Exam 3 Renal Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

The kidneys sit retroperitoneal between _______ and _______.

Which kidney is slightly more caudal (lower) to accommodate the liver?

A

T12 and L4

Right

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2
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney?

A

Nephron

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3
Q

The kidneys receive ______% (range) of CO.

A

20% (1- 1.25 L)

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4
Q

Besides the kidneys, what organ is retroperitoneal?

A

Spleen

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5
Q

Primary functions of the kidneys (6 functions).

A
  1. Maintain extracellular volume and composition
  2. Blood Pressure Regulation (Intermed/Long)
  3. Excretion of Toxins and Metabolites
  4. Maintain Acid-Base Balance
  5. Hormone Production (EPO)
  6. Blood glucose homeostasis
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6
Q

Calcium requires ________ for adequate absorption and utilization.

A

Calcitriol (Active Vitamin D)

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7
Q

How does Vitamin D get activated?

A

Through the kidneys.

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8
Q

What hormone will increase active Vitamin D levels?

A

PTH

Negative feedback loop

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9
Q

For someone who is chronically anemic what can they take?

A

Synthetic EPO and Iron to generate more RBC

Long term dialysis patients will be on these medications, dialysis will negate the RBCs

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10
Q

____-% of body weight in non-obese patients is composed of water

A

60% TBW

ISF + Plamsa <1/2 volume of TBW

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11
Q

What are the two main fluid compartments?

What is more immediately altered by the kidneys?

A

ECF and ICF

  • ECF
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12
Q

What are the ways osmolality sensors in the anterior hypothalamus regulate fluid?

A

Stimulate thirst

Release Vasopressin (ADH)
* increase H2O, Na+ reabsorption

ANP released by atria -> kidneys reduce Na+/H2O reabsorption

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13
Q

What is a normal sodium level?

A

135-145 mEq/L

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14
Q

There are no absolute cut offs for sodium level for surgery, but these numbers will be a good reference.

Na level below _________ mEq/L and above _______ mEq/L are a no go for surgery.

A

Below 125 mEq/L
Above 155 mEq/L

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15
Q

What are some causes of hyponatremia?

A

Prolonged sweating
Vomiting/diarrhea
Insufficient aldosterone secretion
Excessive intake of water

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16
Q

What percent of people in the hospital have hyponatremia?

Why?

A

15%

over-fluid resuscitation

increased endogenous vasopressin increased H2) reabsorption (stress response)

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17
Q

The most severe consequence of hyponatremia are these three things:

A

Seizures
Coma
Death

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18
Q

What are treatments for hyponatremia?

A
  • Treat underlying causes
  • Normal Saline
  • electrolyte drink
  • Hypertonic 3% Saline (80 ml/hr over 15 hrs)… shouldn’t exceed
  • 1.5 mEq/L in 24 hrs
  • Diuretics
  • Mannitol

**check Na+ every 4 hours

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19
Q

Rapid sodium corrected faster than 6 mEq/L in 24 hours can cause __________ syndrome.

What could this result in?

A

osmotic demyelination

permanant neuro damage

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20
Q

What is the dose and rate of 3% hypertonic saline for patients that are hyponatremic and seizing?

A

3-5 mL/kg of 3% saline
over 20 minutes until seizure resolves

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21
Q

Hyponatremic seizures are a medical emergency and can cause __________ brain damage.

A

Irreversible

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22
Q

What are the causes of hypernatremia?

A
  • Excessive evaporation
  • Poor oral intake (very young, old)
    *Overcorrection of hyponatremia
    *Excessive Na+ bicarb: tx acidosis
  • GI losses
  • DI: loss of dilute urine
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23
Q

Effects of hypernatremia

A

Orthostasis - syncope from standing up
Restlessness
Lethargy
Tremor
Muscle Twitching/ Spasticity
Seizures
Death

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24
Q

Treatments for hypernatremia?

A

First, assess volume status (tachycardic, hypotensive, u/o, skin turgor, CVP, SV variation)

Then treat the cause.

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25
Q

Treatments for the following.

Hypernatremic Hypovolemia:
Hypernatremic Hypervolemia:
Hypernatremic Euvolemic:

A

Hypernatremic Hypovolemia: NS

Hypernatremic Euvolemic: water replacement (PO or D5W)

Hypernatremic Hypervolemia: diuresis

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26
Q

What is normal potassium level?

ICF or ECF?

A

3.5 to 5 mEq/L

major intracellular cation

<1.5% in ECF (plasma)

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27
Q

What are the causes of hypokalemia?

A

Hyperaldosteronism
Diuretics
Kidney disease
Excessive Licorice
HCTZ (BP med)
DKA (frequent urination)
N/V/D
Malabsorption

Intracellular shift: alkalosis, beta-agonists, insulin

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28
Q

Effects of hypokalemia

A

**Generally, cardiac and neuromuscular

Dysrhythmias, U-wave
Muscle weakness/cramping
Illeus (lose parastalsis)

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29
Q

What changes in EKG will you see with hypokalemia?

A

U-waves

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30
Q

Treatments for hypokalemia

A

PO> IV Potassium
IV may require days to correct

K+ 10-20 mEq/L/hr

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31
Q

10 mEq of potassium will increase serum K+ by _____ mEq/L.

A

0.1 mEq/L

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32
Q

What are the causes of hyperkalemia?

A
  • Renal disease
  • Hypoaldosteronism
  • Drugs that inhibit RAAS (decrease aldosterone)
  • Acidosis
  • Tissue/muscle damage
  • Depolarizing NMBD (Sux increases K+ 0.5-1 mEq/L)
  • Massive blood transfusion
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33
Q

Hyerventilation, a pH increase of 0.1 will cause a ______(range) decrease in potassium

A

0.4 to 1.5 mEq/L

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34
Q

What are the effects of hyperkalemia?

A

Potentially asymptomatic
GI upset
Malaise
Skeletal muscle paralysis
Severe cardiac dysrhythmias
* peaked T wave
* P wave disappears
* prolonged QRS
* sine waves
* asystole

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35
Q

Treatment of hyperkalemia

A

Bicarbonate
Insulin (10U and 25g of D50) +/- glucose
#1 Calcium
Increase RR
Loop diuretics
Kayexalate (hrs-> days)
Albuterol
Dialysis within 24 hr before surgery

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36
Q

What is creatinine?

A

A substance produced by skeletal muscle and is a byproduct of creatine breakdown

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37
Q

Creatinine production is constant and directly __________ to muscle mass.

A

proportional

An emaciated individual will probably have a lower creatinine level compared to a bodybuilder. But if you see that a cachectic person has a high creatinine level, it might be a sign that the kidneys are not working well

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38
Q

Creatinine undergoes renal _________ but not _________, making it a useful indicator of GFR.

A

Creatinine undergoes renal filtration but not reabsorption, making it a useful indicator of GFR.

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39
Q

Large amounts of protein in the urine may suggest ____ or _____ injury.

Labs values and test.

A

Glomerular Injury or UTI
>750 mg/day

Normal: < 150 mg/dL

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40
Q

What are normal BUN ranges?

causes of low or high levels?

A

10-20 mg/dL

BUN can be misleading. Diet and changes in intravascular volume can increase or decrease BUN

urea is reabsorbed into the blood

LOW: malnourished, dilute volume

HIGH: high protein diet, dehydration, GI bleed, trauma, muscle wasting

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41
Q

What does specific gravity compare?

What are normal ranges of specific gravity?

A

1 mL of urine to 1 mL of distilled water

Measures nephron’s ability to concentrate urine

Normal 1.001-1.035

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42
Q

BUN: Creatinine ratio?

what’s reabsorbed?

Good measure of?

A

10: 1

BUN reabsorbed
Creat. not reaasborbed

Hydration status

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43
Q

Which lab test is a good evaluation of fluid hydration status?

A

BUN: Creatinine Ratio

BUN can undergo filtration and reabsorption. Creatinine only undergoes filtration. Because of this reason, the ratio between these substances in the blood is helpful in evaluating hydration status.

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44
Q

What does a high urine specific gravity indicate?

What does a low urine specific gravity indicate?

A

More concentrated urine, more solutes.

Less concentrated urine, less solutes.

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45
Q

What number indicates good urine output from an anesthesia standpoint?

A

30 mL/hr (no standardization for weight and no clinical picture)

0.5-1 mL/kg/hr is more accurate

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46
Q

_________ mL in 24 hours will be called oliguria.

A

<500 mL

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47
Q

_______ is a powerful stimulus for renal vasoconstriction.

A

Left atrial pressure (wedge pressure)

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48
Q

What are the criteria for using stroke volume variation in assessing fluid status?

A

Assume the patient is on positive-pressure ventilation.
and in NSR.

Compare inspiratory and expiratory pressure to assess SVV.

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49
Q

An IVC greater than _______% collapse indicates a fluid deficit.

A

50%

To assess, place an ultrasound on IVC and perform a passive leg raise, if the quick change in volume dilates IVC, the patient may be in a fluid volume deficit.

50
Q

What is acute renal failure?

A

Deterioration of renal function over hours to days.

Failure to excrete nitrogenous waste products or maintain fluid and electrolyte homeostasis

51
Q

If someone with AKI progress to dialysis and MSOF, mortality is now greater than ________.

52
Q

What do CRNAs do that causes AKI?

A

Letting the patient get hypotensive.

53
Q

What are the risk factors for AKI?

A

Pre-existing renal disease
Advanced age
CHF
PVD
DM
Sepsis
Hypotension
Jaundice
Major Operative Procedures (Cross-Clamped)
IV contrast

54
Q

Diagnosing AKI:

Serum creatinine rise > ______ mg/dL within 48 hrs

Increase serum creatinine by ______ within 7 days

_______% decrease creatinine clearance

Abrupt ______, although not always seen in AKI.

A

> 0.5 mg/dL

50%

50%

Abrupt oliguria

55
Q

Symptoms of AKI

A

Asymptomatic
Malaise
Hypotension
hypovolemic or hypervoelmic

56
Q

What are the types of AKI?

A

Pre-renal
Renal
Post-renal

57
Q

What are the causes of prerenal azotemia (ARF)?

BUN: Creatinine ratio?

Treatment?

A

BUN: Creatinine Ratio > 20:1
still absorbing Na+ and H2O

Hemorrhage
GI fluid loss
Trauma
Surgery
Burns
Cardiogenic shock
Sepsis
Aortic clamping
Thromboembolism
Aortic aneurysm dissection

All these will decrease blood flow to the kidneys

TX: fluids, mannitol, diuretics, pressors

58
Q

What are the causes of renal azotemia (ARF)?

S/S?

A

Acute glomerulonephritis
Vasculitis
Interstitial nephritis
ATN
Contrast dye
Nephrotoxic drugs
Myoglobinuria

S/S:
* low GFR (late sign)
* low urea reabsorption in proximal tubule -> low BUN
* high creatinine
* BUN: creatinine < 20:1

59
Q

What are the causes of postrenal azotemia (ARF)?

Treatment?

A

Nephrolithiasis (kidney stones, most common cause)
BPH
Clot retention
Bladder carcinoma

TX: remove obstruction

60
Q

Pre-renal azotemia makes up _________ of hospitalized acquired cases.

A

Half

Pre-renal = most common AKI

61
Q

How can you distinguish a pre-renal from an intra-renal AKI?

A

Pre-renal can reabsorb sodium and water.

*Obtain urine/serum test prior to mannitol, diuretics, fluids

62
Q

Neurological complications of AKI.

A

Uremic Encephalopathy
Mobility disorders
Neuropathies
Myopathies
Seizures
Stroke

Related to protein/amino acid buildup in blood

Improve with dialysis

63
Q

List the order of incidence from compilations of AKI:
Pulmonary Edema, LVH, CHF, Systemic HTN

A

Order of incidence:
1. Systemic HTN
2. LVH
3. CHF
4. Pulmonary Edema

64
Q

Hematological complications of AKI.

Treatment?

A

Anemia
- low EPO production
- low RBC production
- low red cell survival

Platelet dysfunction

vWF disrupted by uremia: treat with DDAVP to increase vWF and fact VIII

65
Q

Metabolic complications of AKI.

A

Hyperkalemia
Water and Sodium imbalances
Hypoalbuminemia - responds slower to medication
Metabolic Acidosis
Malnutrition
Hyperparathyroidism: PT glands in overdrive attempting to stimulate kidneys to reabsorb Ca++

66
Q

Unlike AKI, CKD is progressive and __________.

What is the leading cause of CKD?

A

Irreversible

DM and HTN

67
Q

Describe stages of ESRD and GFR for each stage.

A

Stage 1: often undiagnosed
Stage 4: start dialysis

68
Q

On average, GFR decreases by ______ per decade starting from age 20.

69
Q

CV effects of CKD.

A
  • Systemic HTN
  • Retention Na+ and H2O
  • Activation of RAAS d/t decreased GFR
  • Dyslipidemia (Triglycerides >500, LDL >100)
  • Silent MI (most prevalent in DM and women)

Thiazides: 1st line for HTN

70
Q

What are the functions of ACE inhibitors and ARBs?

Why do we want to hold these medications on the day of surgery?

Pressors?

A

Decrease systemic and glomerular hypertension
Decrease proteinuria
Decrease glomerulosclerosis

Hold ACE inhibitors/ARBs on the day of surgery to reduce the risk of intraoperative hypotension.

Pressors: Vaso, NE, Epi

71
Q

What are the hematological complications of CKD?

A

Anemia - responds well to EPO, target >10 Hgb

Platelet dysfunction: may need DDAVP

72
Q

What are the five indications of dialysis?

A
  1. Volume overload
  2. Hyperkalemia
  3. Severe Metabolic Acidosis
  4. Symptomatic Uremia
  5. Medication Overdose
73
Q

Considerations of dialysis:

HD is more ______ than PD.

PD is more gradual and favored for patients that can’t tolerate __________ associated with HD (CHF/unstable angina).

__________ is the most common adverse event.

_________ is the leading cause of death in dialysis patients.

A

HD is more effective than PD.

PD is more gradual and favored for patients that can’t tolerate fluid shifts associated with HD (CHF/unstable angina).

Hypotension is the most common adverse event.

Infection is the leading cause of death in dialysis patients.

74
Q

What are treatments of uremic bleeding?

Max effect time:
Duration:
Side Effect:

A

DDAVP - max effect 2-4 hours, last 6-8 hours, give this in pre-op
*side effect: tachyphylaxis

Cryo (Factor VIII, vWF)

75
Q

What neuromuscular blockers are not dependent on the kidneys?

A

Atracurium
Cisatracurium

Avoid: Sux, Roc

76
Q

When taking care of renal patients, what medications do we worry about having active metabolite?

A

Opioids (morphine, meperidine)

Morphine: 40% is cleared through the urine
* active metabolites: morphine 3 glucuronide, morphine 6 glucuronide
* leads to rest. depression

Demerol:
analgesic and CNS effects
AE: neurotoxicity
Half-life 15-30 hrs vs. meperidine 2-4 hrs

77
Q

Lipid insoluble drugs will have a _________ duration of action in renal patients.

A

prolonged duration (Thiazides, loop diuretics, digoxin, Abx)

Consider decreasing the dose base off of GFR

78
Q

What induction medications are excreted by the kidneys?

A

Phenobarbital
Thiopental

79
Q

What muscle relaxants are excreted by the kidneys?

A

Pancuronium
Vecuronium

80
Q

What cholinesterase inhibitors are excreted by the kidneys?

A

Edrophonium
Neostigmine

81
Q

What CV drugs are excreted by the kidneys?

A

Atropine
Digoxin
Glycopyrrolate
Hydralazine
Milrinone

82
Q

What antimicrobials are excreted by the kidneys?

A

Vancomycin
Aminoglycosides
Cephalosporins
PCN

83
Q

Patients maintained on dialysis should undergo dialysis _______ hours preceding elective surgery.

84
Q

Combined blood flow through both kidneys accounts for ______ of total cardiac output.

85
Q

The primary source of urea is in the ________.

86
Q

Normal serum creatinine concentration for males.

Normal serum creatinine concentration for females

A

Males: 0.8-1.3 mg/dL

Females: 0.6 - 1.3 mg/dL

87
Q

Normal creatinine clearance (range): _________

A

110-150 mL/min

freely filtered, not reabsorbed: all goes out the kidney

88
Q

These drugs undergo hepatic metabolism and conjugation prior to elimination in the urine (Select all that apply).

A. Pavulon
B. Benzos
C. Opioids
D. Anectine

A

A, B, and C

Anectine (Sch) is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase

89
Q

What is the ideal anesthetic agent for renal patients?

A

Forane (Isoflurane)

90
Q

Volume Homeostasis:

Renin is secreted by the _______.

A

Juxtaglomerular Apparatus

low volume @ JGA triggers RAAS -> Na+/H2O reabsorption

91
Q

Na+ 130-135 mEq/L

S/S:

A

HA
N/V
fatigue
confusion
muscle cramps
depressed reflexes

92
Q

Na+ 120-130 mEq/L

S/S:

A

malaise
unsteadiness

same as 130-135:
HA
N/V
fatigue
confusion
muscle cramps

93
Q

Na+ <120

S/S:

A

HA
restless
lethargy
seizures
herniation
resp. arrest

94
Q

Want Na+ reduction rate _____mmol/L per hr and ______mmol/L per day to avoid cerebral edema, seizures, and neurologic damage.

A

< or equal to 0.5 mmol/L

< or equal to 10 mmol/L

95
Q

Aldosterone causes distal nephron to secrete _____ and reabsorb _____.

A

secrete K+

reabsorb Na+

96
Q

In renal failure, as K+ excretion declines, it shifts towards _______.

A

GI system

*slower process, reason for high K+

97
Q

Avoid excess ______, _______, ________, ________, and hypervention in hypokalemia.

**all lower potassium

A

insulin
beta agonists
bicarb
diuretics

98
Q

In hyperkalemia:

avoid what neuromuscular blocker?

avoid increase or decrease RR?

avoid what IVF?

A

avoid SUX

avoid hypoventilation

avoid LR (contains K+)

**All increase K+

99
Q

Hormones that regulate Ca++

A

parathyroid: increase GI absorption, increase renal reabsorption, and regulates bone/bloodstream levels

Vit D: augments intestinal Ca++ absorption

Calcitonin: promotes storage in bone

100
Q

Calcium storage %

normal iCal

iCal affected by?

A

1% ECF
99% bone

iCal 1.2-1.38 mmol/L

alkalosis -> increased Ca+ binding to albumin -> low Ca+

101
Q

Causes of hypocalcemia:

A

low PTH
- increases Ca+ absorption in bones, kidneys, GI

Mag deficiency
- required for PTH production

Low vitamin D
- GI Ca+ reabsorption

Renal Failure
- kidneys don’t respond to PTH

Massive blood transfusions
- citrate binds Ca+

102
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can cause laryngeal spasms?

Treatment?

A

low PTH/Ca+

103
Q

Causes of hypercalcemia:

calcium levels associated

A

hyperparathyroidism: Ca+ < 11
cancer: Ca+ > 13
Vit D intox.
Milk-alkali syndrome
Granulomatous diseases (sarcoidosis)

104
Q

HypoMAG:

causes:
S/S:
TX:

A

low intake
real wasting

muscle weakness/excitation
seizures
vent. dysrhythmias

Torsades: tx 2 Mag

105
Q

HyperMAG:

causes:
S/S:
TX:

A

very uncommon, usually due to over-treatment:
- pre-eclampsia/eclampsia
- pheochromocytoma

4-5 mEq/L: lethargy, N/V, flushing

> 6mEq/L: hypotension, decreased DTR

> 10 mEq/L: paralysis, apnea, heart blocks

TX: diuresis, IV Ca+, dialysis

106
Q

Kidney cortex or medulla recieves more blood flow?

A

cortex 85-90%

medulla inner layer: more prone to necrosis

107
Q

Each kidney has how many nephrons?

108
Q

What 4 hormones does the kidney produce?

A

renin

EPO
- RBC production

calcitriol
- maintains serum Ca++

prostaglandins
- inflammatory modulators, vasodilate, increase RBF

109
Q

Most reliable measure of GFR?

A

creatinine clearance but need 24 hr urine collection

110
Q

Serum creatinine can be influenced by?

A

high protein diet, supplements, muscle breakdown

good for acute monitoring, need a baseline

inversely related to GFR

in acute cases. double SC can mean drop in GFR by 50%

111
Q

kidney injury leads to _____ lactate, ______ base excess, and ______ is a late sign.

A

high lactate
low BE
late sign: drop in UO

112
Q

AKI affects ____% hospitalized patients and ______% ICU patients.

A

20% hospitalized

50% ICU

113
Q

2 causes of AKI:

A

decerased renal perfusion
nephrotoxins

114
Q

Hallmark of AKI?

A

Azotemia: buildup of nitrogenous products (urea, creatinine)

115
Q

Preferred IVF for AKI?

Preferred vasopressors?

want natural or synthetic colloids?

A

NS

vasopressin > alpha-agonists
*vaso better efferent arteriole vasoconstrictor, maintaining RBF

natural: albumin

116
Q

Prophylactic bicarb decreases formation of _____ _____ and prevents _____ from causing renal failure.

A

free radicals

ATN

117
Q

What does frothy urine indicate?

A

albumin/protein in the urine
*hypoalbuminemia

118
Q

What poor side effects can blood transfusions cause?

A

excess hemoglobin -> sluggish cirulation

acidosis
hyperkalemia

119
Q

What 2 types of patients need aspiration precautions?

A

DM and obesity
*decreased GI motility

120
Q

Best NMB for CKD?

A

nimbex metabolized in the plasma

121
Q

Blood loss activates _______, leading to increased SNS outflow.

A

baroreceptors

122
Q

Catecholamines activate _______, leading to incrased affarent arteriole construction, decreasing RBF.

A

alpha 1 receptors