Exam 3 Part 1 Flashcards
More commonly referred to as just “Lupus”
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Classic systemic autoimmune condition that notoriously affects multiple organ systems
Lupus (SLE)
What makes Lupus so hard to diagnose?
Wide-variety of organs involved
What condition is known as the “Great Imitator”
Lupus (SLE)
A condition that involves high amounts of autoantibody production
Lupus (SLE)
Lupus primarily involves injury to the host’s tissues via Type ___ and Type ___ Hypersensitivities
II
III
Antigens that form in response to nuclear components
Anti-Nuclear Antibodies (ANA’s)
_______ test is characteristically associated with autoimmune conditions and is a common lab test that assists in the diagnosis of Lupus
Anti-Nuclear Antibodies (ANA’s)
Like many autoimmune conditions, Lupus is considered
Idiopathic
A minimum of ________ diagnostic criteria must be met to meet the threshold of diagnosing Lupus.
Four
Malar Rash, Discoid Skin Rash, Photosensitivity and Painless Oral Ulcers would be indicative of
Lupus (SLE)
Blood cell disorders, Immunological Antibodies, Serositis, and Renal Disorders would be indicative of
Lupus (SLE)
Lupus is most likely to affect ___________- age ____ ____.
Reproductive
Females
What population is at the highest risk for developing Lupus?
African-American Females
There is a _______ concordance rate of Lupus in monozygotic twins, but a 3% concordance rate in ______________ twins.
25%
Dizygotic
Individuals with HLA-DR2 or HLA-DR3 are at around a ____-fold increased risk for developing risk
Three
A unique environmental exposure that exacerbates the features of lupus is ______________ _______.
Ultraviolet (UV) Light
The increased reactivity of the skin following exposure to sunlight or UV light.
Photosensitivity
Tissues that are commonly affected by lupus are the ________, joints and serosal membranes.
Skin
Tissues that are commonly affected by lupus are the skin, ________ and serosal membranes.
Joints
Tissues that are commonly affected by lupus are the skin, joints and ___________ ______________.
Serosal Membranes
If red blood cells are affected by Lupus the presentation would be
Hemolytic Anemia (Fatigue)
If Hemolytic Anemia (Fatigue) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?
Red Blood Cells
If white blood cells are affected by Lupus the presentation would be
Recurrent or Persistent Infections
If Recurrent or Persistent Infections are present with Lupus, what tissues would be affected?
White Blood Cells
If Platelets are affected by Lupus the presentation would be
Bleeding Tendencies
If Bleeding Tendencies are present with Lupus, what tissue would be affected?
Platelets
If the Kidney’s tissues are affected by Lupus the presentation would be
Glomerulonephritis
Proteinuria
Red Blood Cell “Casts”
Renal Failure
If Glomerulonephritis, Proteinuria, RBC “Casts” or Renal Failure are present with Lupus, what tissue would be affected?
Kidney Tissue
If the skin is affected by Lupus the presentation would be
Inflammation (Malar Rash or Discoid Rashes)
If Inflammation (Malar Rash or Discoid Rashes) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?
Skin
If the CNS tissue is affected by Lupus the presentation would be
Seizures
Psychosis
Neurological Dysfunction
Stroke
If Seizures, Psychosis, Neuorological Dysfunction and Stroke is present with Lupus, what tissue would be affected?
CNS TIssue
If joint tissues are affected by Lupus the presentation would be
Nonerosive Arthritis (Jaccoud’s Arthropathy)
If Nonerosive Arthritis (Jaccoud’s Arthropathy) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?
Joint Tissue
If the pericardium is affected by Lupus, the presentation would be
Pericarditis (Chest Pain)
If Pericarditis (Chest Pain) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?
Pericardium
If the Pleura is affected by Lupus, the presentation would be
Pleuritis (Pleurisy)
If Pleuritis (Pleurisy) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?
Pleura
If the vessel wall is affected by Lupus, the presentation would be
Vasculitis
If Vasculitis is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?
Vessel Wall
If the heart tissue is affected by Lupus, the presentation would be
Carditis and Possible Arrhythmia
If Carditis and Possible Arrhythmia are present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?
Heart Tissue
Approximately half of all Lupus patients have clinically significant __________ damage
Renal
Renal damage is the result of __________ ______________ deposition within the glomeruli
Immune Complex
When deposition of immune complex occurs within the glomeruli, an inflammatory reaction is initiated. This inflammatory reaction is known as
Lupus Nephritis (Glomerulonephritis)
Lupus Nephritis (Glomerulonephritis) is a Type ______ Hypersensitivity reaction
III
_________ Failure is the most common cause of death in someone with Lupus.
Renal
Characteristic pattern of cardiac valve damage that is specific to Lupus patients.
Libman-Sacks Endocarditis
Patients with coronary artery involvement commonly present with _________ prior to suffering a heart attack
Angina
Patients with coronary artery involvement commonly present with angina prior to suffering a ________ ________
Heart Attack
An autoimmune condition that is most well-known for producing dry eyes and dry mouth
Sjörgen Syndrome
Dry mouth and dry eyes with Sjörgen Syndrome is the result of CD4+ T Cells infiltrating the ________ and __________ glands.
Lacrimal
Salivary
Dry eyes associated with Sjörgen Syndrome are referred to as
Keratoconjunctivitis Sica
Dry mouth associated with Sjörgen Syndrome are referred to as
Xerostomia
Enlargement of the __________ Gland is common amount Sjörgen Syndrome patients.
Parotid
Up to _______ of Sjörgen Syndrome patients will test positive for Anti-Nuclear Antibodies (ANA’s)
80%
Up to 80% of Sjörgen Syndrome patients will test positive for ______-_______ __________________.
Anti-Nuclear Antibodies (ANA’s)
Sjörgen Syndrome is most likely to affect _________ who are between the ages of 30 and 60 years of age.
Women
Sjörgen Syndrome that occurs as an isolated disorder is known as
Sicca Syndrome
If Sjörgen Syndrome developes after the onset of another autoimmune condition(s), it is known as
Secondary Sjörgen Syndrome
Secondary Sjörgen Syndrome is most likely to develop in patients diagnosed with
Rheumatoid Arthritis
T/F. Sicca Syndrome is more common than Secondary Sjörgen Syndrome
False (Secondary Sjörgen Syndrome is)
Often referred to as “Scleroderma” because of its frequent involvement with the skin.
Systemic Sclerosis
Autoimmune condition that causes chronic inflammation in multiple soft tissues, resulting in fibrosis.
Systemic Sclerosis
Hardening of the involved tissues in Systemic Sclerosis is due to excessive __________ deposition.
Collagen
Abnormal hardening of a body tissue
Sclerosis
Widespread hardening of tissues
Systemic Sclerosis
Once the inflammatory reaction of Systemic Sclerosis begins, ____________ recruit fibroblasts to the site, depositing scar tissue
Cytokines
Patients with Systemic Sclerosis may have _________________ fibroblasts, which contribute to the excessive fibrosis.
Hyperactive
Systemic Sclerosis has a female-to-male ratio of ___-to-____
3 to 1
Systemic Sclerosis occurs in adults who are around age ____-___ years of age
40-60
Women tend to develop Systemic Sclerosis at a[n] ____________ age.
Younger
Men tend to develop Systemic Sclerosis at a[n] ______________ age.
Elderly
Systemic Sclerosis often involves soft tissue fibrosis that damages the body’s __________________.
Vasculature
Most cases (95%) of Systemic Sclerosis are found on the
Skin (Cutaneous Tissues)
Second most common cases (90%) of Systemic Sclerosis are found at the
Alimentary Tract
Defined by its aggressive and severe nature
Diffuse Systemic Sclerosis
Widespread, involving many visceral tissues.
Diffuse Systemic Sclerosis
Patients with _______________ Systemic Sclerosis have a worse prognosis and do not live as long as individuals with ________________ Systemic Sclerosis
Diffuse
Limited
Less severe type of Sclerosis and involves small areas of the skin (often fingers, forearms and face).
Limited Systemic Sclerosis
Small areas of the skin, often confined to the fingers, affected by Limited Systemic Sclerosis is known as
Sclerodactyly
Condition describing a characteristic pattern of tissue involvement in those with limited systemic sclerosis.
CREST Syndrome
The ‘C’ in CREST Syndrome stands for
Calcinosis of the subcutaneous tissues, especially in the hands
The ‘R’ in CREST Syndrome stands for
Reaynaud’s Phenomenon
The ‘E’ in CREST Syndrome stands for
Esophageal Dysmotility (Aperistalsis)
The ‘S’ in CREST Syndrome stands for
Sclerodactyly
The ‘T’ in CREST Syndrome stands for
Telangiectasia (Spider Veins)
Genetically determined immunodeficiency disorder
Primary Immunodeficiency Disorder
Immunodeficiency disorder that is acquired as a consequence of infections, cancer, severe malnutrition, or as a side-effect of chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or immunosuppressive medication therapy.
Secondary Immunodeficiency Disorder
_________ results in a predisposition to developing infections and disease such as cancer, in more severe situations.
Immunodeficiency
Individuals with many forms of immunodeficiency have an increased risk of developing ___________ conditions
Autoimmune
Inherited disorders of the immune system that are frequently detected between 6 months and 2 years of age, due to susceptibility to recurrent infections
Primary Immunodeficiency
X-linked Agammaglobulinemia or XLA
Bruton’s Disease
The mutation for this condition is on the x-chromosome (x-linked), only males are affected.
Bruton’s Disease
Bruton’s Disease becomes apparent after maternal antibodies are depleted around _________ after birth.
6 Months
6 months after birth recurrent __________ and ________ infections become noticibly more frequent and more intense.
Bacterial
Viral
__________ infections frequently involve the respiratory tract and cause sinusitis, bronchitis, pharyngitis, bronchitis, or pneumonia.
Bacterial
Bacterial or viral infections of the middle ear may cause _____ _____
Otitis Media
_________ infections of the gastrointestinal tract (G.I. Tract) may cause abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting or diarrhea
Viral
In patients with Bruton’s disease, the body’s immune deficiency stems from a mutation in the ______ _______ ______ gene
Bruton’s Tyrosine Kinase (BTK)
Bruton’s Tyrosine Kinase (BTK) halts the ___________ of pre-B cells into mature and fully functional B Cells.
Differentiation
When the immune system needs to produce antibodies, __________ ___ cells transition into plasma cells, which produce antibodies.
Functional B
Since patients with Bruton’s disease are unable to produce fully functional mature B cells they are unable to produce antibodies, which results in
Agammaglobulinemia
Absence of gamma globulins (antibodies) in the blood.
Agammaglobulinemia
Since the BTK gene is located on the x chromosome, this condition always affects
Males
The additional x chromosome that _______ possess protection against this and other x-linked conditions
Females
Females may not be affected by Burton’s Disease, however they may still be ________ and pass the mutation to their offspring.
Carriers
Group of different disorders that are grouped together because they manifest in similar ways.
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)
What do all patients with SCID have in common?
Impaired development of T cells and or B Cells
A lack of appropriate lymphocyte production is present in all cases of
SCID
______ and ______ of the lymphatic tissues occurs in most forms of SCID
Atrophy
Hypoplasia
SCID is most common among
Native Americans
Within the first year of life, patients with SCID will experience
Intense Oral Thrush (Oral Candadiasis) Severe Diaper Rash Cytomegaloviral Infection of the Upper Respiratory Tract Fungal Infections of the lungs Varicella Zoster Viral Infection
Fungal infection that occurs from any form of the Candida Fungi (yeast)
Candadiasis
Common cause of oral candidiasis and this fungal infection may also inhabit the vaginal canal and cause vaginal candidiasis, frequently referred to as
Yeast Infection
Poor prognosis
Destruction
Decreasing function
Metastasis
Invasion of natural body cavities (Ovaries and CNS)
Seeding
Fungal infection that occurs from any form of the Candida Fungi (yeast)
Candadiasis
This fungal infection may also inhabit the vaginal canal and cause vaginal candadiasis, frequently referred to as a “yeast infection”
Candadiasis
General term that applies to the various skin rashes that develop in the skin that is covered by a diaper, following irritation
Diaper Rash
The warm and moist environment of a soiled diaper may stimulate bacterial or fungal infections, which cause a rash due to ______________
Irritation
Phase that is most commonly used as when a newborn fails to grow or gain weight (fails to met developmental milestones).
Failure to thrive
Causes of Secondary Immune Deficiency
Cancer metastasis to the bone Bone marrow cancer (leukemia) HIV infection/AIDS Ionizing radiation therapy Immunosuppressive medications
Causes of Secondary Immune Deficiency
Chemotherapy Severe malnutrition Advanced diabetes Chronic infection Removal of the spleen (splenectomy)
The prototypical secondary immunodeficiency disorder is _____, which is acquired later in life after someone succumbs to an HIV infection.
AIDS
Blood-borne secondary immunodeficiency disease that results from an infection with the ________ ______________ ______.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
_________ _______________ ______ is transmitted during conditions that involve exchanging bodily fluids that contain the virus.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
Most common mode of transmitting HIV and accounts for about 75% of all infections
Sexual Transmission
The most commonly affected population affected in the U.S. by sexually transmitted AIDS.
Men (having sex with men)
Most frequently involving contact blood that contains HIV and is largely limited to drug abusers who share contaminated needles or other paraphernalia that has been exposed to infected blood.
Parenteral Transmission
Casual physical contact with an individual who is infected with HIV is ______ to transmit the virus and spread from insect bites is considered to be “virtually impossible”
Unable
The spread from insect bites is considered to be
Virtually Impossible
Most common reason that a child (pediatric) may develop an HIV infection and pediatric cases represent about 2% of all cases of AIDS
Mother-to-infant Transmission
Has the ability to cross the placenta and move from mom’s blood to the baby’s blood.
HIV
Breast milk may transmit HIV and vaginal secretions may infect a newborn with HIV, due to exposure during
Birth
Have largely eliminated maternal-to-infant HIV transmission in the US.
Antiretoviral Medications
The main targets within the body for an HIV infection are the
Immune System
Central Nervous System
Profound immunodeficiency occurs once HIV has infected a critical amount of
CD4+ T Cells
When CD4+ T Cell levels reach fewer than ______ cells, the individual is said to have “AIDS”
200 cells per microliter (μl)
Individuals with mutations in the CCR5 protein are known to have a ___________ to aids
Resistance
Once the viral RNA has entered the cytoplasm of the infected cell the process of ______ ________ allows for viral replication within the cell
Reverse Transcription
Over time, an infected cell will be killed off, via __________ and direct cytotoxicity
Apoptosis
What is the primary target of HIV?
CD4+ T Cells
HIV may also infect
Monocytes
Macrophages
Dendritic Cells
The ability of HIV to cross the blood-brain barrier is by crossing via an infected
Monocytes
Macrophages
Much of the CNS destruction that occurs in HIV/AIDS patients is due to infected
Monocytes
Macrophages
HIV infection transitioning into AIDS is commonly categorized as a
3-Step Process
Three steps of HIV to AIDS
- Acute Phase
- Chronic (Latent) Phase
- A Crisis Phase
Acute Phase of an HIV Infection
Immediate response following infection
HIV infects mucosal tissues and begins to spread into local lymph nodes
Death of CD4+ T Cells
Spike in HIV Viremia
Within 3-6 weeks, most develop a reaction “Acute HIV Syndrome”
Immune system responds to HIV and viremia begins to fall
Complete eradication does not occur
Chronic Phase of an HIV Infection
Follows the acute phase
Associated with HIV replication within the lymphatic tissues (lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus gland)
Unlikely to manifest with obvious features of infection
Steady decline of CD4+ T Cells
Gradual increase of HIV viremia
Lymphadenopathy
2-10 years in duration before transitioning to Crisis Phase
Crisis Phase
When the process is no longer referred to as an HIV infection
Sometimes called “full-blown” AIDS
Final phase in the process of this disease
Associated with severe immune dysfuction
Decline of CD4+ T Cells below level of 200 cells per microliter
Clinical Features of AIDS
Opportunistic Infections
Tumors
Central Nervous System Disorders
Most patients (80%) with AIDS pass away from
Lethal Infections via Opportunistic Infections
Characteristic infections of Opportunistic Infections that afflict AIDS patients
Pneumocystis Pneumonia
Candidiasis
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Tuberculosis (TB)
Is the result of a Pneuocystis Jirovecii infection and produces a fungal lung infection (pneumonia)
Pneumocystis Pneumonia
Reported in early 1980’s and led to the identification of AIDS
Pneumocystis Pneumonia
Common fungal infection in patients with AIDS and commonly affects the oral cavity (thrush), vaginal canal (yeast infection), or esophagus (candida esophagitis)
Candidiasis
Common upper respiratory tract infection in individuals without HIV/AIDS, but it commonly affects the G.I. Tract or CNS in patients who are in the crisis phase of AIDS
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Bacterial infection that is a common cause of death, throughout the world
Tuberculosis (TB)
Responsible for approximately 1/3 of all AIDS-related deaths, worldwide, but remains uncommon within the U.S.
Tuberculosis (TB)
The following cancers are frequently associated with AIDS
Kaposi Sarcoma
Lymphoma
While about _____ of all individuals with AIDS manifest with some form of CNS-related neurological dysfunction
50%
Approximately 90% have evidence of _____ damage upon autopsy
CNS
Vascular tumor that is an “AIDS-defining” cancer
Kaposi Sarcoma
Develops following a Kaposi Sarcoma Herpevirus (HIV) infection
Kaposi Sarcoma
Most individuals who are infected with KSHV, but do not have any features until ______ develop.
AIDS
When AIDS develops the virus reemerges from dormancy and causes purple spots on the skin that are characteristic of
Kaposi Sarcoma
Develops in about 5% (or 1/20) of all patients with AIDS, which is about 10-times more common than those who do not have AIDS.
Lymphoma
Causes infectious mononucleosis, they are most likely to manifest with AIDS-related lymphomas
Lymphoma
While about 50% of all individuals with AIDS manifest with some form of CNS-related neurological dysfunction, approximately _____ have evidence of CNS damage upon autopsy
90%
Extracellular fibrillar proteins (amyloid proteins) are deposited and cause tissue damage and dysfunction
Amyloidosis
All amyloid deposits are composed of
Nonbranching Fibrils
Aggregates of amyloid proteins are unable to be removed via
Phagocytosis
Aggregates of amyloid proteins initiate an ____________reaction at the site where they accumulate.
Inflammatory
Fibril
Slender Fiber
Forms of Amyloid Proteins
AL (Amyloid Light) Proteins
AA (Amyloid Assocatied) Proteins
β-Amyloid (Aβ)
Transthyretin (TTR)
Form of amyloid protein that is composed of immunoglobulin light chains
Characteristically associated with the plasma cell cancer known as Multiple Myeloma
AL (Amyloid Light) Proteins
Most cases of primary amyloidosis involve
AL (Amyloid Light) Proteins
Form of amyloid protein that is associated with Alzheimer Disease
β-Amyloid (Aβ)
Form of amyloid protein that is most likely to be deposited in individuals with chronic inflammatory conditions
AA (Amyloid Assocatied) Proteins
Most cases of secondary amyloidosis involve
AA (Amyloid Assocatied) Proteins
Following conditions such as Tuberculosis, Osteomyelitis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Crohn’s Disease, Ulcerative Colitis are all characteristic of
AA (Amyloid Assocatied) Proteins
β-Amyloid (Aβ) plaques are neurotoxic and cause neurdegeneration that results in the dementia of
Alzheimer’s Disease
Form of amyloid protein that accumulates in excessive amounts more commonly in older individuals.
Transthyretin (TTR)
_____________ commonly accumulates in the walls of the heart of patients with senile cardiac amyloidosis
Transthyretin (TTR)
If Transthyretin (TTR) proteins accumulate throughout many organ systems, it may be referred to as
Senile Systemic Amyloidosis
Distribution of amyloid proteins that involves multiple organ systems in various regions of the body
Systemic Amyloidosis
The most common cause of systemic amyloidosis is when ___________ proteins accumulate following the plasma cell cancer known as Multiple Myeloma
AL (Amyloid Light) Proteins
__________ amyloid deposition comes with a poorer prognosis than _______ amyloid depostion.
Systemic
Localized
Accumulation of amyloid proteins in a singular (isolated) region of the body.
Localized Amyloidosis
Common areas of localized Amyloidosis
Heart Lungs Ligaments of the wrist Tongue Larynx Brain Skin Liver Kidney Spleen
Regardless of the location, when amyloid proteins accumulate, they cause changes in the
Tissue Structure
The diagnosis of amyloidosis requires ___________ evaluation
Histological
Congo Red dye is commonly combined with polarized light to produce the characteristic
Apple-Green Birefringence
Renal and Heart Failure are the most common cause of death related to
Amyloidosis
Neoplasm translates to
New Growth (tumors)
All tumors involve __________ cellular growth
Dysregulated
Neoplasms may be ________ or _______
Benign
Malignant
Anticipated or usual course of a disease
Prognosis
Neoplasms that have “relatively innocent” cellular characteristics
Benign Tumors
The majority of benign tumors are ___________ to a single area and will not ____________ to other sites
Localized
Metastasize (Spread)
The majority of benign tumors do not cause harm and are limited to only _________ significiance
Cosmetic
What are the three critical locations that a benign tumor may be found and cause harm?
Vessels
Nerves
Glandular Tissue
Tend to be slow growing, encapsulated or surrounded by CT, fairly mobile when palpated and localized
Benign Tumors
This type of tumor is more likely to be surgically removed, due to lack of invasiveness into surrounding tissues
Benign Tumors
Patients are unlikely to die from ________ tumors
Benign
The naming of bengin tumors commonly involves the suffix
-oma
If a benign tumor is found in Fibrotic Tissue
Fibroma
If a benign tumor is found in Fat Tissue
Lipoma
If a benign tumor is found in Cartilaginous Tissue
Chondroma
If a benign tumor is found in Glandular Tissue
Adenoma
The Melanocytic Nevus is an example of a benign tumor, most people refer to this as a
Mole
3 Primary examples of common tumor masses
Polyps
Papilloma
Hamartoma
Mass of tissue that projects above a mucosal surface
Polyp
Until a mass is biopsied and histologically evaluated is it known as a
Polyp
Benign epithelia neoplasm that produces microscopic “finger-like fronds”, very small extensions or outgrowths away from the surface
Papilloma
Macroscopically, areas of papilomatous growth appear as a
Wart
Papillomas are stimulated by _______ ____________ infections
Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
HPV is able to infect _________ cells.
Epithelial
Mass of tissue that is overgrowing and the tissues involved are native to the site/tissues at the area of involvement
Hamartoma
All tumors are composed of a
Parenchyma
Stroma
Genetically altered component of the tumor and determines the biological nature of the tumor
Parenchyma
Composed of the tissues that support and surround the parenchymal mass and provides blood supply and supportive structure to the tumor.
Stroma
Successful tumors must have a supportive ________ in the same way a seed needs an appropriate soil to grow.
Stroma
The degree to which tumor cells resemble their cell of origin
Differentiation
Lack of differentiation in neoplastic cells
Anaplasia
Anaplastic tumors involve cells that lack
Specialization
The term anaplasia translates into
To form backward
Involve multiple tissue types because differentiation occurred in multiple directions, resulting in multiple tissue types.
Mixed Tumors
Contain a fibrotic component as well as a glandular component and are the most common benign tumor of the female breast
Fibroadenoma
The salivary glands are also very likely to produce a classically mixed benign tumor, known as
Pleomorphic Adenoma
Mixed tissue tumors are more likely to be ________ and less ____________
Benign
Aggressive
Tumor that involves at least two of the three embryonic germ cells layers.
Teratomas
Frequently described as containing cells from all three germ cell layers
Teratomas
Tumor that involve tissue types such as bone, cartilage, epithelial, muscle, fat, hair, teeth, or nerves.
Teratomas
Teratomas may be ________ or _________
Benign
Malignant
Malignant neoplasms that originate from solid mesenchymal origin are referred to as
Sarcomas (or Carcinomas)
Cancers that arise from mesenchymal cells in the blood are referred to as
Leukemia or Lymphoma
WBC cancer that is in circulating blood or in the bone marrow
Leukemia
WBC cancer in the lymphatic system
Lymphoma
Among the most common pediatric tumors are _________ and _______ _______
Leukemia Bone Cancer (Osteosarcoma)
If a sarcoma is found in fat cells
Liposarcoma
If a sarcoma is found in fibrotic tissue
Fibrosarcoma
If a sarcoma is found in smooth muscle cells
Leiomyosarcoma
If a sarcoma is found in skeletal muscle cells
Rhabdomyosarcoma
If a sarcoma is found in cartilage
Chondrosarcoma
If a sarcoma is found in vessel walls
Angiosarcoma
If a sarcoma is found in bone
Osteosarcoma
Cancers that originate from epithelial cells and are most common form of cancer cells
Carcinomas
More likely to be age-related cancers that are very unlikely to develop in the first half of life
Carcinomas
Major categories of carcinomas are those that develop in a _________ or ________ pattern.
Glandular
Squamous
If carcinomas are found in lung and bronchial tissues
Bronchogenic Carcinoma (Lung Cancer)
If carcinomas are found in kidneys
Renal Cell Carcinoma
If carcinomas are found in skin
Basal Cell Carcinoma
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Melanoma
If carcinomas are found in liver
Hepatocellular Carcinoma
If carcinomas are found in prostate
Prostatic Adenocarcinoma
If carcinomas are found in colorectal tissue
Colorectal Adenocarcinoma
If carcinomas are found in pancreas
Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma
Carcinomas develop in a predictable pattern or pre-cancerous known as
Dysplasia
Disorderly proliferation of cells and is a risk for further cellular irregulatirites
Dysplasia
Involves irregular epithelial cells and is characterized by a loss of cellular uniformity among individual cells as well as a loss of an organized cellular orientation
Dysplasia
The earliest form of cancer and commonly referred to as “pre-invasive” cancer
Carcinoma in situ
The phrase ‘in situ’ is Latin for
In its original place
Stage 0
Earliest stage of cancer
Earliest stage of cancer has yet to penetrate the surrounding _________ membrane
Basement
Lies at the division between pre-neoplastic lesions and invasive carcinomas
Carcinoma in situ
Very common form of stage 0 breast cancer that is frequently discovered upon mammography
Ductal Carcinoma in situ
Benign tumors are more likely to have cells with greater degrees of _________ while malignant tumors are more likely to contain ___________
Differentiation
Anaplasia
Rapid growth is associated with ________ tumors
Malignant
Rapidly growing tumors are more likely to contain cellular ______ and have prominent mitotic figures
Anaplasia
Prominent mitotic figures are indicative that the mass is
Growing more quickly
Local invasion may also beknown as
Infiltration or Local Destruction
Because benign tumors tend to grow more slowly, and form a rim of compressed fibrotic tissue which creates a distinct line where the tumor starts and stops as is referred to as
Encapsulated
When a tumor is encapsulated it is less likely to be affixed to the surrounding tissue and is more ______ upon palpation
Mobile
Not all benign tumors are ___________, but they are more likely to be
Encapsulated
Cancers are more likely to be
Unencapsulated
Spread of a tumor to distant sites within the body that are no longer continuous with the primary tumor
Metastasis (“Mets”)
Characteristic that unequivocally indicates that a tumor is malignant
Metastasis
Malignant neoplasms metastasize three primary routes
Seeding within body cavities
Lymphatic Spread
Hematogenous Spread
This route of metastasis is relatively rare and characteristic of ovarian cancers or cancers of the CNS
Seeding within body cavities of Metastasis
Characteristic route of metastasis for carcinomas
Lymphatic Spread of Metastasis
The ________ _______ node is the first lymph node that receives lymphatic drainage from the area where the primary tumor is located.
Sentinel Lymph
Enlargement of the lymph nodes is known as
Lymphadenopathy
Lymph nodes that contain cancer metastasis may or may not be _______ to palpation
Tender
Over time, metastatic cancer may spread from the lymph nodes to the hematopoietic system via the
Thoracic Duct
Characteristic route of metastasis for sarcomas
Hematopoietic Spread of Metastasis
Since sarcomas are of CT origin (mesenchymal), it is reasonable for these types of tumors to metastasize via the
Blood
Cancers within the hemaotopietic system frequently spread to the first __________ _____ that is encountered.
Capillary Bed
