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(K) Embryology Test 3 > Exam 3 Questions > Flashcards

Exam 3 Questions Flashcards

End of chapter questions for chapters 12-17

1
Q 
Which of these cell and tissue types arises from cranial, but not trunk, neural crest cells?       
A. Sensory ganglia      
B. Adrenal medulla      
C. Melanocytes      
D. Schwann cells      
E. None of the above
A

E. None of the above

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2
Q 
Which molecule is a poor substrate for migrating neural crest cells?       
A. Laminin      
B. Chondroitin sulfate      
C. Fibronectin      
D. Type IV collagen      
E. Hyaluronic acid
A

B. Chondroitin sulfate

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3
Q 
Neural crest cells arise from the:       
A. Somite      
B. Dorsal non-neural ectoderm      
C. Neural tube      
D. Splanchnic mesoderm      
E. Yolk sac endoderm
A

C. Neural tube

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4
Q 
A 6-month-old infant exhibits multiple congenital defects, including a cleft palate, deafness, ocular hypertelorism, and a white forelock but otherwise dark hair on his head. The probable diagnosis is:       
A. CHARGE association      
B. von Recklinghausen’s disease      
C. Hirschsprung’s disease      
D. Waardenburg’s syndrome      
E. None of the above
A

D. Waardenburg’s syndrome

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5
Q 
What molecule is involved in the migration of neural crest cells from the neural tube?       
A. Slug      
B. BMP-2      
C. Mash 1      
D. Norepinephrine      
E. Glial growth factor
A

A. Slug

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6
Q 
Which is not a derivative of the neural crest?
A. Sensory neurons      
B. Motoneurons      
C. Schwann cells      
D. Adrenal medulla     
E. Dental papilla
A

B. Motoneurons

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7
Q 
What maintains the competence of neural crest cells to differentiate into autonomic neurons?       
A. Sonic hedgehog      
B. Acetylcholine      
C. Mash 1      
D. Glial growth factor      
E. Transforming growth factor-β
A

C. Mash 1

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8
Q 
If trunk neural crest cells are transplanted into the cranial region, they can form all of the following types of cells except:       
A. Pigment cells      
B. Schwann cells      
C. Sensory neurons      
D. Cartilage      
E. Autonomic neurons
A

D. Cartilage

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9
Q 
Neural crest–derived cells constitute a significant component of which tissue of the eye?       
A. Neural retina      
B. Lens      
C. Optic nerve      
D. Cornea      
E. None of the above
A

D. Cornea

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10
Q 
The otic placode arises through an inductive message given off by the:       
A. Telencephalon      
B. Rhombencephalon      
C. Infundibulum      
D. Diencephalon      
E. Mesencephalon
A

B. Rhombencephalon

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11
Q 
What molecule plays a role in guidance of advancing retinal axons through the optic nerve?      
A. Pax-2      
B. FGF-3      
C. BMP-4      
D. Pax-6      
E. BMP-7
A

A. Pax-2

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12
Q 
Surface ectoderm is induced to become corneal epithelium by an inductive event originating in the:       
A. Optic cup      
B. Chordamesoderm      
C. Optic vesicle      
D. Lens vesicle      
E. Neural retina
A

D. Lens vesicle

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13
Q 
The second pharyngeal arch contributes to the:       
A. Cochlea and earlobe      
B. Auditory tube and incus      
C. Stapes and earlobe      
D. Auditory tube and stapes      
E. Otic vesicle and stapes
A

C. Stapes and earlobe

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14
Q 
The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) supplies muscles derived from which pharyngeal arch?       
A. First      
B. Second      
C. Third      
D. Fourth      
E. Sixth
A

B. Second

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15
Q

Cleft lip results from lack of fusion of the:
A. Nasomedial and nasolateral processes
B. Nasomedial and maxillary processes
C. Nasolateral and maxillary processes
D. Nasolateral and mandibular processes
E. Nasomedial and mandibular processes

A

B. Nasomedial and maxillary processes

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16
Q 
In cases of holoprosencephaly, defects of facial structures are typically secondary to defects of the:       
A. Pharynx      
B. Oral cavity      
C. Forebrain      
D. Eyes      
E. Hindbrain
A

C. Forebrain

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17
Q 
Meckel’s cartilage is a prominent structure in the early formation of the:       
A. Upper jaw      
B. Hard palate      
C. Nasal septum      
D. Soft palate      
E. Lower jaw
A

E. Lower jaw

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18
Q 
An early induction in tooth development consists of the ectoderm of the dental epithelium acting on the underlying neural crest mesenchyme. Which of the following molecules is an important mediator of the inductive stimulus?       
A. BMP-4      
B. Tenascin      
C. Hoxb-13      
D. Msx-1      
E. Syndecan
A

A. BMP-4

19
Q 
Which condition is most closely associated with a disturbance of neural crest?
A. Anal atresia      
B. Meckel’s diverticulum      
C. Omphalocele      
D. Volvulus      
E. Aganglionic megacolon
A

E. Aganglionic megacolon

20
Q 
Meckel’s diverticulum is most commonly located in the:       
A. Ileum      
B. Ascending colon      
C. Jejunum     
D. Transverse colon      
E. Duodenum
A

A. Ileum

21
Q 
The primordium of which structure is located in the septum transversum?       
A. Dorsal pancreas      
B. Lung      
C. Liver      
D. Thymus      
E. Spleen
A

C. Liver

22
Q 
The yolk stalk is most closely associated with which artery?       
A. Celiac      
B. Umbilical      
C. Superior mesenteric      
D. Aorta      
E. Inferior mesenteric
A

C. Superior mesenteric

23
Q 
The dorsal pancreatic bud is initially induced from the gut endoderm by the:       
A. Liver      
B. Notochord      
C. Lung bud      
D. Yolk sac      
E. None of the above
A

B. Notochord

24
Q 
Splanchnic mesoderm acts as an inducer of all of the following tissues or organs except:       
A. Teeth      
B. Trachea      
C. Liver     
D. Lungs      
E. Pancreas
A

A. Teeth

25
Q 
Which of the following does not connect directly with the primary nephric
(mesonephric) duct?       
A. Metanephros      
B. Cloaca      
C. Nephrotomes      
D. Mesonephric tubules      
E. Ureteric bud
A

A. Metanephros

26
Q

Which association is correct?
A. Potter’s facies and hydramnios
B. Urachal fistula and hydramnios
C. Horseshoe kidney and superior mesenteric artery
D. GDNF and metanephrogenic blastema
E. Bilateral renal agenesis and compensatory hypertrophy

A

D. GDNF and metanephrogenic blastema

27
Q 
Which defect is strongly associated with oligohydramnios?       
A. Pelvic kidney      
B. Renal agenesis      
C. Horseshoe kidney     
D. Crossed ectopia      
E. Polycystic kidney
A

B. Renal agenesis

28
Q 
Which anomaly is most closely associated with exstrophy of the bladder?       
A. Epispadias      
B. Renal agenesis      
C. Anal atresia      
D. Pelvic kidney      
E. Ectopic ureteral orifice
A

A. Epispadias

29
Q 
The uterus arises from the:
A. Paramesonephric ducts      
B. Urogenital sinus      
C. Mesonephric tubules      
D. Pronephric ducts      
E. Mesonephric ducts
A

A. Paramesonephric ducts

30
Q 
The floor of the penile urethra in the male is homologous to what structure in the female?       
A. Clitoris      
B. Trigone of the bladder      
C. Labia majora      
D. Labia minora      
E. Perineum
A

D. Labia minora

31
Q 
The metanephrogenic blastema is induced by the:       
A. Pronephric duct      
B. Ureteric bud      
C. Mesonephric tubules      
D. Allantois      
E. Mesonephric duct
A

B. Ureteric bud

32
Q 
Nucleated erythrocytes found circulating in the embryo are produced in the:
A. Yolk sac      
B. Para-aortic clusters      
C. Liver      
D. Bone marrow      
E. None of the above
A

A. Yolk sac

33
Q 
In a 7-month fetus, blood draining the left temporalis muscle enters the heart via the:       
A. Left anterior cardinal vein      
B. Coronary sinus      
C. Left common cardinal vein      
D. Superior vena cava      
E. None of the above
A

D. Superior vena cava

34
Q 
Adherons are inductive particles released by what structure in the endocardial cushion area?       
A. Endocardium      
B. Cardiac jelly      
C. Myocardium      
D. Epicardium      
E. None of the above
A

C. Myocardium

35
Q 
Neural crest contributes to the structure of which of the following?       
A. Truncus arteriosus      
B. Ascending aorta      
C. Pulmonary trunk      
D. All of the above      
E. None of the above
A

D. All of the above

36
Q

For which of these cardiovascular malformations is a patent ductus arteriosus necessary for survival of the individual?
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Ventricular septal defect
C. Double aortic arch
D. Right subclavian artery from arch of aorta
E. None of the above

A

E. None of the above

37
Q 
Five days after birth, an infant becomes cyanotic during a prolonged crying spell. The cyanosis is most likely caused by venous blood entering the systemic circulation through the:       
A. Interatrial septum      
B. Ductus arteriosus      
C. Ductus venosus      
D. Umbilical vein      
E. Interventricular septum
A

A. Interatrial septum

38
Q 
The internal carotid artery arises from aortic arch number:       
A. 1      
B. 2      
C. 3      
D. 4      
E. 5
A

C. 3

39
Q 
Which of the following molecules plays an important role in the determination of the dorsoventral axis of the developing limb?       
A. Msx-1      
B. Wnt-7a      
C. Hoxd-13      
D. Pax-1      
E. FGF-8
A

B. Wnt-7a

40
Q 
What molecule is associated with myogenic cells migrating into the limb bud from the somites?       
A. shh      
B. BMP-7      
C. FGF-4      
D. Pax-3      
E. En-1
A

D. Pax-3

41
Q

What is the principal function of the AER?
A. Stimulating outgrowth of the limb bud
B. Setting up the anteroposterior axis of the limb bud
C. Determining the specific characteristics of the ectodermal appendages of the limb
D. Determining the pattern of neural ingrowth into the limb
E. Attracting the subcutaneous plexus of capillaries in the limb bud

A

A. Stimulating outgrowth of the limb bud

42
Q

In the developing limb the sonic hedgehog (shh) gene product is produced in the:
A. Progress zone
B. Region of interdigital cell death
C. ZPA
D. AER
E. Common muscle mass

A

C. ZPA

43
Q 
The connective tissue of the limb arises from the:       
A. Paraxial mesoderm      
B. Neural crest      
C. Intermediate mesoderm      
D. Somitic mesoderm      
E. Lateral mesoderm
A

E. Lateral mesoderm

44
Q

The formation of clubfoot (talipes equinovarus) is associated with:
A. A misplaced ZPA
B. Defective cellular migration from somites
C. Thalidomide
D. Oligohydramnios
E. A neural crest defect

A

D. Oligohydramnios

(K) Embryology Test 3 (3 decks)

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