Exam 3 ppt key points Flashcards

1
Q

What are the Risk Factors for CAD

A
Age
Gender  (Male)
Family Hx
Smoking- 6x greater in women, 3x greater in males
HTN
High Cholesterol- high LDL & low HDL
Diabetes
Obesity
Physical Inactivity
Stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

At the center of the cardiovascular system is ?

A

the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Myocardial blood supply is derived entirely from ?

A

the right and left coronary arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The left coronary normally supplies

A

the LA, interventricular septum, and LV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The right coronary normally supplies

A

the RA, most of the RV, and variable amounts of LV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The most frequently performed cardiac operation is?

A

Coronary artery bypass grafting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CABG technique involves bypass of a narrowed or occluded epicardial coronary with a small-diameter conduit distal to the narrowed segment. Selected grafts include?

A

reversed saphenous

internal mammary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

___________ appears to have superior long-term performance with 90% patency rates at 10 years.

A

The IMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The choice of conduit in CABG depends on?

A

availability and durability

50% of vein grafts will be significantly diseased or occluded at 10 years.

The IMA appears to have superior long-term performance with 90% patency rates at 10 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When using a saphenous vein graft in CABG, the proximal arterial inflow source is?

A

the ascending aorta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When the LIMA is utilized in CABG, the proximal arterial inflow source is

A

the left subclavian artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

_________ is used to replace the function of the heart in CPB

A

Arterial pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Arterial pump generally uses one of two primary technologies

A

A roller pump

A centrifugal pump – thought to be less traumatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Identify the correct order of steps to CPB

A
  1. Priming
  2. Anticoagulation
  3. Cannulation
  4. Initiation
  5. Maintenance
  6. Weaning and Termination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The solution used to prime the CPB circuit is generally _______

A

a balanced electrolyte solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hemodilution in CPB is due to?

A

Prime volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Standard procedure requires that the patient be ___________ before cannulation for CPB. _______ is still the standard agent used.

A

fully anticoagulated

Heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Heparin administered through a central venous catheter at an initial dose of ________ for CPB

A

300 U/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Heparin Onset is almost immediate, but generally the drug is allowed to circulate for ______________ before it’s effect is measured.

A

3-5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The ACT must increase to at least _______ before CPB is initiated.

A

300 seconds

400 for most institutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The ACT is not used to monitor heparin levels but to monitor __________

A

the anticoagulant effects of heparin and other anticoagulants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Elevated ACT measurements taken, before, during, or after CPB may be influenced by variables other than heparin which include?

A

Hypothermia
Hemodilution
Aprotinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Every CPB procedure requires a high-flow cannula in a large vein and another in a large artery for withdrawing blood from and returning blood to the patient. The target for venous cannulation is ?

A

RA- It’s appendage is conveniently accessible through a sternotomy.

The RA may also be approached through the femoral vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

For CPB venous cannulation, the right atrium can be accessed through?

A

appendage is conveniently accessible through a sternotomy.

The RA may also be approached through the femoral vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The CPB circuit returns oxygenated blood to the patient through the arterial cannula.
For CABG procedures, the standard target for the arterial cannula is ?

A

the portion of the ascending aorta below the aortic arch but still 3-4 cm above the aortic valve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which patients require direct left ventricular venting in CPB

A

patients with severely compromised ventricular function undergoing CABG

Patients undergoing any intracardiac procedures

Patients with aortic insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

left ventricular venting in CPB may be necessary for patients with aortic insufficiency because?

A

The LV vent is separate from the cardioplegia cannula, it can be used to decompress the heart during antegrade cardioplegia administration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

LV vents are typically introduced through ?

A

the right superior pulmonary vein and advanced through the LA, across the mitral valve, and into the LV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the indication that the venous cannula is adequately draining the venous return to the heart?

A

right sided heart pressure (CVP and PAP) should decrease to O mmHg and become nonpulsatile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

During CPB initiation describe arterial BP and arterial tracing

A

Arterial blood pressure should reach a normal mean pressure (60-90 mmHg) while also becoming nonpulsatile.

The arterial tracing usually becomes nonpulsatile as the heart is emptied and the pumping force is changed from the ventricle to the nonpulsatile arterial pump of CPB machine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

During CPB initiation, the heart is arrested in diastole by ?

A

the administration of potassium enriched cardioplegia solution to the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

__________ is the single most important step in reducing the heart’s myocardial oxygen consumption by 90%.

A

Interrupting myocardial electromechanical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Reduction in myocardial consumption by cardioplegia during CPB is augmented by?

A

Hypothermia at 22 degrees C

This is achieved by administering cold cardioplegia solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The combined influence of potassium arrest and myocardial temperatures lower than 22 degress C reduces myocardial oxygen consumption by ________% and enables the tissue to withstand complete interruption of blood flow for periods of ________________

A

97%

20-40 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

For induction of cardioplegic arrest, a “high-K” solution with a potassium concentration of approximately ____________ is used.

A

20-30 mEq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the characteristic of the cardioplegia solution during initiation

A

Has a potassium concentration of approximately 20-30 mEq.

Designed to be slightly hypertonic to reduce edema.

Include a buffer to counter the heart’s production of acidic metabolites.

Contains a substrate for energy or catalysts to assist the heart’s production of ATP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Maintenance phase of CPB entails

A

After isoelectric arrest is induced, the solution is changed to a “low-K” mixture with a potassium concentration of about 10 mEq.

Periodically throughout the procedure, 200-500 mL doses of “low-K” solution are administered to deliver nutrients to the cells and maintain the potassium concentration.

Cardioplegia can be administered antegrade into the coronary arteries via the aortic root, or retrograde into the coronary sinus/veins.

The most complete technique for myocardial protection involves both antegrade and retrograde delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the potassium concentration of cardioplegia solution during CPB.

A

10 mEq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Cardioplegia can be administered antegrade into the coronary arteries via ___________, or retrograde into ________.

A

the aortic root

coronary sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Immediately after termination of CPB, the patient is often hemodynamically supported with?

A

volume (blood, albumin, crystalloids, hespan)

frequently supplemented with vasopressors or inotropic agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

During the weaning and termination phase of CPB, when the patient is hemodynamically stable, protamine can be administered to reverse the anticoagulant effect of Heparin. Protamine dose is ?

A

1mg / 100 units Heparin given.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the primary concern during induction of a patient for CABG

A

Prevention of myocardial ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Two factors associated with myocardial ischemia include

A

Inadequate oxygen supply (coronary lesions)

Excessive oxygen demand (HR, BP, Adrenergic stimulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Patients with _____________ are more susceptible to insult during induction.

A

disease of the left main coronary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Many cardiac patients require fluid loading or prophylactic treatment with pressors during induction because?

A

They have low circulating blood volumes because of hypertensive vasoconstriction.

Small doses of phenylephrine or ephedrine may be necessary to avoid excessive hypotension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The lungs must be deflated to prevent laceration or puncture during sternotomy for how long

A

for approximately 15-20 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Bolus administration of heparin through the central line may decrease arterial pressure by _________?

A

10-20%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

ACT should be approximately __________ before it is safe to institute CPB

A

400 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Anticoagulation is measured _______ after heparin bolus by ACT.

A

3-5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Aortic cannulation is associated with hypertensive response, probably because of?

A

Direct stimulation of sympathetic nerves in the aortic arch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

___________ assists aortic cannulation and prevents laceration of the aorta.

A

Reduction in MAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Venous cannulation may lead to?

A

Fluctuations in arterial pressure and ventricular tachyarrhythmias secondary to manipulation of the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

CPB should not commence unless the following have been completed by the anesthesia provider:

A

Heparin administered

ACT checked and at least 350-400

Adequate muscle relaxation

Inotropic infusions turned off

Pupil symmetry assessed for later comparison

Pulmonary artery catheter pulled back 5 cm

Urinary output emptied before bypass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

During CPB initiation, the clamps placed across the cannulas during insertion are removed in what sequence?

A

venous, then arterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Multiple events occur simultaneously and can cause a significant drop in blood pressure at the initiation of CPB. They are?

A

Preload to the heart decreases causing a loss of stoke volume, while hemodilution decreases blood viscosity and dilutes catecholamines in the plasma contributing to the drop in pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

During CPB initiation, rapid cooling of the patient occurs to a target temperature of ?

A

28 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

ACT is checked every __________ by the perfusionist and is maintained at _________ with the addition of heparin.

A

30-45

> 400 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

While most think CPB is break time, it is NOT! Why?

A
Swan migration
Paralysis
Amnesia
MAP
pH
Urine output
Glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the checklist for weaning from CPB?

A

Patient is warm, at least 35 C

Heart rhythm has returned

HR 70-100. < 60 reduced CO; > 120 reduced LV filling

Inflate lungs

Labs: K+, iCa++, Hct, pH, ACT

Drugs: Lidocaine, Calcium, Magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When the patient is weaned from CPB, considerations should include

A

the ventricular function of the heart before bypass

the length of time the aorta was cross-clamped.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

3 Basic Groups Coming Off Bypass

A

Patients with good ventricular function

Hypovolemic patients

Patients with pump failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Features of hypovolemic patients (mixed group) coming off CBP

A

Respond quickly to 100 mL aliquots of pump blood, FFP, or PRBC’s. BP and CO rise with each bolus, sustainable. LVEDP below 10-15 mmHg.

Impairment should be suspected when LVEDP rises with volume infusion without appreciable changes in BP or CO. These patients require LVEDP above 10-15 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Features of patients with pump failure coming off CBP

A

Sluggish, poorly contracting heart that progressively distends.

Inotropic therapy is initiated. If SVR is high, afterload reduction can be tried along with inotropic therapy.

Ultimately, CPB may need to be reinstituted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

This drug does not increase filling pressure and may be associated with less tachycardia. CO often increases without significant changes in blood pressure.

A

Dobutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

If inotropes and afterload reduction fail during separation from CPB

A

CPB may be used as a bridge to an intra aortic balloon pump.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

This drug improves renal blood flow (low doses) and is often more effective in raising blood pressure than in raising CO.

A

Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Clinically is the most potent inotrope and is usually effective in increasing both cardiac output and systemic blood pressure when other agents have failed. In low doses, it predominantly has beta-agonist activity.

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Large doses of this drug compromise renal blood flow.

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Amrinone and Milrinone

A

Both are phosphodiesterase inhibitors; inotropes with significant arterial and venodilator properties.

Unlike other inotropes, these two inodilators may not appreciably increase myocardial oxygen consumption because they decrease left ventricular afterload and do not directly increase HR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Two inotropes that may not appreciably increase myocardial oxygen consumption because they decrease left ventricular afterload and do not directly increase HR.

A

Amrinone and Milrinone (phosphodiesterase inhibitors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Chest tube drainage in the first 2 hours of more than ___________ in the absence of a hemostatic defect, is excessive.

A

250-300 mL/hr (10mL/kg/hr)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Assess pupils after initiation of CPB as unilateral dilation may indicate

A

arterial inflow into the innominate artery (unilateral carotid perfusion).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Protamine should be administrated slowly over a period of ____________ to reduce the risk for hypotension

A

5-10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

If the heart fibrillates during rewarming, _________ may be necessary.

A

defibrillation (5-10 J)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is given to decrease the likelihood of fibrillation during rewarming

A

lidocaine 100-200 mg and magnesium sulfate 1-2 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

A-line placement when LIMA is being used for CABG

A

If the left mammary artery is to be harvested, A-line placement is best suited in the right radial artery because retractors can dampen the waveform of a left radial A-line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Heparin is always administered before

A

cannulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The PA catheter should be pulled back 3-5 cm to

A

minimize the risk of pulmonary perforation as the pulmonary arteries collapse with the initiation of CPB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is desirable SBP during termination of CPB

A

After termination of CPB, elevated SBP should be avoided to prevent excessive stress on suture lines in the heart and aorta. Usually 90-120 mmHg is a desirable systolic pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

___________ is frequently implicated in post-bypass bleeding.

A

Platelet dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Amicar dose

A

10-29 gm load

1-2 gm/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Stroke is predominant CNS postop complication of CABG. Indicators are

A

Visual impairment
Hemiparesis
Aphasia
Sensory impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

CNS complications after CPB is Usually seen in, pump runs longer than?

A

90 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Cause of coagulopathy after CPB

A

Platelet dysfunction is frequently implicated

Thrombin production and fibrinolysis. Thrombin is produced by the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways and by activated platelets. It is only partially suppressed by heparin therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

__________ is the single most important intraoperative monitor of renal system during CABG

A

Urinary output

Standard is UO of 1 mL/kg/hr.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Renal dysfunction in CPB is related to?

A

length of time on bypass (longer than 3 hours)

cardiac output

Infection

Type of procedure (valve surgery has higher risk)

Excessive blood loss

Diabetes

Increased use of vasopressors

Perioperative myocardial infarction

Use IABP

Massive transfusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Hypothermia during CPB depresses renal tubular function; however what interventions will result in adequate urine output?

A

hemodilution

use of mannitol

maintenance of GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Hyperglycemia during CPB can also affect ________

A

renal tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

During CPB, as the temp is decreased to 28 C what happens

A

ACT, PT, and PTT are prolonged

platelets become nonfunctional

Cellular potassium uptake is increased and may result in hypokalemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The beneficial aspects of hypothermia include

A

a reduced basal metabolic rate

improved myocardial protection

tissue and organ preservation

reduced oxygen consumption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The metabolic requirement for O2 is reduced by _________ for each ________ drop in core body temperature.

A

50%

7° C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

It may not be possible to convert heartbeat to normal sinus rhythm until the rewarming core temperature is _______

A

34°C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Normal stroke volume

A

60-90mL/beath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Normal stroke index

A

40-60 mL/beat/m2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Normal cardiac output

A

5-6 L/min

96
Q

Normal Cardiac index

A

2.5 - 4 L/min/m2

97
Q

Normal SVR

A

700-1400 dyne/sec/cm5

SVR=(MAP-CVP) /(CO x 80)

98
Q

Normal PVR

A

50-300 dyne/sec/cm5

SVR=(PAP-PCWP) /(CO x 80)

99
Q

Left ventricular stroke work index

A

40-60 g•m/beat/m2

100
Q

Coronary perfusion pressure

A

50 mmHg

101
Q

Normal EF

A

55-70%

102
Q

Rate-pressure product

A

> 15000

103
Q

Tripple index

A

> 180,000

104
Q

Thoracic surgery focuses on the chest organs which are?

A

Heart
Lungs
Esophagus
Trachea

105
Q

a surgical procedure to gain access into the pleural space of the chest

A

Thoracotomy

106
Q

Lung function testing: 80-40-15 rule:

A

FEV1 and DLCO > 80% = no additional testing needed. If < 80 or dyspnea present , diffusing capacity and postoperative function should be predicted.

PPO FEV1 and DLCO < 40% = increased risk; exercise testing should be evaluated

VO2 max < 15 ml/kg per min = increased risk

107
Q

___________ is the leading cause of cancer deaths in the United States

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma

108
Q

The incidence of of lung cancer is ________ among COPD patients than in the general population.

A

four times higher

109
Q

Many patients presenting for lung surgery will have complex underlying pathology. Therefore, ______________________ are crucial to anticipating the patient’s intraoperative and postoperative needs.

A

Evaluating respiratory function and predicting post resection function

110
Q

The Anesthetic risk assessment for patients in need of pulmonary resection surgery specific to pulmonary surgery focuses on

A

how the underlying pathology will challenge the maintenance of adequate gas exchange and general homeostasis under OLV

The potential for post op respiratory failure to make weaning and extubation difficult

111
Q

OLV is commonly provided by three different methods:

A

Double lumen tubes
Bronchial blockers
Single lumen endobronchial tubes

112
Q

The principal advantage of double-lumen tubes are

A

relative ease of placement

the ability to ventilate one or both lungs

the ability to suction either lung

113
Q

All DLTs share the following characteristics:

A

Longer bronchial lumen that enters either the right or left main bronchus and another shorter tracheal lumen that terminates in the lower trachea.

A preformed curve that when properly “aimed” allows preferential entry into a bronchus

A bronchial cuff

A tracheal cuff

114
Q

Principal Disadvantages of Double Lumen Tubes are

A

Size selection

Difficult to place in patients with difficult airways

Not optimal for postoperative ventilation (must be changed out if pt to remain intubated)

115
Q

The most commonly used DLTs are available in several sizes:

A

35 FR to 37 Fr for women over 160 cm

37 FR to 39 Fr for men less than 175 cm

39 Fr to 41 for men over 175 cm

116
Q

Even slight movement of the right DLT can lead to malpositioning because?

A

The distance from the carinal bifurcation to the right upper lobe is 1.5-2 cm, compared to 4-5 cm left mainstem bronchus

117
Q

Many practitioners have resolved to using left DLTs for all right and left thoracotomies unless a left sided tube is contraindicated by?

A

lesions of the airway

compression of the trachea or main bronchi by external mass.

118
Q

The most common complication associated with a DLT is

A

malpositioning

119
Q

The larger size of the DLT is probably also responsible for?

A

the slightly increased incidence of hoarseness and vocal cord lesions observed following DLT vs bronchial blocker.

120
Q

Correct steps for Auscultation of Breath Sounds After Placement of a Double Lumen Tube

A

Inflate tracheal cuff

Verify bilateral breath sounds

Inflate the endobronchial cuff

Clamp Y-piece to endobronchial lumen and open to atmosphere

Verify breath sounds (tracheal side) absence (bronchial side)

Unclamp and reconnect the endobronchial lumen and verify breath sounds

Repeat above steps except this time Clamp y-piece on tracheal lumen

121
Q

Fiberoptic Bronchoscopy to Verify Placement of a Double Lumen Tube

A

Insert the scope through the tracheal lumen. Visualize the cirina distally

Visualize the bronchial (blue) cuff 1-2 mm beyond the carina. Ensure that the cuff is not too proximal or overinflated

Insert the scope through the bronchial lumen. Visually confirm that the tip of the bronchial lumen is unobstructed.

For left sided tubes, visualize the bronchial carina distal to the tube tip.

For right sided tubes with a right upper lobe ventilation port, visualize the the right upper lobe bronchus is aligned with the ventilation port

122
Q

The bronchial blocker must be advanced, positioned, and inflated under direct visualization via flexible bronchoscope. T/F

A

True

123
Q

The major advantage of a single-lumen tube with a bronchial blocker is?

A

Unlike a double lumen tube, it does not need to be replaced with a conventional tracheal tube if the patient is to remain intubated.

124
Q

Advantages of bronchial blockers over DLT

A

Because insertion of a DLT is more complicated, bronchial blockers are more useful in patients with a difficult airway or a tracheostomy.

These devices are beneficial for patients who are already intubated.

They are used for pediatric lung separations

125
Q

Disadvantages of bronchial blockers compared to DLT

A

Positioning of the bronchial blocker requires more time than the DLT

Bronchial blockers have a greater incidence of becoming malpositioned

Bronchial blockers do not allow suctioning

126
Q

During two-lung ventilation, blood flow to the dependent lung averages approximately ______

A

60%.

127
Q

When one lung is allowed to deflate and one lung ventilation (OLV) is started, any blood flow to the deflated lung becomes ____________

A

shunt flow, causing the PaO2 to decrease.

128
Q

Without autoregulation of pulmonary blood flow, a __________% shunt would be anticipated.

A

40%

129
Q

a compensatory mechanism of increasing vascular resistance in hypoxic areas of the lungs, and this diverts some blood flow to areas of better ventilation and oxygenation.

A

HYPOXIC PULMONARY VASOCONSTRICTION

130
Q

Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) is?

A

the mechanism by which autoregulation during OLV allows a reflex intrapulmonary feedback mechanism that improves gas exchange and arterial oxygenation.

131
Q

Whereas hypoxemia causes vasodilation in the general circulation, alveolar hypoxia __________

A

has the opposite effect on pulmonary arteries.

132
Q

HPV is Triggered by?

A

alveolar hypoxia, not arterial hypoxia

133
Q

HPV Onset and resolution are within seconds following changes in partial pressure of oxygen(PO2). Peak effect occurs within ________

A

15 minutes

134
Q

May be inhibited by __________ and augmented by __________.

A

vasodilators

chemoreceptor agonists

135
Q

FACTORS THAT REDUCE EFFECTIVENESS OF HPV

A
Alkalosis
Excessive TV or PEEP
Hemodilution 
Hypervolemia
Hypothermia
Prostacyclin
Shunt fraction <20% or >80 %
Vasodilators, phosphodiesterase inhibitors, and calcium channel blocker
Volatile anesthetics > 1.5 MAC
136
Q

Patients presenting for lung resection should undergo pulmonary function testing to assess

A

for airflow limitation

diffusion defect

cardiopulmonary reserve.

the response to bronchodilators for patients who demonstrate obstructive disease

137
Q

The American Thoracic Society considers ______________ post-bronchial therapy to be significant.

A

12% improvement in forced expiratory volume 1 (FEV1)

138
Q

Guidelines to assess thoracic surgical candidacy are not intended to dictate candidacy for anesthesia. If the patient is a candidate for surgery, it is less likely that there will be anesthetic-specific concerns about pulmonary function that would override the surgical decision.

A

True

139
Q

A diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO) less than ______________ has been associated with increased risk of complications following pulmonary surgery.

A

40 %

140
Q

DLCO has been found to have good specificity but low sensitivity as an independent measurement. ___________________ may provide better reliability than single measures.

A

The product of the predicted values of DLCO and FEV1

141
Q

__________ testing is a strong predictor of patient outcomes after thoracic surgery.

A

Maximal oxygen consumption (VO2 max)

142
Q

A VO2 max of ______________ is associated with increased mortality, whereas a VO2 max of ______________ is a favorable finding.

A

less than 10 mL/kg per min ( or 40% predicted value )

greater than 20 mL/kg per min

143
Q

VO2 max may be roughly estimated by evaluating the patient’s ability to climb five flights of stairs which suggests a VO2 max of ____________.

A

20 mL/kg per min.

144
Q

Aggressive treatment of acute or reversible components of respiratory disease greatly decreases the risk of postoperative complications. Treatable preoperative conditions include?

A

infections

excess bronchial secretions

bronchospasm

dehydration

electrolyte imbalance

cigarette smoking (? Vaping)

alcohol abuse

malnutrition.

145
Q

Most research indicates that smoking cessation for less than _________ prior to surgery does not alter risk of complications at all.

A

4 weeks

146
Q

Some research data suggests that smoking cessation less than 1 month may cause

A

increases in mucus production, which may increase complications.

147
Q

Should surgery be delayed to allow for adequate period of smoking cessation?

A

owing to the urgent nature of treating pulmonary carcinoma, delaying surgery to allow for an adequate period of smoking cessation is an impractical goal.

148
Q

For thoracotomies the arterial cannula is generally placed in the

A

dependent arm where it is more easily stabilized.

149
Q

In mediastinoscopy it is arterial cannula is generally placed

A

to provide indication of innominate artery occlusion.

( Monitoring perfusion on the right arm with a pulse oximeter or radial artery catheter can detect decreased flow to the brain via innominate artery compression).

150
Q

Positioning for OLV

A

the lateral decubitus position.

A roll is placed beneath the torso just caudal to the axilla to prevent compression of the neurovascular bundle and forward rotation of the humeral head.

Although called an axillary roll it is better considered an axillary support roll because if positioned in the axilla it could cause compression of the neurovascular area.

Hyperabduction of the arms is prevented to keep the brachial plexus from stretching against the humeral head.

Arms can be separately padded and extended forward on arm boards

The peroneal nerve area is another pressure point area of concern and must be adequately padded, etc

151
Q

Ultra sound transmitted from the transducer into the patient interacts with tissue in four ways:

A
  1. Reflection
  2. Refraction
  3. Scattering
  4. Attenuation
152
Q

Because fat, bone, and air-containing lung interfere with sound-wave penetration, clear transthoracic echocardiogram views are particularly difficult to obtain in patients with

A

obesity, emphysema, or abnormal chest wall anatomy

153
Q

All TEE probes share several common features. All of the currently available probes use

A

a multifrequency transducer that is mounted on the tip of a gastroscope housing.

154
Q

The majority of the echocardiographic examination is performed using ultrasound between _____ and ______.

A

3.5 and 7MHz.

155
Q

In most adult TEE probes, there are two knobs;

A

one allows anterior and posterior movement, and the other permits side-to-side motion.

156
Q

To ensure the continued safety of TEE, the following recommendations have been made:

A

The probe should be inserted gently, and if resistance is met, the procedure aborted.

Minimal transducer energy should be used and the image frozen when not in use.

When not imaging, the probe should be left in the neutral, unlocked position to avoid prolonged pressure on the esophageal mucosa.

If possible, the electrical isolation also should be checked.

The probe should be inspected before each insertion for cleanliness and structural integrity.

157
Q

What are the patient history relative contraindications of TEE

A
Dysphagia
Odynophagia
Mediastinal radiation
Recent Upper GI bleed
Recent Upper Surgery 
Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm
158
Q

What are the pathological relative contraindications of TEE

A
Stricture
Tumor Diverticulum 
Varices
Esophagitis
Recent Chest Trauma
159
Q

During TEE probe insertion

A

Can aspirate stomach contents
Can use Laryngoscope for better visual if needed
Should visualize heart at 30 cm
Probe insertion post patient anesthetized and ETT secured (if applicable)

160
Q

During TEE probe insertion the heart should be visualized at _____cm

A

30cm

161
Q

During manipulation of TEE, the probe is horizontal at what degree?

A

0 degree

162
Q

TEE PROBE MANIPULATION

A

Rotating- Left (Counterclockwise) Right (Clockwise) Using large wheel

Small wheel changes plane angle

O degree – horizontal

90 degree- vertical

180 degree- mirror of O degree

163
Q

TEE UE View

A

Transducer at level of the aortic arch, which is examined in LAX and SAX. In many patients, images of the main pulmonary artery (PA) and pulmonic valve (PV) also may be developed for the TG window.

164
Q

Cerebral blood flow is provided by

A

internal carotid arteries (80%) and vertebral arteries (20%) (these anastomose at base of brain to from circle of Willis-which provides primary collateral channels)

165
Q

Maintain CO2 at what during CEA

A

Normocapnia

166
Q

CBF is maintained relatively constant in range of MAP _______

A

50-150

167
Q

AHA guidelines recommend CEA for asymptomatic pts. with carotid stenosis of ________ if perioperative risk of stroke or death is __________

A

60-99%

< 3%

168
Q

There are three major branches of the thoracic aorta:

A

Brachiocephalic artery: Right Common Carotid (Internal carotid, External carotid) Rt Subclavian artery

Left Common Carotid (Internal carotid, External carotid)

Left Subclavian artery

169
Q

The external carotids supply blood to

A

the face and neck.

170
Q

The internal carotids supply blood to the

A

brain via the circle of Willis and eyes via the ophthalmic arteries.

171
Q

Before heparin is administered and the internal, external common carotid arteries are clamped.

A

Control of the internal, external, and common carotid arteries is established

172
Q

During a carotid endarterectomy, MAP plays the predominant role in determining CPP because?

A

ICP is usually not elevated

173
Q

Opened artery exposes baroreceptors to atmospheric pressure leading to?

A

Causes firing down the myelinated A-type fibers and C-type fibers of the glossopharyngeal nerve to the nucleus tractus solitarius

Triggers central systemic pressure response

174
Q

Carotid chemo-response

A

Rapid drop in oxygen tension

Further cause increasing signals down afferent pathway

175
Q

Overall exposure of baroreceptors during CEA will cause

A

Onset of tachycardia and severe hypertension and thus increases in afterload and myocardial oxygen demand

176
Q

GA does not prevent hemodynamic response of manipulation of the carotid sinus (severe vagal response) during CEA. The SRNA should know

A

Advisable to inject 1-2 mL of 1% lidocaine in the tissue b/w the internal and external carotid arteries before surgical manipulation (by surgeon)

Severe hemodynamic response can lead to spasming of the coronary artery

It is important to avoid large blood pressure swings especially upon intubation and emergence

177
Q

Maintenance normocarbia during CEA, high or low will lead to?

A

Hypercarbia leads to cerebral vasodilation => Steal syndrome could occur.

Hypocarbia leads to vasoconstriction => Ischemia to compromised area(s) of brain

178
Q

Two main intra-operative goals in CEA are?

A

Protecting the brain

Protecting the heart

179
Q

Protecting the heart is one of the main goals of CEA because?

A

The presence of concurrent CAD and carotid stenosis is well documented.

Although stroke is a devastating consequence of carotid endarterectomy, myocardial infarction contributes more frequently to poor surgical outcomes than stroke.

180
Q

Perform a preoperative test on the effects of Operative Head Positioning on CBF because?

A

It is well documented that hyper-extension and lateral rotation of the head may occlude vertebral basilar flow and, if sustained, contribute to post-op cerebral ischemia.

181
Q

In CEA, just before cross clamping of the carotid artery, an additional dose of Barbiturates, Benzo’s, Propofol, should be given for?

A

to produce burst suppression may be administered for its cerebral protective effects.

182
Q

In a CEA patient, a hematoma that causes respiratory distress should be evacuated before re-intubation is attempted. T/F

A

True

183
Q

If the CEA patient emerges from anesthesia with a new neurological deficit, what should be done?

A

immediate surgical exploration of the site or immediate cerebral angiography should be performed

184
Q

Stump pressure (pressure distal to the carotid clamp) is used to evaluate the adequacy of cerebral perfusion. Cerebral ischemia rarely occurs at stump pressures of?

A

> 60 mmHg.

185
Q

Traditionally a distal stump pressure of less ___________ has been used as an indication for a shunt

A

than 50 mm Hg

surgeon specific now
a

186
Q

It is desirable to maintain MAP at or slightly above the patient’s highest recorded resting pressure while awake during CEA because?

A

Volatile anesthetics impair autoregulation; therefore, the higher the pressure, the more likely it is that cerebral perfusion will be adequate during surgical occlusion.

Phenylephrine is ideal to support BP

Maintain MAP (typical 80-100)

187
Q

What is the appropriate regional block for CEA

A

Blockade of the superficial cervical plexus effectively blocks the C2-C4 nerves and allows the patient to remain comfortably awake during surgery.

188
Q

What is the Principal advantage of regional block for CEA

A

Patients can be examined intraop thus the need for a temporary shunt can be assess and any new neurological deficits diagnosed immediately during surgery.

189
Q

Nerves at risk of injury when the carotid sheath is opened to expose the carotid artery are

A

Phrenic
Vagus
Hypoglossal
RLN

190
Q

ppoFEV1% =

A

=preop FEV1% x (1-% functional lung tissue removed)
__________________________
100

191
Q

The three-legged stool of pre thoracotomy respiratory assessment

A

Respiratory Mechanics
ppoFEV1%
> 40% low risk
< 30% high risk

Lung Parenchymal Function (gas exchange)
DLCO
< 40% increased risk
Measures gas exchange capacity in the lungs.
Correlates with the functional surface area of the alveolar-capillary interface.

Cardiopulmonary Reserve (Cardio-respiratory interaction)
VO2max
< 15 mL/kg/min
Measures the maximum capacity of the body to transport and utilize oxygen during exercise

192
Q

WHich of the heart chambers isn’t ever implanted with pacer wire

A

Left atrium

193
Q

Most modern pacemakers are?

A

Bipolar

194
Q

Which types of cardiomyopathy may be an indication for pacemaker

A

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

Dilated cardiomyopathy

195
Q

Troubleshooting a pacemaker requires?

A

Recognition of the problem

Knowledge of whether the device is magnet sensitive

Access to a programmer

196
Q

Pacemaker capture

A

Depolarization of the heart chamber in response to PM electrical output

197
Q

Failure to sense

A

The PM fails to recognize intrinsic cardiac electrical activity

198
Q

Failure to capture

A

When PM’s electrical output fails to cause myocardial depolarization

199
Q

What are the Indications for Implantable Cardioverter defibrillators

A
Coronary Artery Disease
Heart Failure
Arrhythmia
Structural Abnormalities
Conduction Disturbances
200
Q

Letters on AICD mean?

A

First letter describes the chamber that will be shocked

Second letter indicates the chamber where anti-tachycardia pacing occurs

Third letter denotes the device’s method of rhythm detection

Fourth letter identifies which chamber will deliver back-up pacing

201
Q

Letters on pacemaker mean?

A

The first letter identifies the chamber where the pacing electrode is placed. (A,V,D)

The second letter identifies the chamber where the sensing electrode is placed. (A,V,D)

The third identifies the PMs response to the detection of spontaneous cardiac depolarization and its effect of subsequent pacing stimuli. (I,T,D)

The fourth letter of the code represents rate modulation (R, O)

The fifth and final letter identifies multisite pacing. (A,V,D,O)

202
Q

12- lead ECG may reveal a paced rhythm but will not inform the provider of ?

A

the underlying rate dependence, or type of device.

203
Q

To avoid harmful effects of EMI (Electromagnetic interference) on paced patients intraop

A

Reprogramming is recommended when expectation of increased EMI, cautery used, or when surgical site is close to device.

PM can be programmed to an asynchronous mode and an ICD can have anti-tachycardia therapy disabled.

204
Q

Most prevalent source of EMI is

A

the electrosurgical cautery

205
Q

Monopolar cautery produces more energy than bipolar and requires the placement of a grounding pad. Must make sure not to place where?

A

over implantable metal such as over total hip hardware

Less risk with bipolar electrocautery devices

206
Q

________________ remains the only reliable method of CIED assessment.

A

Direct interrogation

207
Q

The aortic systolic blood pressure results from the summated effects of

A

stroke volume

aortic compliance

peripheral vascular resistance.

208
Q

The aortic wall has three layers, those are?

A

a thin intima or inner layer lined by endothelium,

a thick media or middle layer,

a thin adventitia or outermost layer.

209
Q

The endothelium is the site for atherosclerosis because?

A

It is in direct contact with blood and it is easily traumatized.

210
Q

The part of the aortic wall consists mainly of collagen and contains the vasa vasorum that nourishes the outer half of the aortic wall.

A

The adventitia

211
Q

The frequency of infrarenal aortic aneurysms can be explained by?

A

The fact that the vasa vasorum are absent in the infrarenal aorta

212
Q

The thoracic aorta comprises

A

the ascending aorta

the aortic arch

the descending aorta

213
Q

The ascending aorta is about _______ cm long and comprises the_______ and ___________.

A

9 cm

aortic root and ascending aorta

214
Q

Anatomy of Aorta

A

The aortic root includes the aortic valve annulus and the sinuses of Valsalva that terminate at the sinotubular junction.

The origin of the innominate artery marks the end of the ascending aorta and the beginning of the aortic arch.

The aortic arch lies within the superior mediastinum between the ascending and descending thoracic aorta.

215
Q

The aortic isthmus is vulnerable to traumatic injury because?

A

It is subjected to high shear forces after blunt trauma or rapid deceleration.

216
Q

The relatively mobile ascending aorta and arch join the descending thoracic aorta at?

A

Aortic isthmus

217
Q

the most common site for aortic coarctation is?

A

Aortic isthmus

218
Q

__________ are the first branches of the aorta.

A

The coronary arteries

219
Q

The aortic arch subsequently gives origin to the ______________ arteries that supply the head, neck, and arms.

A

innominate

left carotid

left subclavian

220
Q

The aortic arch also modulates blood pressure via __________ within its outer wall.

A

baroreceptors

221
Q

The aortic bodies are located

A

inferior to the aortic arch.

222
Q

The aortic baroreceptors are less sensitive when compared with the carotid sinus receptors because?

A

They respond to a greater threshold pressure

223
Q

____________ can detect partial occlusion or obstruction of flow to innominate artery caused by inadvertent placement of aortic clamp too close to origin of innominate artery.

A

Right radial

224
Q

Intraoperative TEE is reasonable in thoracic aortic procedures, including endovascular interventions, in which it assists in ?

A

hemodynamic monitoring, procedural guidance, and endoleak detection

225
Q

Therefore, the detection of mobile atheroma in the aortic arch is an important TEE finding in TEVAR because?

A

it predicts a greater stroke risk.

226
Q

TEVAR

A

Thoracic endoscopic aortic repair

227
Q

In the presence of acute AR, β-blockers should be used with caution because

A

they block the compensatory tachycardia.

228
Q

In the absence of contraindications in a patient with dissecting aorta, β-blockers should be titrated to a heart rate of

A

60 beats/min

229
Q

In management of aortic disection, Vasodilator therapy should not be initiated before heart rate control because?

A

to avoid the associated reflex tachycardia that might

230
Q

This class of intimal tear may occur at any aortic locus but is most common in the descending thoracic aorta.

A

Penetrating Atherosclerotic Ulcer which describes an isolated disruption of the intimal layer of the aortic wall at the site of atheromatous disease

231
Q

Intraoperative epiaortic ultrasound imaging is superior to ____________ for thoracic aortic atheroma

A

manual palpation or TEE

232
Q

chronic vasculitis that affects primarily the thoracic aorta

A

Takayasu arteritis

233
Q

Takayasu arteritis occurs most frequently in

A

young Asian women and occurs worldwide.

234
Q

______________ may be the only site for accurate measurement of central aortic pressure in patients with stenosis of both subclavian arteries

A

The femoral artery

235
Q

In aortic coarctation, avoiding surgical dissection in the region of the distal aortic arch also decreases the risk for injury to the _____________ nerves.

A

recurrent laryngeal and phrenic

236
Q

Spinal cord perfusion pressure=

A

mean arterial pressure – lumbar CSF pressure

SCPP=MAP-LCSFP

Should be > than 70 mm Hg after thoracic aortic repair

237
Q

Potential complications of Lumbar Cerebral Spinal Drainage

A
epidural hematoma
intradural hematoma
catheter fraction
meningitis
intracranial hypotension
&amp; postdural puncture HA.