Exam 3 Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

More commonly referred to as just “Lupus”

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

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2
Q

Classic systemic autoimmune condition that notoriously affects multiple organ systems

A

Lupus (SLE)

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3
Q

What makes Lupus so hard to diagnose?

A

Wide-variety of organs involved

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4
Q

What condition is known as the “Great Imitator”

A

Lupus (SLE)

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5
Q

A condition that involves high amounts of autoantibody production

A

Lupus (SLE)

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6
Q

Lupus primarily involves injury to the host’s tissues via Type ___ and Type ___ Hypersensitivities

A

II

III

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7
Q

Antigens that form in response to nuclear components

A

Anti-Nuclear Antibodies (ANA’s)

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8
Q

_______ test is characteristically associated with autoimmune conditions and is a common lab test that assists in the diagnosis of Lupus

A

Anti-Nuclear Antibodies (ANA’s)

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9
Q

Like many autoimmune conditions, Lupus is considered

A

Idiopathic

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10
Q

A minimum of ________ diagnostic criteria must be met to meet the threshold of diagnosing Lupus.

A

Four

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11
Q

Malar Rash, Discoid Skin Rash, Photosensitivity and Painless Oral Ulcers would be indicative of

A

Lupus (SLE)

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12
Q

Blood cell disorders, Immunological Antibodies, Serositis, and Renal Disorders would be indicative of

A

Lupus (SLE)

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13
Q

Lupus is most likely to affect ___________- age ____ ____.

A

Reproductive

Females

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14
Q

What population is at the highest risk for developing Lupus?

A

African-American Females

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15
Q

There is a _______ concordance rate of Lupus in monozygotic twins, but a 3% concordance rate in ______________ twins.

A

25%

Dizygotic

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16
Q

Individuals with HLA-DR2 or HLA-DR3 are at around a ____-fold increased risk for developing risk

A

Three

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17
Q

A unique environmental exposure that exacerbates the features of lupus is ______________ _______.

A

Ultraviolet (UV) Light

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18
Q

The increased reactivity of the skin following exposure to sunlight or UV light.

A

Photosensitivity

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19
Q

Tissues that are commonly affected by lupus are the ________, joints and serosal membranes.

A

Skin

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20
Q

Tissues that are commonly affected by lupus are the skin, ________ and serosal membranes.

A

Joints

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21
Q

Tissues that are commonly affected by lupus are the skin, joints and ___________ ______________.

A

Serosal Membranes

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22
Q

If red blood cells are affected by Lupus the presentation would be

A

Hemolytic Anemia (Fatigue)

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23
Q

If Hemolytic Anemia (Fatigue) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?

A

Red Blood Cells

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24
Q

If white blood cells are affected by Lupus the presentation would be

A

Recurrent or Persistent Infections

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25
Q

If Recurrent or Persistent Infections are present with Lupus, what tissues would be affected?

A

White Blood Cells

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26
Q

If Platelets are affected by Lupus the presentation would be

A

Bleeding Tendencies

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27
Q

If Bleeding Tendencies are present with Lupus, what tissue would be affected?

A

Platelets

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28
Q

If the Kidney’s tissues are affected by Lupus the presentation would be

A

Glomerulonephritis
Proteinuria
Red Blood Cell “Casts”
Renal Failure

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29
Q

If Glomerulonephritis, Proteinuria, RBC “Casts” or Renal Failure are present with Lupus, what tissue would be affected?

A

Kidney Tissue

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30
Q

If the skin is affected by Lupus the presentation would be

A

Inflammation (Malar Rash or Discoid Rashes)

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31
Q

If Inflammation (Malar Rash or Discoid Rashes) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?

A

Skin

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32
Q

If the CNS tissue is affected by Lupus the presentation would be

A

Seizures
Psychosis
Neurological Dysfunction
Stroke

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33
Q

If Seizures, Psychosis, Neuorological Dysfunction and Stroke is present with Lupus, what tissue would be affected?

A

CNS TIssue

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34
Q

If joint tissues are affected by Lupus the presentation would be

A

Nonerosive Arthritis (Jaccoud’s Arthropathy)

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35
Q

If Nonerosive Arthritis (Jaccoud’s Arthropathy) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?

A

Joint Tissue

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36
Q

If the pericardium is affected by Lupus, the presentation would be

A

Pericarditis (Chest Pain)

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37
Q

If Pericarditis (Chest Pain) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?

A

Pericardium

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38
Q

If the Pleura is affected by Lupus, the presentation would be

A

Pleuritis (Pleurisy)

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39
Q

If Pleuritis (Pleurisy) is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?

A

Pleura

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40
Q

If the vessel wall is affected by Lupus, the presentation would be

A

Vasculitis

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41
Q

If Vasculitis is present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?

A

Vessel Wall

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42
Q

If the heart tissue is affected by Lupus, the presentation would be

A

Carditis and Possible Arrhythmia

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43
Q

If Carditis and Possible Arrhythmia are present with Lupus, what tissue is affected?

A

Heart Tissue

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44
Q

Approximately half of all Lupus patients have clinically significant __________ damage

A

Renal

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45
Q

Renal damage is the result of __________ ______________ deposition within the glomeruli

A

Immune Complex

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46
Q

When deposition of immune complex occurs within the glomeruli, an inflammatory reaction is initiated. This inflammatory reaction is known as

A

Lupus Nephritis (Glomerulonephritis)

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47
Q

Lupus Nephritis (Glomerulonephritis) is a Type ______ Hypersensitivity reaction

A

III

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48
Q

_________ Failure is the most common cause of death in someone with Lupus.

A

Renal

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49
Q

Characteristic pattern of cardiac valve damage that is specific to Lupus patients.

A

Libman-Sacks Endocarditis

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50
Q

Patients with coronary artery involvement commonly present with _________ prior to suffering a heart attack

A

Angina

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51
Q

Patients with coronary artery involvement commonly present with angina prior to suffering a ________ ________

A

Heart Attack

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52
Q

An autoimmune condition that is most well-known for producing dry eyes and dry mouth

A

Sjörgen Syndrome

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53
Q

Dry mouth and dry eyes with Sjörgen Syndrome is the result of CD4+ T Cells infiltrating the ________ and __________ glands.

A

Lacrimal

Salivary

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54
Q

Dry eyes associated with Sjörgen Syndrome are referred to as

A

Keratoconjunctivitis Sica

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55
Q

Dry mouth associated with Sjörgen Syndrome are referred to as

A

Xerostomia

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56
Q

Enlargement of the __________ Gland is common amount Sjörgen Syndrome patients.

A

Parotid

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57
Q

Up to _______ of Sjörgen Syndrome patients will test positive for Anti-Nuclear Antibodies (ANA’s)

A

80%

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58
Q

Up to 80% of Sjörgen Syndrome patients will test positive for ______-_______ __________________.

A

Anti-Nuclear Antibodies (ANA’s)

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59
Q

Sjörgen Syndrome is most likely to affect _________ who are between the ages of 30 and 60 years of age.

A

Women

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60
Q

Sjörgen Syndrome that occurs as an isolated disorder is known as

A

Sicca Syndrome

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61
Q

If Sjörgen Syndrome developes after the onset of another autoimmune condition(s), it is known as

A

Secondary Sjörgen Syndrome

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62
Q

Secondary Sjörgen Syndrome is most likely to develop in patients diagnosed with

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

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63
Q

T/F. Sicca Syndrome is more common than Secondary Sjörgen Syndrome

A

False (Secondary Sjörgen Syndrome is)

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64
Q

Often referred to as “Scleroderma” because of its frequent involvement with the skin.

A

Systemic Sclerosis

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65
Q

Autoimmune condition that causes chronic inflammation in multiple soft tissues, resulting in fibrosis.

A

Systemic Sclerosis

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66
Q

Hardening of the involved tissues in Systemic Sclerosis is due to excessive __________ deposition.

A

Collagen

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67
Q

Abnormal hardening of a body tissue

A

Sclerosis

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68
Q

Widespread hardening of tissues

A

Systemic Sclerosis

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69
Q

Once the inflammatory reaction of Systemic Sclerosis begins, ____________ recruit fibroblasts to the site, depositing scar tissue

A

Cytokines

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70
Q

Patients with Systemic Sclerosis may have _________________ fibroblasts, which contribute to the excessive fibrosis.

A

Hyperactive

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71
Q

Systemic Sclerosis has a female-to-male ratio of ___-to-____

A

3 to 1

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72
Q

Systemic Sclerosis occurs in adults who are around age ____-___ years of age

A

40-60

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73
Q

Women tend to develop Systemic Sclerosis at a[n] ____________ age.

A

Younger

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74
Q

Men tend to develop Systemic Sclerosis at a[n] ______________ age.

A

Elderly

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75
Q

Systemic Sclerosis often involves soft tissue fibrosis that damages the body’s __________________.

A

Vasculature

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76
Q

Most cases (95%) of Systemic Sclerosis are found on the

A

Skin (Cutaneous Tissues)

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77
Q

Second most common cases (90%) of Systemic Sclerosis are found at the

A

Alimentary Tract

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78
Q

Defined by its aggressive and severe nature

A

Diffuse Systemic Sclerosis

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79
Q

Widespread, involving many visceral tissues.

A

Diffuse Systemic Sclerosis

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80
Q

Patients with _______________ Systemic Sclerosis have a worse prognosis and do not live as long as individuals with ________________ Systemic Sclerosis

A

Diffuse

Limited

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81
Q

Less severe type of Sclerosis and involves small areas of the skin (often fingers, forearms and face).

A

Limited Systemic Sclerosis

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82
Q

Small areas of the skin, often confined to the fingers, affected by Limited Systemic Sclerosis is known as

A

Sclerodactyly

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83
Q

Condition describing a characteristic pattern of tissue involvement in those with limited systemic sclerosis.

A

CREST Syndrome

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84
Q

The ‘C’ in CREST Syndrome stands for

A

Calcinosis of the subcutaneous tissues, especially in the hands

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85
Q

The ‘R’ in CREST Syndrome stands for

A

Reaynaud’s Phenomenon

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86
Q

The ‘E’ in CREST Syndrome stands for

A

Esophageal Dysmotility (Aperistalsis)

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87
Q

The ‘S’ in CREST Syndrome stands for

A

Sclerodactyly

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88
Q

The ‘T’ in CREST Syndrome stands for

A

Telangiectasia (Spider Veins)

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89
Q

Genetically determined immunodeficiency disorder

A

Primary Immunodeficiency Disorder

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90
Q

Immunodeficiency disorder that is acquired as a consequence of infections, cancer, severe malnutrition, or as a side-effect of chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or immunosuppressive medication therapy.

A

Secondary Immunodeficiency Disorder

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91
Q

_________ results in a predisposition to developing infections and disease such as cancer, in more severe situations.

A

Immunodeficiency

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92
Q

Individuals with many forms of immunodeficiency have an increased risk of developing ___________ conditions

A

Autoimmune

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93
Q

Inherited disorders of the immune system that are frequently detected between 6 months and 2 years of age, due to susceptibility to recurrent infections

A

Primary Immunodeficiency

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94
Q

X-linked Agammaglobulinemia or XLA

A

Bruton’s Disease

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95
Q

The mutation for this condition is on the x-chromosome (x-linked), only males are affected.

A

Bruton’s Disease

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96
Q

Bruton’s Disease becomes apparent after maternal antibodies are depleted around _________ after birth.

A

6 Months

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97
Q

6 months after birth recurrent __________ and ________ infections become noticibly more frequent and more intense.

A

Bacterial

Viral

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98
Q

__________ infections frequently involve the respiratory tract and cause sinusitis, bronchitis, pharyngitis, bronchitis, or pneumonia.

A

Bacterial

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99
Q

Bacterial or viral infections of the middle ear may cause _____ _____

A

Otitis Media

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100
Q

_________ infections of the gastrointestinal tract (G.I. Tract) may cause abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting or diarrhea

A

Viral

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101
Q

In patients with Bruton’s disease, the body’s immune deficiency stems from a mutation in the ______ _______ ______ gene

A

Bruton’s Tyrosine Kinase (BTK)

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102
Q

Bruton’s Tyrosine Kinase (BTK) halts the ___________ of pre-B cells into mature and fully functional B Cells.

A

Differentiation

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103
Q

When the immune system needs to produce antibodies, __________ ___ cells transition into plasma cells, which produce antibodies.

A

Functional B

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104
Q

Since patients with Bruton’s disease are unable to produce fully functional mature B cells they are unable to produce antibodies, which results in

A

Agammaglobulinemia

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105
Q

Absence of gamma globulins (antibodies) in the blood.

A

Agammaglobulinemia

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106
Q

Since the BTK gene is located on the x chromosome, this condition always affects

A

Males

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107
Q

The additional x chromosome that _______ possess protection against this and other x-linked conditions

A

Females

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108
Q

Females may not be affected by Burton’s Disease, however they may still be ________ and pass the mutation to their offspring.

A

Carriers

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109
Q

Group of different disorders that are grouped together because they manifest in similar ways.

A

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)

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110
Q

What do all patients with SCID have in common?

A

Impaired development of T cells and or B Cells

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111
Q

A lack of appropriate lymphocyte production is present in all cases of

A

SCID

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112
Q

______ and ______ of the lymphatic tissues occurs in most forms of SCID

A

Atrophy

Hypoplasia

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113
Q

SCID is most common among

A

Native Americans

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114
Q

Within the first year of life, patients with SCID will experience

A
Intense Oral Thrush (Oral Candadiasis)
Severe Diaper Rash
Cytomegaloviral Infection of the Upper Respiratory Tract
Fungal Infections of the lungs
Varicella Zoster Viral Infection
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115
Q

Fungal infection that occurs from any form of the Candida Fungi (yeast)

A

Candadiasis

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116
Q

Common cause of oral candidiasis and this fungal infection may also inhabit the vaginal canal and cause vaginal candidiasis, frequently referred to as

A

Yeast Infection

117
Q

Poor prognosis
Destruction
Decreasing function

A

Metastasis

118
Q

Invasion of natural body cavities (Ovaries and CNS)

A

Seeding

119
Q

Fungal infection that occurs from any form of the Candida Fungi (yeast)

A

Candadiasis

120
Q

This fungal infection may also inhabit the vaginal canal and cause vaginal candadiasis, frequently referred to as a “yeast infection”

A

Candadiasis

121
Q

General term that applies to the various skin rashes that develop in the skin that is covered by a diaper, following irritation

A

Diaper Rash

122
Q

The warm and moist environment of a soiled diaper may stimulate bacterial or fungal infections, which cause a rash due to ______________

A

Irritation

123
Q

Phase that is most commonly used as when a newborn fails to grow or gain weight (fails to met developmental milestones).

A

Failure to thrive

124
Q

Causes of Secondary Immune Deficiency

A
Cancer metastasis to the bone
Bone marrow cancer (leukemia)
HIV infection/AIDS
Ionizing radiation therapy
Immunosuppressive medications
125
Q

Causes of Secondary Immune Deficiency

A
Chemotherapy
Severe malnutrition
Advanced diabetes
Chronic infection
Removal of the spleen (splenectomy)
126
Q

The prototypical secondary immunodeficiency disorder is _____, which is acquired later in life after someone succumbs to an HIV infection.

A

AIDS

127
Q

Blood-borne secondary immunodeficiency disease that results from an infection with the ________ ______________ ______.

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

128
Q

_________ _______________ ______ is transmitted during conditions that involve exchanging bodily fluids that contain the virus.

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

129
Q

Most common mode of transmitting HIV and accounts for about 75% of all infections

A

Sexual Transmission

130
Q

The most commonly affected population affected in the U.S. by sexually transmitted AIDS.

A

Men (having sex with men)

131
Q

Most frequently involving contact blood that contains HIV and is largely limited to drug abusers who share contaminated needles or other paraphernalia that has been exposed to infected blood.

A

Parenteral Transmission

132
Q

Casual physical contact with an individual who is infected with HIV is ______ to transmit the virus and spread from insect bites is considered to be “virtually impossible”

A

Unable

133
Q

The spread from insect bites is considered to be

A

Virtually Impossible

134
Q

Most common reason that a child (pediatric) may develop an HIV infection and pediatric cases represent about 2% of all cases of AIDS

A

Mother-to-infant Transmission

135
Q

Has the ability to cross the placenta and move from mom’s blood to the baby’s blood.

A

HIV

136
Q

Breast milk may transmit HIV and vaginal secretions may infect a newborn with HIV, due to exposure during

A

Birth

137
Q

Have largely eliminated maternal-to-infant HIV transmission in the US.

A

Antiretoviral Medications

138
Q

The main targets within the body for an HIV infection are the

A

Immune System

Central Nervous System

139
Q

Profound immunodeficiency occurs once HIV has infected a critical amount of

A

CD4+ T Cells

140
Q

When CD4+ T Cell levels reach fewer than ______ cells, the individual is said to have “AIDS”

A

200 cells per microliter (μl)

141
Q

Individuals with mutations in the CCR5 protein are known to have a ___________ to aids

A

Resistance

142
Q

Once the viral RNA has entered the cytoplasm of the infected cell the process of ______ ________ allows for viral replication within the cell

A

Reverse Transcription

143
Q

Over time, an infected cell will be killed off, via __________ and direct cytotoxicity

A

Apoptosis

144
Q

What is the primary target of HIV?

A

CD4+ T Cells

145
Q

HIV may also infect

A

Monocytes
Macrophages
Dendritic Cells

146
Q

The ability of HIV to cross the blood-brain barrier is by crossing via an infected

A

Monocytes

Macrophages

147
Q

Much of the CNS destruction that occurs in HIV/AIDS patients is due to infected

A

Monocytes

Macrophages

148
Q

HIV infection transitioning into AIDS is commonly categorized as a

A

3-Step Process

149
Q

Three steps of HIV to AIDS

A
  1. Acute Phase
  2. Chronic (Latent) Phase
  3. A Crisis Phase
150
Q

Acute Phase of an HIV Infection

A

Immediate response following infection
HIV infects mucosal tissues and begins to spread into local lymph nodes
Death of CD4+ T Cells
Spike in HIV Viremia
Within 3-6 weeks, most develop a reaction “Acute HIV Syndrome”
Immune system responds to HIV and viremia begins to fall
Complete eradication does not occur

151
Q

Chronic Phase of an HIV Infection

A

Follows the acute phase
Associated with HIV replication within the lymphatic tissues (lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus gland)
Unlikely to manifest with obvious features of infection
Steady decline of CD4+ T Cells
Gradual increase of HIV viremia
Lymphadenopathy
2-10 years in duration before transitioning to Crisis Phase

152
Q

Crisis Phase

A

When the process is no longer referred to as an HIV infection
Sometimes called “full-blown” AIDS
Final phase in the process of this disease
Associated with severe immune dysfuction
Decline of CD4+ T Cells below level of 200 cells per microliter

153
Q

Clinical Features of AIDS

A

Opportunistic Infections
Tumors
Central Nervous System Disorders

154
Q

Most patients (80%) with AIDS pass away from

A

Lethal Infections via Opportunistic Infections

155
Q

Characteristic infections of Opportunistic Infections that afflict AIDS patients

A

Pneumocystis Pneumonia
Candidiasis
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Tuberculosis (TB)

156
Q

Is the result of a Pneuocystis Jirovecii infection and produces a fungal lung infection (pneumonia)

A

Pneumocystis Pneumonia

157
Q

Reported in early 1980’s and led to the identification of AIDS

A

Pneumocystis Pneumonia

158
Q

Common fungal infection in patients with AIDS and commonly affects the oral cavity (thrush), vaginal canal (yeast infection), or esophagus (candida esophagitis)

A

Candidiasis

159
Q

Common upper respiratory tract infection in individuals without HIV/AIDS, but it commonly affects the G.I. Tract or CNS in patients who are in the crisis phase of AIDS

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

160
Q

Bacterial infection that is a common cause of death, throughout the world

A

Tuberculosis (TB)

161
Q

Responsible for approximately 1/3 of all AIDS-related deaths, worldwide, but remains uncommon within the U.S.

A

Tuberculosis (TB)

162
Q

The following cancers are frequently associated with AIDS

A

Kaposi Sarcoma

Lymphoma

163
Q

While about _____ of all individuals with AIDS manifest with some form of CNS-related neurological dysfunction

A

50%

164
Q

Approximately 90% have evidence of _____ damage upon autopsy

A

CNS

165
Q

Vascular tumor that is an “AIDS-defining” cancer

A

Kaposi Sarcoma

166
Q

Develops following a Kaposi Sarcoma Herpevirus (HIV) infection

A

Kaposi Sarcoma

167
Q

Most individuals who are infected with KSHV, but do not have any features until ______ develop.

A

AIDS

168
Q

When AIDS develops the virus reemerges from dormancy and causes purple spots on the skin that are characteristic of

A

Kaposi Sarcoma

169
Q

Develops in about 5% (or 1/20) of all patients with AIDS, which is about 10-times more common than those who do not have AIDS.

A

Lymphoma

170
Q

Causes infectious mononucleosis, they are most likely to manifest with AIDS-related lymphomas

A

Lymphoma

171
Q

While about 50% of all individuals with AIDS manifest with some form of CNS-related neurological dysfunction, approximately _____ have evidence of CNS damage upon autopsy

A

90%

172
Q

Extracellular fibrillar proteins (amyloid proteins) are deposited and cause tissue damage and dysfunction

A

Amyloidosis

173
Q

All amyloid deposits are composed of

A

Nonbranching Fibrils

174
Q

Aggregates of amyloid proteins are unable to be removed via

A

Phagocytosis

175
Q

Aggregates of amyloid proteins initiate an ____________reaction at the site where they accumulate.

A

Inflammatory

176
Q

Fibril

A

Slender Fiber

177
Q

Forms of Amyloid Proteins

A

AL (Amyloid Light) Proteins
AA (Amyloid Assocatied) Proteins
β-Amyloid (Aβ)
Transthyretin (TTR)

178
Q

Form of amyloid protein that is composed of immunoglobulin light chains
Characteristically associated with the plasma cell cancer known as Multiple Myeloma

A

AL (Amyloid Light) Proteins

179
Q

Most cases of primary amyloidosis involve

A

AL (Amyloid Light) Proteins

180
Q

Form of amyloid protein that is associated with Alzheimer Disease

A

β-Amyloid (Aβ)

181
Q

Form of amyloid protein that is most likely to be deposited in individuals with chronic inflammatory conditions

A

AA (Amyloid Assocatied) Proteins

182
Q

Most cases of secondary amyloidosis involve

A

AA (Amyloid Assocatied) Proteins

183
Q

Following conditions such as Tuberculosis, Osteomyelitis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Crohn’s Disease, Ulcerative Colitis are all characteristic of

A

AA (Amyloid Assocatied) Proteins

184
Q

β-Amyloid (Aβ) plaques are neurotoxic and cause neurdegeneration that results in the dementia of

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

185
Q

Form of amyloid protein that accumulates in excessive amounts more commonly in older individuals.

A

Transthyretin (TTR)

186
Q

_____________ commonly accumulates in the walls of the heart of patients with senile cardiac amyloidosis

A

Transthyretin (TTR)

187
Q

If Transthyretin (TTR) proteins accumulate throughout many organ systems, it may be referred to as

A

Senile Systemic Amyloidosis

188
Q

Distribution of amyloid proteins that involves multiple organ systems in various regions of the body

A

Systemic Amyloidosis

189
Q

The most common cause of systemic amyloidosis is when ___________ proteins accumulate following the plasma cell cancer known as Multiple Myeloma

A

AL (Amyloid Light) Proteins

190
Q

__________ amyloid deposition comes with a poorer prognosis than _______ amyloid depostion.

A

Systemic

Localized

191
Q

Accumulation of amyloid proteins in a singular (isolated) region of the body.

A

Localized Amyloidosis

192
Q

Common areas of localized Amyloidosis

A
Heart
Lungs
Ligaments of the wrist
Tongue
Larynx
Brain
Skin 
Liver
Kidney
Spleen
193
Q

Regardless of the location, when amyloid proteins accumulate, they cause changes in the

A

Tissue Structure

194
Q

The diagnosis of amyloidosis requires ___________ evaluation

A

Histological

195
Q

Congo Red dye is commonly combined with polarized light to produce the characteristic

A

Apple-Green Birefringence

196
Q

Renal and Heart Failure are the most common cause of death related to

A

Amyloidosis

197
Q

Neoplasm translates to

A

New Growth (tumors)

198
Q

All tumors involve __________ cellular growth

A

Dysregulated

199
Q

Neoplasms may be ________ or _______

A

Benign

Malignant

200
Q

Anticipated or usual course of a disease

A

Prognosis

201
Q

Neoplasms that have “relatively innocent” cellular characteristics

A

Benign Tumors

202
Q

The majority of benign tumors are ___________ to a single area and will not ____________ to other sites

A

Localized

Metastasize (Spread)

203
Q

The majority of benign tumors do not cause harm and are limited to only _________ significiance

A

Cosmetic

204
Q

What are the three critical locations that a benign tumor may be found and cause harm?

A

Vessels
Nerves
Glandular Tissue

205
Q

Tend to be slow growing, encapsulated or surrounded by CT, fairly mobile when palpated and localized

A

Benign Tumors

206
Q

This type of tumor is more likely to be surgically removed, due to lack of invasiveness into surrounding tissues

A

Benign Tumors

207
Q

Patients are unlikely to die from ________ tumors

A

Benign

208
Q

The naming of bengin tumors commonly involves the suffix

A

-oma

209
Q

If a benign tumor is found in Fibrotic Tissue

A

Fibroma

210
Q

If a benign tumor is found in Fat Tissue

A

Lipoma

211
Q

If a benign tumor is found in Cartilaginous Tissue

A

Chondroma

212
Q

If a benign tumor is found in Glandular Tissue

A

Adenoma

213
Q

The Melanocytic Nevus is an example of a benign tumor, most people refer to this as a

A

Mole

214
Q

3 Primary examples of common tumor masses

A

Polyps
Papilloma
Hamartoma

215
Q

Mass of tissue that projects above a mucosal surface

A

Polyp

216
Q

Until a mass is biopsied and histologically evaluated is it known as a

A

Polyp

217
Q

Benign epithelia neoplasm that produces microscopic “finger-like fronds”, very small extensions or outgrowths away from the surface

A

Papilloma

218
Q

Macroscopically, areas of papilomatous growth appear as a

A

Wart

219
Q

Papillomas are stimulated by _______ ____________ infections

A

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

220
Q

HPV is able to infect _________ cells.

A

Epithelial

221
Q

Mass of tissue that is overgrowing and the tissues involved are native to the site/tissues at the area of involvement

A

Hamartoma

222
Q

All tumors are composed of a

A

Parenchyma

Stroma

223
Q

Genetically altered component of the tumor and determines the biological nature of the tumor

A

Parenchyma

224
Q

Composed of the tissues that support and surround the parenchymal mass and provides blood supply and supportive structure to the tumor.

A

Stroma

225
Q

Successful tumors must have a supportive ________ in the same way a seed needs an appropriate soil to grow.

A

Stroma

226
Q

The degree to which tumor cells resemble their cell of origin

A

Differentiation

227
Q

Lack of differentiation in neoplastic cells

A

Anaplasia

228
Q

Anaplastic tumors involve cells that lack

A

Specialization

229
Q

The term anaplasia translates into

A

To form backward

230
Q

Involve multiple tissue types because differentiation occurred in multiple directions, resulting in multiple tissue types.

A

Mixed Tumors

231
Q

Contain a fibrotic component as well as a glandular component and are the most common benign tumor of the female breast

A

Fibroadenoma

232
Q

The salivary glands are also very likely to produce a classically mixed benign tumor, known as

A

Pleomorphic Adenoma

233
Q

Mixed tissue tumors are more likely to be ________ and less ____________

A

Benign

Aggressive

234
Q

Tumor that involves at least two of the three embryonic germ cells layers.

A

Teratomas

235
Q

Frequently described as containing cells from all three germ cell layers

A

Teratomas

236
Q

Tumor that involve tissue types such as bone, cartilage, epithelial, muscle, fat, hair, teeth, or nerves.

A

Teratomas

237
Q

Teratomas may be ________ or _________

A

Benign

Malignant

238
Q

Malignant neoplasms that originate from solid mesenchymal origin are referred to as

A

Sarcomas (or Carcinomas)

239
Q

Cancers that arise from mesenchymal cells in the blood are referred to as

A

Leukemia or Lymphoma

240
Q

WBC cancer that is in circulating blood or in the bone marrow

A

Leukemia

241
Q

WBC cancer in the lymphatic system

A

Lymphoma

242
Q

Among the most common pediatric tumors are _________ and _______ _______

A
Leukemia
Bone Cancer (Osteosarcoma)
243
Q

If a sarcoma is found in fat cells

A

Liposarcoma

244
Q

If a sarcoma is found in fibrotic tissue

A

Fibrosarcoma

245
Q

If a sarcoma is found in smooth muscle cells

A

Leiomyosarcoma

246
Q

If a sarcoma is found in skeletal muscle cells

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

247
Q

If a sarcoma is found in cartilage

A

Chondrosarcoma

248
Q

If a sarcoma is found in vessel walls

A

Angiosarcoma

249
Q

If a sarcoma is found in bone

A

Osteosarcoma

250
Q

Cancers that originate from epithelial cells and are most common form of cancer cells

A

Carcinomas

251
Q

More likely to be age-related cancers that are very unlikely to develop in the first half of life

A

Carcinomas

252
Q

Major categories of carcinomas are those that develop in a _________ or ________ pattern.

A

Glandular

Squamous

253
Q

If carcinomas are found in lung and bronchial tissues

A

Bronchogenic Carcinoma (Lung Cancer)

254
Q

If carcinomas are found in kidneys

A

Renal Cell Carcinoma

255
Q

If carcinomas are found in skin

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Melanoma

256
Q

If carcinomas are found in liver

A

Hepatocellular Carcinoma

257
Q

If carcinomas are found in prostate

A

Prostatic Adenocarcinoma

258
Q

If carcinomas are found in colorectal tissue

A

Colorectal Adenocarcinoma

259
Q

If carcinomas are found in pancreas

A

Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma

260
Q

Carcinomas develop in a predictable pattern or pre-cancerous known as

A

Dysplasia

261
Q

Disorderly proliferation of cells and is a risk for further cellular irregulatirites

A

Dysplasia

262
Q

Involves irregular epithelial cells and is characterized by a loss of cellular uniformity among individual cells as well as a loss of an organized cellular orientation

A

Dysplasia

263
Q

The earliest form of cancer and commonly referred to as “pre-invasive” cancer

A

Carcinoma in situ

264
Q

The phrase ‘in situ’ is Latin for

A

In its original place

265
Q

Stage 0

A

Earliest stage of cancer

266
Q

Earliest stage of cancer has yet to penetrate the surrounding _________ membrane

A

Basement

267
Q

Lies at the division between pre-neoplastic lesions and invasive carcinomas

A

Carcinoma in situ

268
Q

Very common form of stage 0 breast cancer that is frequently discovered upon mammography

A

Ductal Carcinoma in situ

269
Q

Benign tumors are more likely to have cells with greater degrees of _________ while malignant tumors are more likely to contain ___________

A

Differentiation

Anaplasia

270
Q

Rapid growth is associated with ________ tumors

A

Malignant

271
Q

Rapidly growing tumors are more likely to contain cellular ______ and have prominent mitotic figures

A

Anaplasia

272
Q

Prominent mitotic figures are indicative that the mass is

A

Growing more quickly

273
Q

Local invasion may also beknown as

A

Infiltration or Local Destruction

274
Q

Because benign tumors tend to grow more slowly, and form a rim of compressed fibrotic tissue which creates a distinct line where the tumor starts and stops as is referred to as

A

Encapsulated

275
Q

When a tumor is encapsulated it is less likely to be affixed to the surrounding tissue and is more ______ upon palpation

A

Mobile

276
Q

Not all benign tumors are ___________, but they are more likely to be

A

Encapsulated

277
Q

Cancers are more likely to be

A

Unencapsulated

278
Q

Spread of a tumor to distant sites within the body that are no longer continuous with the primary tumor

A

Metastasis (“Mets”)

279
Q

Characteristic that unequivocally indicates that a tumor is malignant

A

Metastasis

280
Q

Malignant neoplasms metastasize three primary routes

A

Seeding within body cavities
Lymphatic Spread
Hematogenous Spread

281
Q

This route of metastasis is relatively rare and characteristic of ovarian cancers or cancers of the CNS

A

Seeding within body cavities of Metastasis

282
Q

Characteristic route of metastasis for carcinomas

A

Lymphatic Spread of Metastasis

283
Q

The ________ _______ node is the first lymph node that receives lymphatic drainage from the area where the primary tumor is located.

A

Sentinel Lymph

284
Q

Enlargement of the lymph nodes is known as

A

Lymphadenopathy

285
Q

Lymph nodes that contain cancer metastasis may or may not be _______ to palpation

A

Tender

286
Q

Over time, metastatic cancer may spread from the lymph nodes to the hematopoietic system via the

A

Thoracic Duct

287
Q

Characteristic route of metastasis for sarcomas

A

Hematopoietic Spread of Metastasis

288
Q

Since sarcomas are of CT origin (mesenchymal), it is reasonable for these types of tumors to metastasize via the

A

Blood

289
Q

Cancers within the hemaotopietic system frequently spread to the first __________ _____ that is encountered.

A

Capillary Bed