Exam 3 Review Flashcards

1
Q

Reputation

A

The prominence of a brand in the minds of the public and the perceived quality of its goods and services. it depends largely on trust.

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2
Q

Trust

A

The willingness to be vulnerable to a trustee based on positive expectations about the. trustee’s actions and intentions

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3
Q

Justice

A

the perceived fairness of an authority’s decision making

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4
Q

Ethics

A

The degree to which the behaviors of an authority are in accordance with generally accepted moral norms

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5
Q

Disposition-based trust

A

A general expectation that the words, promises, and statements of individuals and groups can be relied upon

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6
Q

Cognition-based trust

A

trustworthiness – the characteristics or attributes of a trustee that inspire trust

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7
Q

Ability

A

the skills and abilities that enable an authority to be successful in a given area

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8
Q

Benevolence

A

the belief that the authority wants to do good for the trustor, apart from any selfish or profit-centered motives

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9
Q

Integrity

A

the perception that the authority adhered to a set of values and principles and the trustor finds acceptable

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10
Q

Affect-based trust

A

trust rooted in emotion rather than reason

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11
Q

Distributive justice

A

perceptions of fairness related to whether or not outcomes have been allocated in accordance with accepted norms

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12
Q

procedural justice

A

perceptions of fairness related to whether or not the rules of fair process have been followed

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13
Q

voice

A

do employees have a chance to express their opinions?

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14
Q

correctability

A

can employees request an appeal when a procedure seems to have worked ineffectively?

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15
Q

Consistency

A

are procedures consistent across people and time?

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16
Q

Bias Supression

A

Are procedures neutral and unbiased?

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17
Q

Representativeness

A

Do procedures consider the needs or all groups?

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18
Q

Accuracy

A

Are procedures based on accurate information

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19
Q

interpersonal justice

A

perceptions of fairness related to whether or not authorities treat people with fairness when implementing rules

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20
Q

respect rule

A

are people treated in a dignified and sincere manner?

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21
Q

propriety rule

A

Do authorities refrain from making improper or offensive remarks

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22
Q

Abusive supervision

A

behaviors that are extremely unfair from an interpersonal justice perspective, with sustained displays of hostile verbal and nonverbal behavior

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23
Q

Information justice

A

perceptions of fairness related to whether or not the communications provided to employees during organizational decision-making are fair

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24
Q

justification rule

A

have authorities explained the decision-making procedures and outcomes in a comprehensive and reasonable manner?

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25
Q

truthfulness rule

A

have authorities been honest and candid in their communications

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26
Q

Moral awareness

A

When an authority recognizes that a moral issue exists in a situation or that an ethical standard or principle is relevant to the circumstance

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27
Q

moral intensity

A

the degree to which the issue has moral urgency - driven by potential for harm and social pressure

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28
Q

Moral attentiveness

A

the degree to which people chronically perceive and consider issues of morality

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29
Q

Moral judgement

A

the process people use to determine whether a particular course of action is ethical or unethical

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30
Q

preconventional

A

focuses on the consequences of actions for the individual

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31
Q

conventional

A

stage references the expectations of one’s family and society

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32
Q

Principled

A

most advanced - used a set of defined, established moral principles

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33
Q

moral inent

A

reflects an authority’s degree of commitment to the moral course of action

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34
Q

moral identity

A

the degree to which people see themselves as a “moral person”

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35
Q

Learning

A

reflects relatively permanent changes in an employee’s knowledge or skill that result from experience

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36
Q

decision making

A

the process of generating and choosing from a set of alternatives to solve a problem

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37
Q

Expertise

A

the knowledge and skills that distinguish experts from novices and less experienced people – these difference are almost always a function of learning

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38
Q

Explicit knowledge

A

information that can be communicated verbally or in writing

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39
Q

tacit knowledge

A

information that is gained from experience

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40
Q

Reinforcement

A

people learn by observing the link between voluntary behavior and the consequences that follow it

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41
Q

Antecedent

A

condition that precedes behavior

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42
Q

positive reinforcement

A

positive outcome that follows a positive behavior

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43
Q

negative reinforcement

A

an unwanted outcome is removed following a desired behavior

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44
Q

punishment

A

an unwanted outcome that follows an unwanted behavior

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45
Q

Extinction

A

the removal of a consequence follows an unwanted behavior

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46
Q

continuous schedule

A

specific consequence follows each and every occurence of a desired behavior

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47
Q

fixed interval

A

workers rewarded after a certain amount of time, the time between reinforcement stays the same.

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48
Q

variable interval

A

workers rewarded after a certain amount of time, and the time between reinforcement varies

49
Q

fixed ratio

A

behaviors reinforced after a certain number of them have been exhibited

50
Q

variable ratio

A

people are rewarded after a varying number of exhibited behaviors

51
Q

social learning theory

A

argues that people in organizations have the ability to learn through the observation of others

52
Q

behavioral modeling

A

involves observing and learning from others and then repeating the action

53
Q

goal orientation

A

affect learning behaviors and outcomes

54
Q

learning orientation

A

building competence is deemed more important than demonstrating competence

55
Q

performance-prove orientation

A

focus is on demonstrating competence so that others think favorably of them

56
Q

performance-avoid orientation

A

focus is on demonstrating competence so that others will not think poorly of them

57
Q

programmed decisions

A

decisions that become somewhat automatic because a person’s knowledge allows them to recognize and identify a situation and the course of action that needs to be taken

58
Q

Intuition

A

emotionally charged judgement arising through quick, non conscious, and holistic associations

59
Q

crisis situation

A

urgent problem that must be addressed immediately

60
Q

non-programmed decisions

A

decisions make in situations that are new, complex, and not recognized

61
Q

Bounded rationality

A

decision makers do not have the ability or resources to process all available information and alternatives to make an optimal decision

62
Q
A
63
Q

satisficing

A

decision makers often use the first acceptable alternative they encounter, rather than evaluation all alternatives to see which one is best

64
Q

selective perception

A

tendency to see the environment only as it affects them, consistent with their expectations

65
Q

projection bias

A

belief that others think, feel, and act the same way they do

66
Q

social identity theory

A

people identify with groups and judge others by their group memberships

67
Q

stereotype

A

assumptions made about others on the basis of their membership in a social group

68
Q

heuristics

A

simple, efficient rules of thumb that allow us to make decisions more easily

69
Q

availability bias

A

tendency to base judgements on information that is easier to recall

70
Q

fundamental attribution error

A

people have a tendency to judge others’ behaviors as due to internal factors

71
Q

self-serving bias

A

suggests that people attribute their own failures to external factors, and their own successes to internal factors

72
Q

concensus

A

did others act the same way under similar situations

73
Q

distinctiveness

A

do these people tend to act differently in other circumstances

74
Q

consistency

A

do these people always do this when performing this task

75
Q

escalation fo commitment

A

the decision to continue to follow a failing course of action

76
Q

ability

A

refers to the relatively stable capabilities people have to perform a particular range of different but related activities

77
Q

cognitive abilities

A

capabilities related to the acquisition and application of the knowledge in problem solving

78
Q

verbal ability

A

refers to capabilities associated with understanding and expressing oral and written communication

79
Q

oral comprehension

A

the ability to understand spoken words and sentences

80
Q

written comprehension

A

the ability to understand written words and sentences

81
Q

oral expression

A

the ability to communicate ideas by speaking

82
Q

written expression

A

the ability to communicate ideas in writing

83
Q

quantitative ability

A

two types of mathematical capabilities

84
Q

number facility

A

the capability to do simple math operations such as adding and subtracting

85
Q

mathematical reasoning

A

the ability to choose and apply formulas to solve problems that involve numbers

86
Q

reasoning ability

A

diverse set of abilities associated with sensing and solving problems using insight, rules, and logic

87
Q

problem sensitivity

A

the ability to sense that there is a problem, or one is likely to occur

88
Q

deductive reasoning

A

refers to the use of general rules or hypotheses as a starting point to solve a problem

89
Q

inductive reasoning

A

the ability to generate a hypothesis and plausible solution from pieces of information

90
Q

originality

A

the ability to develop clever, novel ways to solve problems

91
Q

spatial ability

A

capabilities associated with visual and mental representation and manipulation of objects in space

92
Q

spatial orientation

A

a good understanding of where one is relative to other things in the environment

93
Q

visualization

A

the ability to imagine how separate things will look if they are put together in a particular way

94
Q

perceptual ability

A

being able to perceive, understand, and recall pieces of information

95
Q

speed and flexibility of closure

A

being able to sick out a pattern of information quickly in the presence of distracting information

96
Q

perceptual speed

A

being able to examine and compare numbers, letters and objects quickly

97
Q

general cognitive ability

A

an explanation for the consistency in the levels of different cognitive abilities within a person

98
Q

emotional intelligence

A

the human ability that affects social functioning

99
Q

strength

A

the degree to which the body is capable of exerting force

100
Q

stamina

A

ability of lungs and circulatory system to work efficiently for prolonged period

101
Q

flexibility and coordination

A

ability to stretch, bend, twist, or reach

102
Q

psychomotor

A

capacity to manipulate or control objects

103
Q

sensory

A

capabilities associated with vision or hearing

104
Q

personality

A

consists of the structures and propensities inside us that explain our characteristic patterns of thought, emotion, and behavior

105
Q

traits

A

recurring trends in people’s responses to their environment

106
Q

cultural values

A

shared beliefs about desirable end states or modes of conduct in a given culture

107
Q

extroversion

A

being energized by people and social interactions

108
Q

introversion

A

being energized by private time and reflection

109
Q

sensing

A

preferring clear and concrete facts and data

110
Q

intuition

A

preferring hunches and speculations based on theory and imagination

111
Q

thinking

A

approaching decisions with logic and critical analysis

112
Q

feeling

A

approaching decisions with an emphasis on others’ needs and feelings

113
Q

judging

A

approaching tasks by planning and setting goals

114
Q

perceiving

A

preferring to have flexibility and spontaneity when performing tasks

115
Q

RIASEC

A

Realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional

116
Q

culture

A

the shared values, beliefs, motives, identities, and interpretations that result from common experiences of members of a society and are transmitted across generations

117
Q

cultural values

A

shared beliefs and desirable end states or modes of conduct in a given culture

118
Q
A