste on the posterior portion of the tongue? III V VII IX

Which of the following nerves supplies PNS innervation to the parotid gland? Facial Nerve Trigeminal Nerve Glossopharyngeal nerve Vagus nerve

Glossopharyngeal nerve

Postganglionic fibers associated with which of the following cranial nerves provides parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular glands? Oculomotor Nerve Trigeminal Nerve Facial Nerve Glossopharyngeal Nerve

Facial Nerve

In the early stages of development, the trophoblast will give rise to which of the following structures? Amnion and placenta only Amnion, embryo, and yolk sac only Placenta only Placenta and yolk sac only

Placenta only

Which of the following descriptions best describes the relation between maternal blood and fetal blood? Maternal blood and fetal blood freely intermingle within the trophoblastic lacunae Fetal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but maternal blood remains confined within maternal vessels Both maternal blood and fetal blood remain confined within their respective vessels during pregnancy Maternal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but fetal blood remains confined within fetal vessels

Maternal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but fetal blood remains confined within fetal vessels

Which of the following substances move across the placental membranes via facilitated diffusion? Creatinine Urea Fats Glucose

Glucose

During pregnancy, syncytiotrophoblast cells secrete estrogens. These estrogens are derived from androgens secreted by which of the following sources? Granulosa Cells Cytotrophoblast Cells Maternal adrenal cortex Maternal and fetal adrenal cortices

Maternal and fetal adrenal cortices

Prolactin promotes milk secretion. It has full effects on milk secretion after birth due to which of the following physiological reasons? The Corpus Luteum produces an extra surge of estrogen Levels of oxytocin have increased considerably Progesterone and estrogen effects of placenta have been eliminated Human chorionic gonadotropin levels increase considerably after birth

Progesterone and estrogen effects of placenta have been eliminated

A sharp surge in which of the following hormones preceded ovulation by about 24 hours? LH FSH Estrogen Progesterone

During the early stages of pregnancy, involution (degeneration) of the corpus luteum is prevented by which of the following hormones? Estrogen Progesterone Human chorionic gonadotropin Human Somatomammotropin

Human chorionic gonadotropin