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Health Assessment > Exam 3 Questions > Flashcards

Exam 3 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The control of body temperature is located in:

  1. Wernicke’s area
  2. the thalamus
  3. the cerebellum
  4. the hypothlamus
A
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1
Q

To elicit a Babinski reflex:

  1. gently tap the Achilles tendon
  2. stroke the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot from heel to the ball
  3. present a nocious odor to the person
  4. observe the person walking heel to toe
A
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1
Q

____ are circumcised, brown, macular or palpular areas that are common on the abdomen

  1. skin tags
  2. pimples
  3. freckles
  4. moles
A

moles

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2
Q

_____ is not a good sign when palpating bowel signs

  1. borbogymus
  2. hyperactive sounds
  3. the absence of bowel sounds
  4. hypoactive signs
A

absence of bowel sounds

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2
Q

The respiratory center is housed in the _____

  1. epithalamus
  2. thalmus
  3. medulla oblangata
  4. pons
A

medulla oblangata

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3
Q

The production of red blood cells in the bone marrow is called:

  1. hematopoiesis.
  2. hemolysis.
  3. hemoptysis.
  4. hemianopsia.
A

hematopoiesis

Hematopoiesis is the production of the red blood cells in the bone marrow (sponge-like material in the cavities of bones). Hemolysis is the breakdown of red blood cells. Hemoptysis is coughing up blood from the respiratory system. Hemianopsia is blindness in half of the normal visual field.

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4
Q

A 2-year old child has been brough to the clinic for a health examination. A common finding would be:

  1. kyphosis
  2. lordosis
  3. scoliosis
  4. no deviation is normal
A

lordosis

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5
Q

Crepitation is an audible sound that is produced by:

  1. roughened articular surfaces moving over each other.
  2. tendons or ligaments that slip over bones during motion.
  3. joints that are stretched when placed in hyperflexion or hyperextension.
  4. flexion and extension of an inflamed bursa.
A

roughened articular surfaces moving over each other.

Crepitation is an audible and palpable crunching or grating that accompanies movement. It occurs when the articular surfaces in the joints are roughened. Crepitation is not the cracking noise heard when tendons or ligaments slip over bones during motion. Hyperflexion or hyperextension is assessed with range of motion. Bursitis is an inflamed bursa. Pain may occur with motion of the joint involved.

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5
Q

Murphy sign is best described as:

  1. the pain felt when the hand of the examiner is rapidly removed from an inflamed appendix
  2. pain felt when taking a deep breath when the examiner’s fingers are on the approximate location of the inflamed gallbladder
  3. a sharp apin felt by thge patient when one hand of the examiner is used to thump the other at the costovertebral angle
  4. not a valid examination technique
A
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5
Q

The ____ nerve mediates the muscles of phonation

  1. hypoglossal
  2. glossopharyngeal
  3. vagus
  4. trigeminal
A

vagus

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6
Q

The knee joint is the articulation of three bones, the:

  1. femur, fibula, and patella.
  2. femur, radius, and olecranon process.
  3. fibula, tibia, and patella.
  4. femur, tibia, and patella.
A

femur, tibia, and patella.

The knee joint is the articulation of the femur, the tibia, and the patella. The radius and ulna are bones in the lower part of the upper extremity; the olecranon process is located on the proximal end of the ulna. The fibula is not involved in articulation of the knee joint.

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7
Q

Moles on the abdomen:

  1. are common.
  2. are uncommon.
  3. require a biopsy.
  4. are no cause for concern.
A

are common.

Pigmented nevi (moles) are common on the abdomen. Nevi are circumscribed brown macular or popular areas. Nevi should be observed for unusual color or change in shape; a biopsy or removal is indicated if nevi changes, which indicates a possible malignancy.

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8
Q

The cerebral cortex is described as “gray matter” because it lacks

  1. myelin
  2. astrocytes
  3. melanin
  4. melanocytes
A

myelin

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9
Q

People who have Parkinson disease usually have which of the following characteristic styles of speech?

  1. a garbled manner
  2. loud, urgent
  3. slow, monotonous
  4. word confusion
A
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11
Q

The presence of primitive reflexes in a newborn infant is indicative of:

  1. immaturity of the nervous system.
  2. prematurity of the infant.
  3. mental retardation.
  4. spinal cord alterations.
A

immaturity of the nervous system.

The nervous system is not completely developed at birth, and motor activity in the newborn is under the control of the spinal cord and medulla. The neurons are not yet myelinated. Movements are directed primarily by primitive reflexes. As the cerebral cortex develops during the first year, it inhibits these reflexes, and they disappear at predictable times. Persistence of the primitive reflexes is an indication of central nervous system dysfunction.

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11
Q

The Landau relfex in the infant is seen when:

  1. the head is held and then flops forward as the baby is pulled to a sitting position by holding the wrists
  2. the toes curl down tightly in response to touch on the ball of the baby’s foot
  3. the infant attempts to place his foot on the table while being held with the top of the foot touching the underside of the table
  4. the baby raises the head and arches the back, as in a swan dive
A
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12
Q

Select the sequence of techniques used udring an examination of the abdomen

  1. percussion, insepection, palpation, auscultation
  2. inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
  3. inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
  4. auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
A

inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation

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12
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the Babinski reflex?

  1. It appears at 6 months and disappears by 18 months
  2. It is represented by fanning of the toes
  3. It signals a congenital abnormality
  4. It indicates neurological dysfunction in the newbown
A

It is represented by fanning of the toes

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13
Q

The abdomen normally moves when breathing until the age of ____ years.

  1. 4
  2. 7
  3. 14
  4. 75
A

7

Abdominal breathing in children continues until the age of 7 years.

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14
Q

The _____ lobe is responsible for perception and interpretation of sound

  1. temporal
  2. parietal
  3. occipital
  4. frontal
A

temporal

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15
Q

The left upper quadrant contains the:

  1. liver
  2. appendix
  3. left ovary
  4. spleen
A

spleen

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15
Q

Senile tremors may resemble parkinsonism, except that senile tremors do not include:

  1. nodding the head as if responding yes or no
  2. rigidity and weakness of voluntary movement
  3. tremor of the hands
  4. tongue protrusion
A
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16
Q

Uniformly rounded abdomen with sunken umbilicus, normal BS, tympany, normal palpation

  1. gas
  2. obesity
  3. constipation
  4. fluid
A

obesity

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17
Q

Pyrosis is:

  1. an inflammation of the peritoneum.
  2. a burning sensation in the upper abdomen.
  3. a congenital narrowing of the pyloric sphincter.
  4. an abnormally sunken abdominal wall.
A

a burning sensation in the upper abdomen

Pyrosis (heartburn) is a burning sensation in the esophagus and stomach from reflux of gastric acid.

Peritonitis is an inflammation of the peritoneum. Pyloric stenosis is a congenital narrowing of the pyloric sphincter. A scaphoid abdomen abnormally caves in or is sunken.

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17
Q

The absense of bowel sounds is established after listening for:

  1. 1 full minute
  2. 3 full minutes
  3. 5 full minutes
  4. none of the above
A

5 full minutes

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17
Q

the ____ is not palpable unless enlarged three times its normal size

  1. gallbladder
  2. stomach
  3. spleen
  4. pancreas
A

spleen

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19
Q

The extrapyramidal system is located in the:

  1. hypothalamus.
  2. cerebellum.
  3. basal ganglia.
  4. medulla.
A

basal ganglia.

The basal ganglia are large bands of gray matter buried deep within the two cerebral hemispheres that form the subcortical associated motor system (the extrapyramidal system).

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20
Q

The four layers of large, flat abdominal muscles form the:

  1. linea alba.
  2. rectus abdominus.
  3. ventral abdominal wall.
  4. viscera.
A

ventral abdominal wall.

The four layers of large, flat muscles form the ventral abdominal wall.

The four layers of large, flat muscles form the ventral abdominal wall. One set of abdominal muscles, the rectus abdominis, forms a strip extending the length of the midline. The viscera are all the internal organs inside the abdominal cavity.

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21
Q

A positive Bloumberg sign indicates:

  1. a possible aortic aneurysm
  2. the presence of renal artery stenosis
  3. an enlarged, nodular liver
  4. peritoneal inflammation
A
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22
Q

The range of normal liver span in the right midclavicular line in the adult is:

  1. 2-6 cm
  2. 4-8 cm
  3. 8-14 cm
  4. 6-12 cm
A

6-12 cm

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23
Q

localized distension, normal bs, dull areas of percussion, defined borders on palpation

  1. ovarian cyst
  2. fecal mass
  3. trapped air
  4. tumor
A

tumor

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24
Q

The examiner is going to measure the patient’s legs for length discrepancy. The normal finding would be:

  1. no difference in measurements
  2. 0.5 cm difference
  3. within 1 cm of each other
  4. 2 cm difference
A
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25
Q

Ascites is defined as:

  1. A bowel obstruction
  2. a proximal loop of the large intestine
  3. an abnormal enlargement of the spleen
  4. an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid within the peritoneal cavity.
A

an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid within the peritoneal cavity.

Ascites is free fluid in the peritoneal cavity.

A bowel obstruction may result in abdominal distention.

The proximal loop of the large intestine is the ascending colon.

Splenomegaly is the term to describe an enlarged spleen.

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25
Q

Shifting dullness is a test for:

  1. ascites
  2. splenic enlargement
  3. inflammation of the kidney
  4. hepatomegaly
A

ascites

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26
Q

Heberden and Bouchard nodes are hard and nontender and are associated with:

  1. osteoarthritis.
  2. rheumatoid arthritis.
  3. Dupuytren contracture.
  4. metacarpophalangeal bursitis.
A

osteoarthritis

Osteoarthritis is characterized by hard, nontender nodules, 2 to 3 mm or more. These osteophytes (bony overgrowths) of the distal interphalangeal joints are called Heberden nodes, and those of the proximal interphalangeal joints are called Bouchard nodes.

Swan-neck, boutonnière deformity, and ulnar deviation are conditions associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Dupuytren contracture occurs with diabetes, epilepsy, and alcoholic liver disease. Chronic hyperplasia of the palmar fascia causes flexion contractures of the digits. Bursitis is an inflammation of the bursa.

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26
Q

Thet bulge sign is a test for:

  1. swelling in the suprapatellar pouch
  2. carpal tunnel syndrome
  3. Heberden’s nodes
  4. olecranon bursa inflammation
A
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27
Q

Positive Phalen test and Tinel sign are seen in a patient with:

  1. a torn meniscus
  2. hallux valgus
  3. carpal tunnel syndrome
  4. tennis elbow
A

carpal tunnel syndrome

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28
Q

During an assessment of the spine, the patient would be asked to:

  1. adduct and extend
  2. supinate, evert, and retract
  3. extend, adduct, invert, and rotate
  4. flex, extend, abduct, and rotate
A

flex, extend, abduct, and rotate

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29
Q

Anterior and posterior stability are provided to the knee joint by the:

  1. medial and later menisci
  2. patellar tendon and ligament
  3. medial collateral ligament and quadriceps muscle
  4. anterio and posterior cruciate ligaments
A

anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments

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30
Q

The Glasgow Coma Scale is divided into three areas. They include:

  1. pupillary response, a sreflex test, and assessing pain
  2. eye opening, motor response to stimuli, and verbal response
  3. response to fine touch, sterognosis, and sense of position
  4. orientation, rapid alternating movements, and the Romberg test
A
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31
Q

To examine for the function of the trigeminal nerve in an infant, you would:

  1. startle the baby
  2. hold an object within the child’s line of vision
  3. pinch the nose of the child
  4. offer the baby a bottle
A
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33
Q

Tenderness during abdominal palpation is expected when palpating:

  1. the liver edged
  2. the spleen
  3. the sigmid colon
  4. the kidneys
A
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34
Q

The symptoms occurring with lactose intolerance include:

  1. bloating and flatulence.
  2. gray stools.
  3. hematemesis.
  4. anorexia.
A

bloating and flatulence.

Lactose intolerance will produce abdominal pain, bloating, and flatulence when milk products are consumed. Gray stools may occur with hepatitis. Hematemesis occurs with stomach or duodenal ulcers and esophageal varices. Anorexia is a loss of appetite and occurs with gastrointestinal disease, as side effect of some medications, with pregnancy, or with psychological disorders.

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35
Q

The abdominal wall is bisected at the umbilicus by imaginery longitudinal and horizontal lines for descriptive purposes.

true/false

A

true

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35
Q

Which of the following control gross motor function?

  1. pyramidal tracts
  2. extrapyramidal tracts
  3. spinal nerves
  4. spinothalamic tracts
A

extrapyramidal tracts

36
Q

Cranial nerves have:

  1. sensory functions
  2. all of these
  3. motor functions
  4. parasympathetic functions
A

all of these

37
Q

Automatic associated movements of the body are under the control and regulation of:

  1. the basal ganglia.
  2. the thalamus.
  3. the hypothalamus.
  4. Wernicke’s area.
A

the basal ganglia.

The basal ganglia controls automatic associated movements of the body. The thalamus is where sensory pathways of the spinal cord, cerebellum, and brain stem form synapses on their way to the cerebral cortex. The hypothalamus is a major respiratory center with basic vital functions: temperature, appetite, sex drive, heart rate and blood pressure control; sleep center; anterior and posterior pituitary gland regulator; and coordinator of autonomic nervous system activity and stress response. Wernicke’s area in the temporal lobe is associated with language comprehension.

38
Q

Gastric secretion decreases with age, but does not significantly affect functioning in a health person. TRUE OR FALSE?

A

TRUE

39
Q

Older adults have:

  1. decreased salivation leading to dry mouth.
  2. increased gastric acid secretion.
  3. increased liver size.
  4. decreased incidence of gallstones.
A

decreased salivation leading to dry mouth.

Aging results in decreased salivation leading to dry mouth. Aging results in decreased gastric acid secretion.Aging results in decreased liver size Aging results in increased incidence of gallstone formation..

40
Q

Examination of the should includes four motions. These are:

  1. forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation
  2. abduction, adductin, pronation, and supination
  3. cirumduction, inversion, eversion, and rotation
  4. elevation, retration, protraction, and circumduction
A
41
Q

A positive Babinski is:

  1. dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of all toes
  2. plantar flexion of the the big toe with a fanning of all toes
  3. the expected response in healthy adults
  4. withdrawal of the stimulated extremity from the stimulus
A
43
Q

Hooking is a technique used to palpitate the

  1. kidney
  2. spleen
  3. bladder
  4. liver
A

liver

44
Q

Aortic pulsations can be palpated in the upper anterior abdominal wall. True/False

A

True

46
Q

In which of the following ethnic groups has the lowest incidence of osteoporosis?

  1. African Americans
  2. Whites
  3. Asians
  4. American Indians
A

African Americans

African American adults have a decreased risk of fractures when compared to white adults, and Hispanic women have a decreased risk of fractures compared to white women. The difference in fracture rates may be traced to childhood, where African American and Hispanic children have shown significantly higher bone strength than white children show. There is greater bone density at specific bone sites in African American and Hispanic children.

46
Q

The cremasteric response:

  1. is positive when disease of the pyramidal tract is present
  2. is positve when the ipsilateral testicle elevates upon stroking of the inner aspect of the thigh
  3. is a reflex of the receptors in the muscles of the abdomen
  4. is not a valid neurologic examination
A
47
Q

Clonus that may be seen when testing deep tendon reflexes is characterized by a(n):

  1. additional contraction of the muscle that is of greater intensity than the first.
  2. set of rapid, rhythmic contractions of the same muscle.
  3. parallel response in the opposite extremity.
  4. contraction of the muscle that appears after the tendon is hit the second time.
A

set of rapid, rhythmic contractions of the same muscle.

Clonus is a set of rapid, rhythmic contractions of the same muscle.

49
Q

Testing the deep tendon reflexes gives the examiner information regarding the intactness of the:

  1. corticospinal tract.
  2. medulla.
  3. reflex arc at specific levels in the spinal cord.
  4. upper motor and lower motor neuron synaptic junction.
A

reflex arc at specific levels in the spinal cord.

Measurement of the deep tendon reflexes reveals the intactness of the reflex arc at specific spinal levels.

The corticospinal tract is the higher motor system that permits very skilled and purposeful movements such as writing.

The medulla contains all ascending and descending fiber tracts; it has vital autonomic centers for respiration, heart, and gastrointestinal function as well as nuclei for cranial nerves VIII through XII. T

he upper motor neurons are located within the central nervous system and influence or modify the lower motor neurons and include the corticospinal, corticobulbar, and extrapyramidal tracts. The lower motor neurons are located mostly in the peripheral nervous system and extend from the spinal cord to the muscles; examples include the cranial nerves and spinal nerves.

51
Q

CN _____ has a parasympathetic function

  1. II
  2. VIII
  3. V
  4. III
A

III

53
Q

A 70-year old woman has come for a health examination. Which of the following is a common age-related change in the curvature of the spinal column?

  1. lordosis
  2. scoliosis
  3. kyphosis
  4. lateral scoliosis
A
55
Q

Methods to enhance abdominal wall relaxation during examination include:

  1. a cool environment.
  2. having the patient place arms above the head.
  3. examining painful areas first.
  4. positioning the patient with the knees bent.
A

positioning the patient with the knees bent.

Position the person supine, with the head on a pillow, the knees bent or on a pillow, and arms at the side. Keep the room warm to avoid chilling and tensing of muscles. Avoid having arms above the head; this increases abdominal wall tension. Painful areas should be examined last to avoid muscle guarding.

56
Q

Which of the following is not a pathological reflex?

  1. Brudzinski’s reflex
  2. Kernig’s reflex
  3. Cremasteric reflex
  4. Babinski’s reflex
A

Cremasteric reflex

creamsteric is a superficial reflex

58
Q

The musculoskeletal system functions include:

  1. protection and storage.
  2. movement and elimination.
  3. storage and control.
  4. propulsion and preservation.
A

protection and storage.

The following are functions of the musculoskeletal system: provide support to stand erect; allow movement; to encase and protect the inner vital organs; to produce the red blood cells in the bone marrow; and as a reservoir for storage of essential minerals, such as calcium and phosphorus in the bones.

59
Q

Rounded contour, decrease BS, tympany on percussion, muscle spasm in abdominal wall

  1. Gas with advanced intestinal obstruction
  2. Gas with early intestinal distension
  3. Gas with ileus
A

Gas with ileus

60
Q

Which of the following does not represent assessment of the posterior column tract?

  1. vibration
  2. graphesthesia
  3. stereognosis
  4. light touch
A

light touch

light touch is a function of the spinothalamic tract

61
Q

Cerebellar function is tested by:

  1. muscle strength assessment.
  2. performance of rapid alternating movements.
  3. the Phalen maneuver.
  4. superficial pain and touch assessment.
A

performance of rapid alternating movements

The cerebellum controls motor coordination of voluntary movements, equilibrium, and muscle tone. Cerebellar function is tested by balance tests (e.g., gait, Romberg test) and coordination and skilled movements (e.g., rapid alternating movements, finger-to-finger test, finger-to-nose test, heel-to-shin test). Muscle strength assessment examines the intactness of the motor system. The Phalen maneuver reproduces numbness and burning in a person with carpal tunnel syndrome. Superficial pain and touch assessment examines intactness of the spinothalamic tract.

62
Q

The timing of joint pain may assist the examiner in determining the cause. The joint pain associated with rheumatic fever would:

  1. be worse in the morning
  2. be worse later in the day
  3. be worse in the morning but improve during the day
  4. occur 10 to 14 days after an untreatd sore throat
A
63
Q

Voluntary movement, particularly very skilled, discrete movement is defined by:

  1. spinal nerves
  2. the extrapyramidal tracts
  3. the corticospinal tracts
  4. upper motor neurons
A

the corticospinal tracts

64
Q

What term is used to describe involuntary muscle movements?

  1. Ataxia
  2. Flaccidity
  3. Athetosis
  4. Vestibular function
A

Athetosis

Athetosis is slow, writhing, continuous, and involuntary movements of the extremities.. Ataxia is an impaired ability to coordinate movement, often characterized by a staggering gait and postural imbalance. Flaccidity is weak, soft, and flabby; lacking normal muscle tone. Vestibular function is the sense of balance.

65
Q

The liver and gallbladder are located in the LUQ. True/False

A

False

66
Q

A dull percussion note forward of the left midaxillary line is:

  1. normal, an expected finding during splenic percussion
  2. expected between the 8th and 12th ribs
  3. found if the examination follows a large meal
  4. indicative of splenic enlargement
A
68
Q

the normal span of the ____ is 6-12 cm in an adult

  1. liver
  2. transverse colon
  3. stomach
  4. spleen
A

liver

69
Q

What did the fish say when it swam into a wall?

A
69
Q

an enlarged spleen may be confused with an enlarged kidney. true/false

A

true

71
Q

An abnormal sensation of burning or tingling is best described as:

  1. paralysis.
  2. paresis.
  3. paresthesia.
  4. paraphasia.
A

paresthesia

Paresthesia is an abnormal sensation such as burning or tingling. Paralysis is a loss of motor function due to a lesion in the neurologic or muscular system or loss of sensory innervation. Paresis is a partial or incomplete paralysis. Paraphasia is a condition in which a person hears and comprehends words but is unable to speak correctly; incoherent words are substituted for intended words.

71
Q

Right upper quadrant tenderness may indicate pathology in the

  1. Liver, pancreas, or ascending colon
  2. liver and stomach
  3. sigmoid colon, spleen, rectum
  4. appencdix or ileocecal valve
A
72
Q

CN ____ controls tastes on 2/3 of the tongue

  1. XII
  2. VII
  3. VI
  4. IX
A

VII

73
Q

Auscultation of the abdomen is begun in the right lower quadrant because:

  1. bowel sounds are always normally present here
  2. peristalsis through the descending colon is usually active
  3. this is the location of the pyloric sphincter
  4. vascular sounds are best heard in this area
A
74
Q

The divisions of the spinal vertebrae include:

  1. Cervical, thoracic, scaphoid, sacral, and clavicular.
  2. Scapular, clavicular, lumbar, scaphoid, and fasciculi.
  3. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.
  4. Cervical, lumbar, iliac, synovial, and capsular.
A

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.

Humans have 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 3 to 4 coccygeal vertebrae.

74
Q

The cecum and appendix are located in the RLQ true/false

A

true

75
Q

Striae, which occur when the elastic fibers in the reticular layer of the skin are broken after rapid or prolonged stretching, have a distinct color when of long duration. This color is:

  1. pinl
  2. blue
  3. purple-blue
  4. silvery white
A

silvery white

76
Q

Pronation and supination of the hand and forearm are the result of the articulation of the:

  1. scapula and clavicae
  2. radius and ulna
  3. patella and condyle of fibula
  4. femur and acetabulum
A
77
Q

When testing for muscle strength, the examiner should:

  1. observe muscles for the degree of contraction when the individual lifts a heavy object.
  2. apply an opposing force when the individual puts a joint in flexion or extension.
  3. measure the degree of force that it takes to overcome joint flexion or extension.
  4. estimate the degree of flexion and extension in each joint.
A

apply an opposing force when the individual puts a joint in flexion or extension.

The person should flex or extend muscle groups for each joint while the examiner applies an opposing force. Range of motion can be described by estimating (or measuring) the degree of flexion and extension of a joint.

79
Q

The ______ reflex is an example of a _________ reflex.

  1. plantar; deep tendon
  2. abdominal; superficial
  3. quadriceps; pathologic
  4. corneal light; visceral
A

abdominal; superficial

Superficial reflexes test the sensory receptor in the skin; the motor response is a localized muscle contraction. Superficial reflexes include abdominal, cremasteric, and plantar (or Babinski) reflexes. Deep tendon reflexes test the reflex arc at the spinal level and include the biceps, triceps, brachioradialis, quadriceps, and Achilles. The quadriceps reflex is a deep tendon reflex and is normal. The corneal light reflex assesses the parallel alignment of the eye (cranial nerves III, IV, and VI).

80
Q

Cerebellar function is assessed by which of the following tests?

  1. muscle size and strength
  2. cranial nerve examination
  3. coordination–hop on one foot
  4. spinothalamic test
A

coordination–hop on one foot

81
Q

The medical record indicates that a person has an injury to Broca’s area. When meeting this person you expect:

  1. difficulty speaking
  2. receptive aphasia
  3. visual disturbances
  4. emotional lability
A
82
Q

Dizziness and loss of balance in an elderly individual with position changes is most likely due to:

  1. paresthesias of the lower extremities
  2. vertigo
  3. diminished cerebral blood flow
  4. neurogenic anosomia
A

diminished cerebral blood flow

83
Q

To test for stereognosis, you would:

  1. have the person close his or her eyes, and then raise the person’s arm and ask the person to describe its location
  2. touch the person with a tuning fork
  3. place a coin in the person’s hand and ask him or her to identify it
  4. touch the person with a cold object
A
85
Q

Hyperactive bowel sounds are:

  1. high pitched
  2. rushing
  3. tinkling
  4. all the above
A

all the above

85
Q

Which of the following is not a superfical reflex?

  1. Cremasteric reflex
  2. Abdominal reflex
  3. Achilles reflex
  4. Plantar reflex
A

Achilles reflex

86
Q

Bundles of muscle fibers that compose skeletal muscle are identified as:

  1. fasciculi.
  2. fasciculations.
  3. ligaments.
  4. tendons.
A

fasciculi

Each skeletal muscle is composed of bundles of muscle fibers, or fasciculi.

Fasciculation is localized uncoordinated, uncontrollable twitching of a single muscle group innervated by a single motor nerve fiber or filament. Ligaments are fibrous bands running directly from one bone to another. Tendons are strong fibrous cords that attach skeletal muscles to bones.

88
Q

Blood is supplied to the brain primarily through

  1. venous sinuses
  2. internal carotid arteries
  3. external carotid arteries
  4. vertebral basilar arteries
A

internal carotid arteries

90
Q

Which of the following does NOT represent assessment of DTR’s?

  1. Quadriceps reflex
  2. Patellar reflex
  3. Planter reflex
  4. Biceps reflex
A

Planter reflex

91
Q

The _____________ coordinates movement, maintains equilibrium, and helps maintain posture.

  1. extrapyramidal system
  2. cerebellum
  3. upper and lower motor neurons
  4. basal ganglia
A

cerebellum

The cerebellum controls motor coordination of voluntary movements, equilibrium (i.e., the posture balance of the body), and muscle tone. The extrapyramidal system maintains muscle tone and control body movements, especially gross automatic movements such as walking. The upper motor neurons are located within the central nervous system and influence or modify the lower motor neurons and include the corticospinal, corticobulbar, and extrapyramidal tracts. The lower motor neurons are located mostly in the peripheral nervous system and extend from the spinal cord to the muscles; examples include the cranial nerves and spinal nerves. The basal ganglia controls automatic associated movements of the body.

93
Q

During the examination of an infant, use a cotton-tipped applicator to stimulate the anal sphincter. The absence of a response suggest a lesion of:

  1. L2
  2. T12
  3. S2
  4. C5
A
94
Q

dullness when palpating over the bladder indicates:

  1. fatty tissue
  2. distention
  3. a mass
  4. emptiness
A

distension

95
Q

Which of the following is true regarding reflexes?

  1. Reflex arc is primary innervation to each dermatone
  2. Reflex arc is a mediating sensory component of the ANS
  3. Reflexes permit quick reactions to potentially painful situations
  4. Reflexes are under voluntary control
A

Reflexes permit quick reactions to potentially painful situations

96
Q

During the assessment of extraocular movements, two back-and-forth oscillations of the eyes in the extreme lateral gaze occurs. This response indicates:

  1. that the individual needs to be referred for a more complete eye examination.
  2. a disease of the vestibular system and that should be evaluated.
  3. an expected movement of the eyes during this procedure.
  4. this assessment should be repeated in 15 minutes to allow the eyes to rest.
A

an expected movement of the eyes during this procedure.

Nystagmus is a back-and-forth oscillation of the eyes. End-point nystagmus, a few beats of horizontal nystagmus at extreme lateral gaze, occurs normally.

98
Q

as you listen to the abdomen, the presence of ____ would be an abnormal finding

  1. rushing tinkling
  2. high-pitched cascading
  3. gurgling
  4. pulsatile blowing
A

pulsatile blowing

99
Q

Which of the following transmits pain sensation?

  1. posterior columns
  2. spinothalamic tracts
  3. pyramidal tracts
  4. spinal nerves
A

spinothalamic tracts

100
Q

Which of the following may be noted through inspection of the abdomen?

  1. fluid waves and abdominal contour
  2. umbilical eversion and murphy sign
  3. venous pattern, peristaltic wave and abdominal contour
  4. peritoneal irritation, general tymphany, and peristaltic waves
A

venous pattern, peristaltic wave and abdominal contour

101
Q

Pyloric stenosis is a(n):

  1. abnormal enlargement of the pyloric sphincter.
  2. inflammation of the pyloric sphincter.
  3. congenital narrowing of the pyloric sphincter.
  4. abnormal opening in the pyloric sphincter.
A

congenital narrowing of the pyloric sphincter.

Pyloric stenosis is a congenital defect causing a narrowing of the pyloric sphincter.

102
Q

single, rounded curve with eventual umbilicus, taut shiny skin, diminished S in spots, shifting dullness

  1. air or gas
  2. cyst
  3. ascites
  4. obesity
A

ascites

103
Q

The aorta is just to the left of the midline, in the upper part of the abdomen. true/false?

A

true

104
Q

When assessing for the presence of a herniated nucleus pulposus, the examiner would:

  1. raise each of the patient’s legs straight while keeping the knee extended.
  2. ask the patient to bend over and touch the floor while keeping the legs straight.
  3. instruct the patient to do a knee bend.
  4. abduct and adduct the patient’s legs while keeping the knee extended.
A

raise each of the patient’s legs straight while keeping the knee extended.

The straight leg raising (Lasègue) test reproduces back and leg pain and helps confirm the presence of a herniated nucleus pulposus. The examiner raises each leg straight while keeping the knee in extension. To assess for a spinal curvature, the examiner will have the person will bend over and touch the toes with the knee in extension. Muscle extension can be assessed by instructing the person to rise from a squatting position without using the hands for support. To assess range of motion, the leg should be abducted and adducted with the knee extended.

105
Q

Auscultation of the abdomen may reveal bruits of the _______________ arteries.

  1. aortic, renal, iliac, and femoral
  2. jugular, aortic, caotid, and femoral
  3. pulmonic, aortic, and portal
  4. renal, iliac, internal jugular, and basilic
A
106
Q

An area of the body that is supplied mainly from one spinal segment through a particular spinal nerve is identified as a:

  1. dermatome.
  2. dermal segmentation.
  3. hemisphere.
  4. crossed representation.
A

dermatome

A dermatome is a circumscribed skin area that is supplied mainly from one spinal cord segment through a particular spinal nerve. Dermal segmentation is the cutaneous distribution of the various spinal nerves. Each half of the cerebrum is a hemisphere. Crossed representation is a feature of the nerve tracts; the left cerebral cortex receives sensory information from and controls motor function to the right side of body, whereas the right cerebral cortex likewise interacts with the left side of the body.

107
Q
A
108
Q

During a neurologic examination, the tendon reflex fails to appear. Before striking the tendon again, the examiner might use the technique of:

  1. two-point discrimination
  2. reinforcement
  3. vibration
  4. graphesthesia
A
109
Q

The organ in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen is the:

  1. spleen.
  2. liver.
  3. cecum.
  4. sigmoid colon.
A

liver

The spleen is in the left upper quadrant. The liver is in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. The cecum is in the right lower quadrant. The sigmoid colon is in the left lower quadrant.

110
Q

auscultation of a normal abdomen should yield

  1. peristaltic sounds
  2. all of these
  3. venous hum
  4. bruits
A

peristaltic sounds

Health Assessment (5 decks)

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