Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OB Exam 3 > Exam 3 review > Flashcards

Exam 3 review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four types of heat loss?

A
  1. Radiation
  2. Conduction
  3. Convection
  4. Evaporation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is radiation heat loss?

A

Heat loss due to heat transfer to cooler surfaces and objects not directly in contact with the body. Think heat lamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is conduction heat loss?

A

Loss of heat to a cooler surface directly from skin contact.
Baby on moms chest warms; baby on cold table or bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is convection heat loss?

A

Loss of heat from the warm body to the air (think wind/ac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is evaporation heat loss?

A

Loss of heat when water on the skin is converted to a vapor.
Think wet baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3 physiologic adaptations of fetal circulation?

A
  1. Foramen ovale
  2. Ductus arteriosus
  3. Ductus venosus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the #1 nursing priority in regards to the infant immediately after birth?

A

WARM, dry, stimulate; suction airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A premature infant is classified as an infant born before ___ weeks.

A

37 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is circulation assessed in a newborn?

A

pulse ox/palpate femoral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where is the pulse ox placed?

A

Right upper extremity; palm of hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a complication of supplying oxygen to premature infants?

A

retinopathy and prematurity of lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The umbilical vein carries ______ blood to the baby in utero.

A

Oxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The umbilical arteries carry _____ blood to the placenta in utero.

A

Deoxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

SGA (small for gestational age) is

A

An infant that is less than 10% of the birth weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Maternal risk factors for SGA (8)

A
  • malnutrition
  • HTN
  • smoking
  • substance abuse
  • DM
  • cardiac/renal abnormalities
  • young maternal age
  • hx of small babies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SGA infant complications (4)

A
  • Congenital aspiration syndrome (meconium)
  • Hypoxia
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Polycythemia (too many RBCs increased rx for clots)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

LGA (Large for gestational age) is

A

A baby born above 90th percentile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Maternal Rx factors for LGA (3)

A
  • DM
  • Obesity
  • hx of big babies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

LGA infant complications (6)

A 
- birth trauma from vag:
clavicle fracture depressed skull fracture
cephalohematoma
- fetal distress
- hypoglycemia
- hypocalcemia
- prolonged labor
- hyperbillirubemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

IUGR (intrauterine growth restriction) is

A

Advanced gestation with limited fetal growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maternal Rx factors for IUGR (7)

A
  • multiples
  • smoking
  • old
  • poor nutrition
  • substance abuse
  • poor prenatal care
  • HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

IUGR infant complications (8)

A
  • meconium aspiration
  • hypoxia
  • hypoglycemia
  • increased rx for infection
  • cerebral palsy
  • still born
  • poor temp control
  • motor/neuro disabilities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Contraindications for breastfeeding (4)

A
  • HIV/aids
  • illicit drug/alcohol use
  • TB
  • Galactosemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does an infant receive IgG (given)

A

Passive immunity; passed through fetus via placenta; received last four weeks of pregnancy; premes dont get this and are at increased rx of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does an infant receive IgA (acquired)

A

Passive immunity; acquired through breastfeeding-colostrum; protects infants intestinal mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does an infant receive IgM (made by me/fetus)

A

Active immunity; cant pass through placenta

Produced by fetus during 10-15wks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is PPH?

A

The loss of 500ml of blood vaginally or the loss of 1000ml csec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

PPH Rx factors (7)

A
  • HTN
  • Placenta abruption/previa
  • infection
  • prolonged labor
  • multips (multiple pregnancies=stretched uterus)
  • bladder distention
  • lrg baby
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

PPH interventions/tx (8)

A
  • RUB FUNDUS
  • remove fragments/clots
  • uterine tamponade; balloon
  • oxytocin
  • hemabate
  • lay pt flat
  • trendelenburg
  • check peripads frequently
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a cervical laceration?

A

The tearing of the vagina during delivery/epis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cervial lac rx factors (6)

A
  • forceps
  • vaccum
  • multiparous
  • lrg baby
  • oxytocin; speeds up labor
  • vag delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cervical lac interventions/tx (2)

A

-surgical repair
-sitz bath/self care
PREVENT INFECTION BIH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is mastitis

A

Inflam./infection of breast tissue

MOST COMMONLY CAUSED BY STAPH/STREP; a break in the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Mastitis s/s (6)

A
  • pain
  • chills
  • fever
  • malaise
  • hard, warm, tender upper quadrant
  • tachycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Mastitis rx factors (5)

A
  • poor hand washing/hygiene
  • unsupportive bra
  • milk stasis
  • poor latching/positioning
  • poor feeding schedule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Mastitis interventions/Tx (6)

A

“Heat rest, empty breast)

  • antibiotics
  • good breast support/bra
  • local heat
  • analgesics
  • improved hand washing/hygiene
  • breastfeed/nipple care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

H(hemolysis, which is the breaking down of red blood cells)
EL(elevated liver enzymes)
LP(low platelet count)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

HELLP s/s (5)

A
  • elevated liver enzymes
  • low plt count
  • flulike symptoms
  • epigastric pain
  • hemolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

HELLP rx factors (2)

A
  • severe preeclampsia

- HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

HELLP syndrome interventions/tx (3 drugs)

A

IV dexamethasone/betamethasone/mag sulf.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a puerperal infection?

s/s (5)

A

Infections in the uterus during or after pregnancy; common postpartum affecting vagina or cervix

  • foul smell
  • abnormal discharge
  • epigastric/vaginal pain
  • fever
  • subinvolution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Puerperal infection rx factors (4)

A
  • DM
  • prolonged labor
  • PROM
  • invasive procedures; fetal scalp electrode, foley, amniocentesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Puerperal infection inteventions/tx (3)

A
  • antibiotics
  • rest
  • continue to breastfeed
    (nothing in vag)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is PIH?

A

pregnancy induced HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

PIH s/s (6)

A
  • HTN
  • proteinuria
  • periorbital edema
  • decreased urine output
  • visual chngs
  • HELLP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

PIH rx factors (7)

A
  • chronic HTN
  • DM
  • kidney disease
  • hx of preeclampsia
  • multiples
  • primipara
  • obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

PIH interventions/tx (3)

A
  • Treat HTN
  • prenatal care
  • seizure precautions
    truly fixed w delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is RDS? & two subtypes

A

Respiratory distress in newborn
TTN: transient tachypnea of newborn (fluid in lungs doesnt go away)
Meconium aspiration syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

RDS s/s (4)

A
  • nasal flaring
  • SOB
  • tachypnea
  • grunting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

RDS rx factors (2)

A
  • prematurity (surfactant underdeveloped)

- csection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

RDS interventions (for baby) (5)

A
  • O2 via nc, oxyhood, cpap
  • suction
  • surfactant
  • betamethasone if still in utero
  • ABGs,VBGs,CBGs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

PPH s/s (4ts)

A

Tone: uterine tone
Trauma: lacerations and uterine rupture
Thromboplastin: bleeding disorders
Tissue: retained tissue/placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Meds not compatible w breastfeeding

A

Methotrexate/cancer drugs, antimetabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is pyelonephritis?

A

untreated UTI that travels up to kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Pyelonephritis s/s (6)

A
  • chills
  • high fever
  • flank pain
  • N/V
  • dec. urine output
  • dehydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Pyelonephritis rx factors(4)

A
  • urinary blockage
  • catheter
  • UTI
  • poor hygiene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Pyelonephritis tx (2)

A

IV antibiotics

fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is thrombophlebitis?

A

blood clot within the vein usually in legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

thrombophlebitis s/s (4)

A
  • warm skin
  • tenderness
  • red skin
  • calf pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When does thrombophlebitis most commonly occur?

A

1st 6 weeks postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

thrombophlebitis rx (7)

A
  • obesity
  • smoking
  • HTN
  • varicose veins
  • DM
  • bedrest
  • csec
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Thrombophlebitis tx (4)

A
  • heat
  • NSAIDS/blood thinners
  • exercise
  • compression stockings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the two types of jaundice/hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Physiologic & pathologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

when does physiologic jaundice occur?

A

Occurs AFTER 24hrs of birth; usually ok- infant presents normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

when does pathologic jaundice occur?

A

Occurs WITHIN 24hrs of birth; could indicate underlying disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How does pathologic jaundice present>

A

Newborn looks sick!

flulike symptoms, anemic, yellow skin, dark urine, pale stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Hyperbillirubinemia/jaundice rx factors (5)

A
  • hematoma
  • breastfed baby
  • preme
  • delayed cord clamping
  • incompatible blood typing: Rh - mom Rh + baby, O- mom
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Hyperbillirubinemia tx (4)

A
  • phototherapy
  • provide adequate nutrition
  • increase fluids
  • blood transfusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is cold stress?

A

Illness from the cold; infant cannot maintain body temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cold stress s/s (5)

A
  • shivering stops
  • hypoglycemia
  • vasoconstriction
  • limp
  • lethargic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Cold stress rx factors (6)

A
  • HTN
  • DM
  • cold environment
  • IUGR
  • Preme
  • SGA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Cold stress tx (4)

A
  • warm body; blanket, hat, skin to skin
  • mo rectal temp
  • mo bs
  • O2 prn
    SLOWLY REWARM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is neonatal hypoglycemia?

A

Glucose less than 40

we want 50-150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Neonatal hypoglycemia s/s (7)

A
  • SHAKING
  • pale skin
  • apnea
  • poor feeding
  • poor body tone
  • seizures
  • lethargy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Neonatal hypoglycemia rx factors

A
  • SGA
  • IUGR
  • Preme
  • LGA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Neonatal hypoglycemia tx

A
  • feed regularly
  • IM glucagon
  • IV dextrose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is neonatal sepsis?

A

infection of neonate blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Neonatal sepsis s/s (8)

A
  • decrease in wbc
  • poor temp control; decreased temp
  • poor glycemic control
  • tachy or brady
  • mottled skin
  • poor feeding; abdominal distention
  • bleeding probs
  • inconsolibility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Neonatal sepsis rx factors (2)

A
  • preme

- maternal UTI/STI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Neonatal sepsis tx

A

IV antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Ortoloni’s maneuver

A

tests for congenital hip dysplasia; manual procedure performed to rule out the possibility of developmental dysplastic hip; flex hips and knees 90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is a Pavlik harness?

A

used to fix congenital hip dysplasia; put the infant in this for 23 1/2hrs a day until resolved to align the hips and joints; keeps hip at 90 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is Gastrochisis

A

birth defect of the belly wall. Intestines are found outside the body.

84
Q

what is a cephalohematoma?

A

rupture of capillaries during birth causes collection of blood on head; DOES NOT CROSS SUTURE LINES; increased rx for jaundice

85
Q

what is Caput succadeum?

A

swelling or edema occurring in or under he fetal scalp during labor; DOES CROSS SUTURE LINES

86
Q

What is reflex irritability?

A

This is the grimace response to stimuli

87
Q

what is the Dubowitz exam?

A

physical/neuromuscular exam to assess for problems

88
Q

What is taking in?

A

Mother is thinking about her needs and being dependent on the help of others

89
Q

What is taking hold?

A

Mom is ready to take hold of the situation and care for her baby

90
Q

What is transient tachypnea of the newborn

A

respiratory distress seen after delivery caused by fluid due to impaired clearance

91
Q

3rd degree laceration

A

laceration extends through perineal skin

92
Q

4th degree laceration

A

laceration extends through rectal sphincter

93
Q

What is subinvolution?

A

failure of a part to return to its normal size after functional enlargement, such as failure of the uterus to return to normal size after pregnancy

94
Q

What is endometritis?

A

infection of the endometrium/inner lining of uterus

95
Q

what are the 3 newborn screening tests?

A
  1. CHD
  2. Newborn screen (metabolic)
  3. Hearing
96
Q

What is the CHD screening for?

A

screens for congenital heart defects; tetralogy of fallow & coarctation of the aorta

97
Q

What is the newborn metabolic screening for?

A
  • PKU
  • Maple syrup urine disease
  • hypothyridism
  • CF
  • galactosemia
98
Q

What is a circumcision and why would the parents choose or decline?

A

Removal of an epithelial layer from the glans penis. May be done for religious reasons, or to be similar to the father; can reduce UTIS

99
Q

circumcision complications

A
  • infection
  • obstruction
  • hemorrhage
100
Q

what are the methods of circumcision

A
  1. gomco; cut right off
  2. mogen; cut right off
  3. plastibell; tied and falls off due to lack of circulation
101
Q

Circumcision care (4)

A
  • wipe with wet wash cloth once a day
  • keep it clean
  • dont pull it off
  • keep vaseline on it so the diaper does not rub/irritate
102
Q

What are the two congenital heart defects?

A
  1. Tetralogy of fallow

2. Coarcation of aorta

103
Q

How long is breastfeeding recommended for

A

6 months

104
Q

5 benefits of breastfeeding?

A
  • decreased rx of heart disease, DM, asthma, cancer
  • less expensive
  • baby gets more nutrients and antibodies
  • decreased rx of allergies
  • promotes maternal infant attachment
105
Q

Toxoplasmosis is transmitted via

A

Raw meat or cat liter; crosses placenta

106
Q

Toxoplasmosis is a

A

parasite

107
Q

How is toxoplasmosis detected?

A

blood test/serology

elisa

108
Q

Toxoplasmosis tx

A

Spiramycin, folinic acid

109
Q

How is hep b transmitted?

A

Iv drugs or sexual intercourse, can cross the placenta or transmit during delivery; blood

110
Q

How is Hep B detected?

A

HbsAg antigen blood test

111
Q

Hep B tx

A

Baby will be given immune globulin if mom is a carries after birth then vaccine

112
Q

Rubella is a

A

virus

113
Q

How is rubella transmitted

A

Mother who isn’t vaccinated; saliva or resp droplets

114
Q

How is rubella detected?

A

Blood test; titer test

115
Q

How is rubella treated

A

PREVENTION IS KEY

vaccine given 1-3 months after pregnancy

116
Q

GBS is

A

bacterial/viral

117
Q

GBS is transmitted

A

to baby in birth

118
Q

How is GBS detected

A

Vaginal or rectal culture during 35-37 wks; blood test

119
Q

How is GBS tx

A

Use antibiotics prophylaxis, autoimmune meds, plasma exchange

120
Q

What is CMV?

A

Cytomealovirus

121
Q

CMV is transmitted via

A

Body fluids; Saliva, urine, breast milk, sexual intercourse

122
Q

How is CMV detected

A

fluorescent antibody,complement fixation test

123
Q

How is CMV tx

A

isolate infant, tx symptoms

124
Q

What is HSV?

A

herpes simplex virus

125
Q

How is HSV transmitted

A

Can be through sex or vaginal birth; BODY FLUIDS

126
Q

How is HSV detected?

A

Serology blood test, cultures, pap smear

127
Q

HSV tx

A

Viral therapy after 36 wks; acyclovir

128
Q

What does APGAR assess?

A
  • Appearance; skin color
  • Pulse
  • Grimace; reflex irritability
  • Activity; muscle tone
  • Respirations
129
Q

What is the perfect APGAR score?

A

10

130
Q

What is the most common APGAR score and why?

A

9; acrocyanosis

131
Q

Normal infant appearance

A

Pink, crying, fussy

132
Q

Abnormal infant appearance

A

blue, silent, limp

133
Q

When should the infants cord be cut?

A

cut when done pulsing but mom still contracting; not immediately but not too late

134
Q

what is the infant at risk for if the cord cutting is delayed?

A

increased risk of jaundice

135
Q

how is an infants glucose assessed?

A

heel stick on side of foot to avoid hitting a nerve

136
Q

In utero the placenta belongs

A

partly to mom and partly to baby

137
Q

what is the purpose of the foramen ovale in utero?

A

Separates R & L atria; allows blood to go from R atria to L atria due to high pressure and resistance in lungs.

138
Q

Neonate lungs (in utero)

A

High pressure; higher on R side

Lungs and liver are not used

139
Q

Ductus arteriosis in utero

A

allows blood to travel from pulmonanry artery to aorta and then the rest of the body.

140
Q

The pulmonary artery has ____ pressure due to _____ resistance in lungs forcing blood into the aorta.

A

high pressure, high resistance

141
Q

the umbilical artery brings blood back from the aorta to the _____.

A

placenta

142
Q

After birth the placenta is

A

removed from fetal circ.

143
Q

What happens to the ductus venosus after birth?

A

it closes

144
Q

How does the ductus venosus close?

A

umbilical cord cut–>whartons jelly contracts around vessels when temp falls–>low resistance to high resistance–>blood in umbilical vein and ductus venosus starts clotting off & blood flow is decreased.

145
Q

After birth what do the lungs do?

A

take in air; first breath pushes fluid out of lungs,O2 lvls increase

146
Q

What happens to the ductus arteriosus after birth?

A

It closes

147
Q

Ductus arteriosus closing patho

A

Muscles constrict during 1st few hrs of life–>body sense increase of O2 in blood–>prostaglandins produced by placenta are no longer present–>DA closes

148
Q

prostaglandin production keeps the ________ open

A

ductus arteriosus

149
Q

why should moms not take NSAIDS during pregnancy

A

they are prostaglandin inhibitors; can affect fetal circ.

150
Q

What does oxytocin/pitocin do pp

A

treats PPH; makes uterus contract

151
Q

Oxytocin need to know

A
  • administer IV/IM

- H2O intoxication- no IV bolus

152
Q

What does methylergonovine/methergine do?

A

Assists in the delivery of the placenta and assists in controlling/preventing PPH.

153
Q

Methylergonovine/methergine need to know

A

Contraindicated for HTN/preeclampsia pts.
NEVER ADMIN TO NEWBORN
Monitor BP, fundal height, lochia
Do not smoke during administration

154
Q

Carboprost, Tromethamine/hemabate is used pp for

A

Treats/prevents postpartum hemorrhage, reduces blood loss secondary atony

155
Q

Carboprost, Tromethamine/hemabate need to know

A 
Contraindicated for asthma patients.
Max dose 12mg 
Max duration of use 48hrs
Admin in large muscle
Mo. Uterine status; bleeding
Delay breastfeeding for 24hrs following administration
156
Q

Misoprostol/cytotec is used pp for

A

to prevent/control pph

157
Q

Misoprostol/cytotec need to know

A

Do not give pitocin less than 4 hrs after administration

Administer only when FHR and uterine activity can be continuously monitored

158
Q

What is mag sulfate used for pp

A

pre-eclampsia/eclampsia

159
Q

Mag sulfate need to know

A

Administer IM into gluteal site, teach patient about their condition and what the drug is being used for, assess for magnesium toxicity- antidote sodium gluconate.

160
Q

What is rhogam used for pp

A

This drug is administered postpartum if mom and baby have different blood types, more specifically if baby is positive for Rh cells. This drug prevents the body from attacking the Rh positive fetus or antigens in the body when pregnant, a final dose is given postpartum.

161
Q

What is erythromycin opthalmic ointment used for?

A

To prevent any infections being transmitted to the newborn following delivery.

162
Q

Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment need to know

A

STATE MANDATED
Coat each eye in a thin line of ointment, assess for diarrhea and ensure adequate fluid intake if diarrhea occurs. Know s/s of possible infection.
Wash hands immediately after
Do not irrigate eyes

163
Q

Vitamin K Phytonadione pp is used for

A

Newborns are commonly born vitamin K deficient; vitamin K is important as it plays the role of a major clotting factor. Since newborns don’t have this on their own it is important to give them this vaccine to enhance clotting and decrease any risks of bleeding.

164
Q

Vitamin K need to know

A

Given IM vastus lateralis; one time dose one hr after birth, monitor for bleeding and bruising.
If mom was on coags during pregnancy an additional dose should be given
Administer before circumcision

165
Q

Hep B vaccine pp is used to

A

To prevent the newborn from contracting hep B from birth or others.

166
Q

Hep B vaccine need to know

A

Administer within 24hrs but no later than 7 days old. Drug should be clear and slightly amber. IM injection.
Delay administration if pt has active infection

167
Q

How should the fundus decrease following delivery?

A

1 centimeter per day; after delivery, should be under umbilicus

168
Q

if the fundus is left or right what does it indicate?

A

full bladder

169
Q

If the fundus is boggy the nurse should

A

massage it until it is firm

170
Q

When using phototherapy on an infant what should the infant be wearing?

A

eye goggles and genital covering; mo hydration

171
Q

Breastmilk comes in ____ colostrum comes in _____

A

2-5 days, right away

172
Q

If the mom is not planning to breastfeed the mom can prevent by

A
  • wear a well fitted bra; binder
  • cold compress
  • dont stimulate nipples; no shower water
173
Q

the more preterm an infant is the more ___ they have

A

lanugo

174
Q

in a preterm male the ___ have not descended

A

testes

175
Q

if the fundus is firm but the patient is still bleeding this can indicate

A

retained fragments

176
Q

baby blues are ___ and last about ____ weeks

A

normal, first 1 to 2 weeks

due to fluctuating hormones

177
Q

postpatum depression is ____ and occurs ____ weeks

A

abnormal, 3 to 4 weeks

178
Q

postpartum psychosis

A

voices telling u to kill baby

179
Q

How do you know baby is latching well?

A

baby has more areola, audible swallowing

180
Q

mom will express ___ if latching is wrong

A

pain

181
Q

breast care

A

clean after breastfeeding no soap; just water and dry

182
Q

Do not warm formula in the ____

A

Microwave

183
Q

bottle fed feces

A

sticky; strong odor

184
Q

breast fed feces

A

liquidy yellow green; smells sweet

185
Q

Increased sweating after delivery is ___

A

normal; body trying to get rid of extra fluid

186
Q

what birth control delays breastmilk production

A

depo

187
Q

breastfeeding babies should be fed every

A

2-3hrs

188
Q

Pill is

A

estrogen/progesterone

189
Q

mini pill is

A

progesterone

190
Q

depo is

A

progesterone

191
Q

nuvaring is

A

estrogen/progesterone

192
Q

red brick dust is caused by

A

uric acid crystals in the urine

193
Q

normal newborn resp

A

30-60

194
Q

normal newborn hr

A

120-160

195
Q

normal newborn temp

A

97.8-99

196
Q

what is the blink reflex

A

newborn reflex stimulated by flash of light- response is blinking

197
Q

pupillary reflex

A

pupils should constrict

198
Q

moro/startle reflex

A

response to sudden movement/loud noise should have symmetric extension of extremities

199
Q

rooting reflex

A

stroke infants cheek should attempt to feed

200
Q

palmar/plantar grasp

A

fingers and toes grasp

201
Q

stepping reflex

A

when baby is held upright one foot should step

202
Q

babinski reflex

A

fanning and extension of all toes when heel is stroked upward

203
Q

babys head should be 1-2cm greater than

A

chest circumfrence

204
Q

pp moms can have a temp of ___ and be okay, ___is concerning

A

100.4, 100.6

205
Q

BUBBLEHE

A 
Breasts; size, shape, engorgement
Uterus; firm or boggy?
Bladder; tender or distended?
Bowel movement?
Lochia; amount, odor, color, clots
Episiotomy; location, stiches, edema, redness
Homans sign; positive?
Emotional status; bonding?
206
Q

What does a positive homans sign mean?

A

DVT

207
Q

newborn weight loss in the first 3-4 days

A

5-10%= normal

OB Exam 3 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions