Exam 3 Neuro Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Cerebral blood flow (CBF) is modulated by:

A
  • cerebral metabolic rate
  • cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) * MAP-ICP
  • arterial blood carbon dioxide (Paco2)
  • arterial blood oxygen (Pao2)
  • various drugs and intracranial pathologies

slide 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  • With autoregulation, CBF is approx ____ brain tissue per minute.
  • which = ____ml/min
  • and is ____% of COP
A

50 mL/100g
750 ml/min
15%

slide 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  • The intracranial & spinal vault contains ____, ____, and ____.
  • The vault is enclosed by the ____ and ____.
A
  • neural tissue (brain + spinal cord), blood, and CSF
  • dura mater and bone

slide 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Under normal conditions, brain tissue, intracranial CSF, and intracranial blood have a combined volume of

A

1200-1500mL

slide 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

at a volume of 1200-1500ml, what is a normal ICP?

A

5-15 mmhg

slide 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

any increase in one component of intracranial volume must be offset by a decrease in another component to prevent an elevated ICP

A

monro-kellie hypothesis

slide 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During normal physiologic conditions, changes in one component are well compensated for by changes in other components, but eventually a point is reached where even a small change in intracranial contents results in a ____.

A

large change in ICP

slide 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Since ICP is one of the determinants of CPP, homeostatic mechanisms canincrease MAP to support CPP despite increases in ICP, but eventually these compensatory mechanisms can fail, resulting in ____

A

cerebral ischemia

slide 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The intracranial vault is considered ____

A

compartmentalized

slide 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Meningeal barriers separate the brain contents and include ____ and ____.

A
  • falx cerebri
  • tentorium cerbelli

slide 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the falx cerebri:

A

a reflection of dura that separates the two cerebral hemispheres

slide 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the tentorium cerebelli:

A

a reflection of durathat lies rostral to the cerebellum and marks the border btw the supratentorial and infratentorial spaces

slide 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

____ in the contents of one region may cause regional increases in ICP, and in extreme instances, the contents can herniate into a different compartment

A

Increases

slide 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Herniation syndromes are categorized based on the ____

A

region of brain affected

slide 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

types of herniation

A

subfalcine
transtentorial
uncal
cerebellar tonsils

slide 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is SubfalcineHerniation?

A

Herniation of hemispheric contents under the falx cerebri; typically, compressing branches of theanterior cerebral artery, creating a midline shift

slide 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is transtentorialHerniation?

A
  • Herniation of the supratentorial contents past the tentorium cerebelli, causing brainstemcompression in a rostral to caudal direction.
  • This leads to AMS, defects in gaze and ocular reflexes, hemodynamic andrespiratory compromise, and death

slide 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is Uncal Herniation?

A
  • a subtype of transtentorial herniation, where the uncus (medial portion of temporal lobe) herniatesoverthe tentorium cerebelli.
  • This results in ipsilateral oculomotor nerve dysfunction

slide 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

s/s of uncal herniation

A
  • pupillary dilatation
  • ptosis
  • lateral deviation of the affected eye
  • brainstem compression
  • death

slide 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when does cerebellar tonsils herniation occur?

A

Herniation of the cerebellar tonsils can occur due to elevated infratentorial pressure, causing the cerebellarstructures to herniate through the foramen magnum

slide 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

s/s of cerebellar tonsils herniation

A

medullary dysfunction, cardiorespiratory instability and subsequently death

slide 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what type of herniation is 1, 2, 3, and 4?

A
  1. Subfalcine
  2. Transtentorial
  3. Cerebellar contents through foramen magnum
  4. Traumatic event causing herniation out of cranial cavity

slide 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what can cause increased ICP?

A
  • tumors
  • intracranial hematomas
  • blood in CSF
  • infections

slide 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how can tumors increase ICP?

A

1) directly because of their size
2) indirectly by causing edema in surrounding brain tissue
3) by obstructing CSF flow, as seen with tumors involving the third ventricle

slide 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how can intracranial hematomas increase ICP?

A

Intracranial hematomas cause increased ICPsimilar to mass lesions

slide 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how can blood in the CSF increase ICP?

A

Blood in the CSF, as is seen in subarachnoid hemorrhage, may lead to obstruction of CSF reabsorption, and granulations can further exacerbate increased ICP

slide 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how can infections increase ICP?

A

Infections s/a meningitis or encephalitis, can lead to edema or obstruction of CSF reabsorption

slide 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how do you decrease ICP?

A
  • elevation of the head
  • hyperventilation
  • csf drainage
  • hyperosmotic drugs
  • diuretics
  • corticosteroids
  • cerebral vasocnstricting anesthetics
  • surgical decompression

slide 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how can elevation of the head decrease ICP?

A

encourages jugular venous outflow

slide 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how canhyperventiltion decrease ICP?

A

lowers PaC02

slide 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how can you drain CSF to decrease ICP?

A

external ventricular drain (EVD)

slide 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how canhyperosmotic drugs decrease ICP?

A

increase osmolarity, drawing fluid across BBB

slide 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how can diuretics decrease ICP?

A

induce systemic hypovolemia

slide 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how can corticosteroids decrease ICP?

A

decrease swelling and enhance the integrity of the BBB

slide 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how can cerebral vasoconstricting anesthetics decrease ICP? what medication is an example of this?

A
  • decrease CMR02 and CBF
  • propofol

slide 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what to know for neurological assessment

A
  • Know the basic pathophysiology for neurological disorders
  • Look at patients’ history, symptoms, and baseline neuro-deficits
  • Review imaging and available neurological testing results
  • Review the patients’ current drugs and treatments
  • Evaluate the potential risks/benefits of various anesthetic options to determine the most appropriate plan of care
  • Implement pre-op measures that may help optimize the patients’ condition prior to anesthesia
  • Provide clear pre-op documentation of the factors above, and have a rational for chosen anesthetic plan

slide 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are examples of genetic neurological disorders

A

Multiple Sclerosis
Myasthenia Gravis
Lambert Eaton Syndrome
Myasthenia Syndrome
Muscular Dystrophies
Myotonic Dystrophies

slide 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  • This is a progressive, autoimmune demyelination of central nerve fibers.
  • There is an onset at age 20-40.
  • Risk factors include: female, 1st deg relative, EBV, other AI disorders, smoking
  • Characterized by periods of exacerbations & remissions
  • Triggers: stress, elevated temps, postpartum period
  • Sx: motor weakness, sensory disorders, visual impairment, autonomic instability. Sx vary b/o site of demyelination
  • Tx: No cure
A

multiple sclerosis “MS”

slide 14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

although MS has no cure it can be managed with:

A
  • corticosteroids
  • immune modulators
  • targeted antibodies

slide 14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what preanesthetic considerations should be thought of with a patient with MS?

A
  • Assess existing deficits
  • If respiratory compromise, consider pulmonary function tests
  • Labs: CBC, BMP, +/-LFT
    • LFT if on Dantrolene & Azathioprine (bone marrow suppression, liver function impairment)
    • Close attn to glucose and electrolytes as steroids may impact levels
  • Consider giving pre-op steroids in anyone with long-term steroid use
    • LT steroids cause adrenal suppression, so a stress-dose of steroids may be necessary for surgery
  • Temperature management is critical
    • Any increase in body temp can precipitate an exacerbation of MS sx
  • GA, RA & PNB’s are acceptable options
  • Avoid Succinylcholine as it may induce hyperkalemia
    • Upregulated N-ach receptors

slide 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is this disease?
* Autoimmune; Antibodies generated against N-Ach-R’s at skeletal motor endplate
* Effects skeletal muscle, not smooth or cardiac muscle
* Muscle weakness, exacerbated w/exercise
* Cranial nerves partially susceptible
* Ocular sx common-diplopia, ptosis
* Bulbar involvement → laryngeal/pharyngeal weakness→ respiratory insufficiency, aspiration rx
* Thymic-hyperplasia is common (10%)
* 90% pts improve after Thymectomy

A

Myasthena Gravie “MG”

slide 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

For Myasthenia Gravie “MG”
* S/S exacerbated by:
* Tx:

A
  • S/S exacerbated by: pain, insomnia, infection, surgery
  • Tx: Ach-E inhibitors (Pyridostigmine), immunosuppressive agents, steroids, plasmapheresis, IVIG

slide 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MG preanesthetic considerations include:

A
  • If respiratory compromise, consider pulmonary function tests
  • Optimize respiratory function
  • Reduce paralytic dosage to avoid prolonged muscle weakness
  • Caution with opioids to avoid respiratory compromise
  • Ach-E inhibitors may prolong Succs and Ester LA’s
  • Labs: CBC, BMP, +/-LFT (LFT if on Azathioprine)
    • Close attn to glucose and electrolytes as steroids may impact levels
  • Consider pre-op steroids in anyone with long-term steroid use
  • Counsel patients on the increased risk of needing post-op resp support/ventilation until fully recovered from anesthesia

slide 17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is this disease:
* Disorder causing the development of autoantibodiesagainst VG Calcium chnls
* Reduce Ca++ influx into the presynaptic Ca++ channels→↓Ach release @ the NMJ
* Sx similar to MG
* >60% cases areassoc w/ small cell lung carcinoma

A

eaton-lambert syndrome

slide 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

for eaton-lambert syndrome:
* s/s
* tx:

A
  • Sx: progressive limb-girdle weakness, dysautonomia, oculobulbar palsy
  • Tx: Selective K+ chnl blocker “3-4 diaminopyridine”, Ach-E inhibitors, immunologics (Azathioprine), steroids, plasmapheresis, IVIG

slide 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

ELS pre-anesthetic considerations include:

A
  • Assess existing deficits
  • If respiratory compromise, consider pulmonary function tests
  • VERY sensitive to ND-NMB & D-NMB
  • Significantly more sensitive to ND-NMB than MG patients
  • Optimize respiratory function
  • Extreme caution on paralytic and opioid dosing
  • Counsel on risks for needing post-op resp support until fully recovered from anesthesia

slide 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is this disease?
* Hereditary disorder of muscle fiber degeneration c/b breakdown of the dystrophin-glycoprotein complex, leads to myonecrosis, fibrosis, and skeletal muscle mbrn permeability.

A

muscular dystrophy
6 typer of MD

slide 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the most common and severe form of muscular dystrophy?

A
  • Ducheen MD
  • Occurs only in boys, onset 2-5y. Wheelchair bound by age 8-10. Avg lifespan ̴20-25y d/t cardiopulmonary complications

slide 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

for muscular dystrophy:
* S/S:

A
  • progressive muscle wasting without motor/ sensoryabnormalities
  • kyphoscoliosis
  • long bone fragility
  • respiratory weakness
  • frequent pneumonia
  • EKG changes
  • Elevated serum creatine kinase c/b muscle wasting

slide 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

MD preanesthetic considerations

A
  • CBC, BMP, PFTs, consider CK
  • Pre-op EKG, echocardiogram. Evaluate for cardiomyopathy
  • Caution with ND-NMB’s, careful monitoring throughout
  • “Hypermetabolic Syndrome” similar to MH seen with Succs & volatile anesthetics
  • Hypermetabolic syndrome can lead to: rhabdomyolysis, hyperkalemia, Vfib, cardiac arrest
  • Avoid Succs & VA as they exacerbate instability of muscle membrane
  • Consider low dose rocuronium and TIVA for GA
  • Have MH cart with Dantrolene available
  • RA preferred over GA to avoid triggers and cardiopulmonary complications

slide 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are the myotonic dystrophies mentioned in class?

A
  • myotonia
  • myotonic dytrophy
  • myotonia congenita
  • central core disease

slide 23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is myotonia?

A
  • prolonged contraction after muscle stimulation
  • seen in several muscle disorders

slide 23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is myotonic dystrophy? what is its s/s?

A
  • most common myotonia. Onset 20-30’s
  • Sx: muscle wasting in face, masseter, hand, pre-tibial muscles
    • may also affect pharyngeal, laryngeal, diaphragmatic muscles
    • cardiac conduction may be affected; 20% have MVP

slide 23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is myotonia congenita?

A
  • Milder form, involving theskeletal muscles
  • smooth & cardiac muscles are spared

slide 23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is central core disease? s/s? tx?

A
  • Rare. Core muscle cells lack mitochondrial enzymes
  • Sx:Proximal muscle weakness & scoliosis
    • Myotonias are triggered by stress & cold temps
    • Tx: No cure. Sx managed w/Quinine, Procainamide, Steroids

slide 23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

pre-anesthetic considerations for myotonic dystrophies?

A
  • Assess the extent of cardiac and pulmonary abnormalities
  • Assess breath and heart sounds for abnormalities
  • GI hypomotility-↑aspiration risk
  • High rx of endocrine abnormalities. Look at thyroid & glucose levels
  • Keep patients warm to avoid flare-ups
  • Avoid Succinylcholine b/c fasciculations trigger myotonia
  • Optimize preop respiratory status
  • Caution with opioids to avoid post-op respiratory depression
  • Pts are increased risk for post-op resp weakness

slide 24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what are the 3 major dementia syndromes?

A

Alzheimer’s (70%), Vascular dementia (25%), Parkinsons (5%)

slide 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what should you evaluate in a pateint with dementia?

A
  • Assess baseline level of cognitive dysfunction
  • Patient may not be able to give informed consent, look to medical PoA
  • Investigate any advanced directives for medical decision-making
  • Review basic labs and pertinent tests/imaging
  • Potential aspirations rx (may be full stomach)
  • Review pre-op meds, which may affect anesthetic (AchE-I, MAOI’s, psych meds)
  • ↑risk for post-op delirium (consider TIVA)
  • Balance opioids to meet analgesic needs w/o exacerbating delirium
  • RA preferred to ↓opioid requirements

slide 25

59
Q

what is this disease?
* Degeneration of dopaminergic fibers of basal ganglia
* Unknown cause; Advanced age is biggest risk factor
* Dopamine regulates (inhibits excess stimulation) the extrapyramidal motor system, which is stimulated by Ach these motor neurons are over stimulated

A

parkinsons disease

slide 26

60
Q

what are the triad of sx in parkinsons? what are other s/s?

A
  • Triad:
    • skeletal muscle tremor, rigidity, akinesia
  • Other:
    • Rhythmic “pill rolling,”
    • facial rigidity,
    • slurred speech,
    • difficulty swallowing,
    • respiratory difficulty,
    • depression
    • dementia

slide 26

61
Q

what is treatment for parkinsons?

A
  • Levodopa (crosses BBB),
  • anticholinergics,
  • MAOIs (inhibit dopamine degradation)
  • Deep brain stimulator

slide 26

62
Q

parkinsons pre-anesthesia considerations:

A
  • Assess severity, with special attn to degree of pulmonary compromise
  • Review home meds, as many may interact with our drugs (ex. MAOIs)
  • Review basic labs along w/PFT if respiratory sx
  • May need EKG, Echo if indicated
  • ↑aspiration risk (dysphagia, possible dementia)
  • PO Levodopa must be continued to avoid unstable extreme extrapyramidal effects s/a chest wall rigidity
  • Avoid Reglan, Phenothiazines, Butyrophenones
  • Avoid Demerol if on MAOI
  • Deep brain stimulators may need to be disabled to avoid interaction w/cautery
  • If cautery used, bipolar recommended as it reduces scattering of electro-currant

slide 27

63
Q

the mass effects of any tumor can cause ____ deficits.

A

neurologic deficits

slide 28

64
Q

common s/s of brain tumors

A
  • ↑ICP
  • Papilledema
  • Headache
  • AMS
  • Mobilityimpairment
  • Vomiting
  • Autonomic dysfunction
  • Seizures

slide 28

65
Q

brain tumors may be ____ or ____.

A

primary or metastatic

slide 29

66
Q

astrocytomas are the most common CNS glial cells. What are the 4 types of astrocytomas tumors?

A
  • gilomas
  • pilocytic astrocytomas
  • anaplastic astrocytomas
  • glioblastoma multiforme

slide 29

67
Q

what is a glioma?

A
  • Primary tumors. Least aggressive astrocytomas
  • Often found in young adults w/new onset seizures

slide 29

68
Q

what is pilocyctic astrocytomas?

A
  • Children & young adults
  • Mostly benign, good outcomes if resectable

slide 29

69
Q

what is anaplastic astrocytomas?

A
  • Poorly differentiated
  • Usually evolve into Glioblastoma Multiforme

slide 29

70
Q

what is glioblastoma multiforme?

A
  • Carry a high mortality
  • Usually requires surgical debulking & chemo
  • Life expectance is usually within weeks, even w/treatment

slide 29

71
Q

what is meinigiomas?

A
  • Usually benign. Arise from dura or arachnoid tissue​
  • Good prognosis w/surgical resection

slide 30

72
Q

what is pituitary adenomas?

A
  • Noncancerous, varying subtypes
  • Transsphenoidalor open craniotomy for removal is usually curative

slide 30

73
Q

what is acoustic neuromas?

A
  • Usually benign schwannomas involving the vestibular component of CN VIII within the auditory canal
  • Good prognosis w/resection +/- radiation

slide 30

74
Q

what is metastatic carcinomas?

A
  • can vary widely in origin &symptoms​
  • Outcomes are generally less favorable

slide 30

75
Q

brain tumor pre-anesthesia considerations include

A
  • Review history & physical
  • Inquire about previous therapies, presenting symptoms & neurological deficits
  • Radiation damage may lead to lethargy and AMS
  • Chemotherapy may also have neurological effects
  • Pts are often on steroids to minimize cerebral edema
    • Will need to continue steroids, monitoring glucose levels
  • Anticonvulsants common (supratentorial lesions, closer to motor cortex)
  • Autonomic dysfunction may manifest on EKG, labile HR & BP’s
  • CBC, BMP (glucose), EKG
  • CT/MRI
  • Pre-op steroids & antiseizure meds per surgeon
  • Mannitol often used to reduce intracranial volume & pressure

slide 31

76
Q

what are the types of strokes/CVAs?

A
  • ischemic
  • hemorrhagic

slide 32

77
Q

Strokes are characterized by sudden neurologic deficits resulting from:

A
  • ischemia (88% of cases)
  • hemorrhage (12% of cases)

slide 33

78
Q

what is the leading cause of death and disability?

A

strokes

slide 33

79
Q

how is blood supplied to the brain?

A
  • internal carotid arteries
  • verterbral arteries

slide 33

80
Q

____ join on the ____ surface of the brain to form the ____ which, during ideal circumstances, provides collateral circulation to multiple areas of the brain

A
  • internal carotid and verterbral arteries
  • inferior surface
  • circle of willis

slide 33

81
Q

clinical features of occluded anterior cerbral artery

A

contralateral leg weakness

slide 34

82
Q

clinical features of occluded middle cerbral artery

A
  • controlateral hempiparesis and hemisenory deficit face and arme > leg
  • aphasia dominat hemisphere
  • controlateral visual field defect

slide 34

83
Q

clinical features of occluded posterior cerbral artery

A

slide 34

84
Q

clinical features of occluded penetrating arteries

A

slide 34

85
Q

clinical features of occluded basilar artery

A

slide 34

86
Q

clinical features of occluded verterbral artery

A

slide 34

87
Q

____occlusion of a vessel that supplies a region of brain resulting in cellular ischemia

A

Ischemic Stroke

slide 35

88
Q

What is this?
* sudden focal vascular neurologic deficit that resolves within 24 hrs

A

Transient ischemic attack

slide 35

89
Q

____ pts who experience a TIAwill subsequently suffer a stroke

A

1/3

slide 35

90
Q
  • Strokeprognosis d/o the timefrom onsetto thrombolytic intervention (____)
  • If stroke suspected, a STAT non-contrast CT is needed todistinguish what?
A
  • < 90 min
  • ischemia strokefrom intracerebral hemorrhage

This distinction is important because tx of ischemic stroke is substantially different from tx ofhemorrhagic stroke

slide 35

91
Q

Causes of Ischemic stroke are categorized according to the TOAST classification into 5groups

A
  1. Large artery atherosclerosis (e.g., carotid stenosis)
  2. Small vessel occlusion (e.g., lacunar stroke)
  3. Cardioaortic embolic (e.g., emboli from atrial fibrillation)
  4. Other etiology (e.g., stroke due to hypercoagulable states or vasculopathies)
  5. Undetermined etiology

slide 35

92
Q

Ischemic CVA treatment

A
  • ASA initally for acute ischemic stroke
  • TPA if criteria is met
  • thrombectomy to stent vessels and remove clots
  • revascularization

slide 36

93
Q

these are performed in interventional radiology (IR), allowing for angiographic assessment and radiographic guidance during administration of thrombolytics or thromb

A

revascualrization

slide 36

94
Q

revasculatrization anesthesia considerations

A
  • Pre-anesthetic evaluation should be concise & efficient, avoiding any delay in treatment
  • Focus on baseline neuro assessment,ability to safely lay flat, and cardiovascular function
  • Determine whether procedure could be done under sedation, or if a secure airway necessary
  • Patients w/ischemic stroke frequently have CV risk factors, including HTN, DM, CAD, Afib, andvalvular disease, that could impact vasoactive drug choices and hemodynamic goal

slide 36

95
Q

hemorrhagic CVA tx

A
  • Tx depends on severity
  • Conservative txis centered on the reduction of ICP,blood pressure control, seizure precautions, and vigilant monitoring
  • Surgical treatment involves evacuation of the hematoma
  • May remain intubated depending on cardiopulmonary stability
  • ICU monitoring required postoperatively

slide 37

96
Q

____ stroke results from bleeding inside the cranial vault that, in turn, impairs perfusion of the brain

A

Acute hemorrhagic

slide 37

97
Q

Hemorrhagic stroke is ____ more likely to cause death than ischemic stroke

A

4x

slide 37

98
Q

the 2 most reliable predictors of outcome are:

A

estimated blood volume & change in LOC

slide 37

99
Q

what are the subtypes of hemorrhagic strokes and where is the location?

A
  • intraparenchymal- blood within the brain
  • epidural/ subdural/ subarachnoid hematomas- blood in the area
  • intraventricular- blood in the ventricular system usually occurs with other types of hemorrhagic strokes

slide 38

100
Q

what is this?
* New anticoagulant for thrombus=No elective cases within 3 months
* Anticoagulants for CVA prophylaxis= consult prescriber to establish protocol
* High rx pts for CVA that pause LA anticoags (Warfarin) will need SA anticoags (LMWH, IV unfractionated heparin) to bridge the gap
* Close monitoring of coagulation status is required
* If RA planned, d/c anticoagulants for sufficient time to safely perform block

A

cerebrovascular disease

slide 38

101
Q

cerebrovascular disease preop consdierations

A
  • Careful review of history, deficits, imaging, treatments, and co-existing diseases
  • Assess orientation, pupils, bilateral grip strength, LE strength
  • Ask about headaches, tinnitus, vision/memory loss, bathroom issues
  • Look at route cause of CVA: Vascular disease, embolic (a-fib, prosthetic valve, right to left shunt/PFO)
  • Imaging: Carotid U/S, CT/MRI head & neck, echocardiogram
  • Preop EKG
  • CBC, BMP,possible T & C
  • Cerebral oximetry if possible
  • Aline,2 IVs and/or CVC

slide 39

102
Q

Majority of ____ are not diagnosed before rupture

A

cerberal aneurysms
*only 1/3 aneurysm pts hav s/s before rupture

slide 40

103
Q

Cerbral aneurysm:
* s/s
* risk factors
* dx

A
  • Sx: Headache, photophobia, confusion, hemiparesis, coma
  • Rx: HTN, smoking, female, oral contraceptives, cocaine use
  • Dx: CT/angio, MRI, Lumbar puncture w/CSF analysis if rupture suspected

slide 40

104
Q

Intervention should be performed within ____ of aneurysm rupture for best outcomes

A

72h

slide 40

105
Q

cerebral aneurysm anesthesia considerations

A
  • Pt may be on steroids, glucose monitoring important
  • Pre-anesthesia: CT/MRI, EKG, Echo, CBC, BMP, T&C w/blood available
    • BP control, mannitol? aim is to avoid rupture
    • seizure prophylaxis
  • Surgical tx: coiling, stenting, trapping/bypass (very large aneurysms)
    • Neurosurgeon may be on standby in case of intra-op rupture/SAH

slide 40

106
Q

Post-SAH vasospasms
* risk for vasospasm ____ post SAH
* occurs d/t

A
  • Risk for vasospasm 3-15 days post SAH
  • Freehgbtriggers inflammatory mediators, which reduce nitric oxide availability and increase endothelin 1, leading to vasoconstriction

slide 41

107
Q

what is triple H therapy for post-sah vasospasms?

A
  • Hypertension
    • To avoid complications of hypervolemia, HTN is the initial main treatment
  • Hypervolemia
  • Hemodilution

slide 41

108
Q

how do you relieve post-sah vasospasms?

A

Interventional treatments s/a balloon dilation and direct injection of vasodilators relieve the spasm

slide 41

109
Q

Pre-anesthesia interventions for post-sah vasospasms

A

Same as withaneurysm, although normally less-invasive

slide 41

110
Q

what is the hunt and hess classification for grading aneurysm prognosis?

A

slide 42

111
Q

what is the world federation of neurologic surgeon grading system for grading aneurysm prognosis?

A

slide 42

112
Q

Arteriovenous Malformations “AVM”
* sx:
* dx:
* tx:
* pre-anesthesia considerations

A
  • Sx: range from mass-effects to hemorrhage
    • Majority are supratentorial
  • Dx: Angiogram, MRI
  • Tx: radiation, angio-guided embolization, surgical resection (higher mortality)
  • Pre-anesthesia: H&P, review meds, imaging, CBC, BMP, T&C, EKG, Echo
    • BP control, mannitol?, seizure prophylaxis, CVC or 2 Lg bore IV’s, Aline

slide 43

113
Q

what is this?
* Arterial to venous connection w/o intervening capillaries
* Creates an area of high flow, low resistance shunting
* Believed to be congenital

A

Arteriovenous Malformations “AVM”

slide 43

114
Q

what 3 things does the spetzier martin AVM grading system look at?

A
  1. Nidus size
  2. eloquence of adjacent brain
  3. pattern of venous drainage

slide 44

115
Q

what are the surgical outcomes based on the spetzler martin AVM Grade:
* 1
* 2
* 3
* 4
* 5

A

percent of patient with no postoperative neurological deficit
* 1= 100%
* 2= 95%
* 3= 84%
* 4= 73%
* 5= 69%

slide 44

116
Q
  • Congenital brain abnormalities result fromdefects in the ____.
  • Often ____
  • Disease processes may be diffuse, or confined to specific ____.
A
  • development or structure of the CNS
  • hereditary
  • neuronal structures

slide 45

117
Q

types of congenital brain abnormalities

A
  • Chiari Malformation
  • Tuberous Sclerosis
  • Von Hippel-Lindau Disease
  • Neurofibromatosis

slide 45

118
Q

what is chiari malformation?

A

Congenital displacement of the cerebellum

slide 46

119
Q

what are the 4 types of chiarir malformation?

A
  • Type 1: downwarddisplacement ofcerebellum
  • Type 2 (Arnold Chiari):downwarddisplacementofcerebellar vermis, often assoc w/myelomeningocele
  • Type 3: Rare; occipital encephalocele w/downward cerebellar displacement
  • Type 4: cerebellar hypoplasia w/o displacement of posterior fossa contents
    • Not compatible with life

slide 46

120
Q

what is AKA “Bourneville Disease”
and is an autosomal dominant disease causing benign hemartomas, angiofibromas, and other malformations that can occur anywhere in the body

A

tuberous sclerosis

slide 47

121
Q

with tuberous sclerosis lesion of the brain include? and often involve co-existing tumors of ?

A
  • cortical tumors & giant-cell astrocytomas
  • face,oropharnyx, heart, lungs, liver &kidneys

slide 47

122
Q

how does tuberous sclerosis often present and what anesthesia considerations must we take into account?

A
  • Presentation likely includes mental retardation and seizure disorders
  • must consider airway compromise, and cardia and/or kidney involvement

slide 47

123
Q

what is an autosomal dominant disease where benign tumors of the CNS, eyes, adrenals, pancreas and kidneys occur. And it may present w/ pheochromocytoma?

A

von hippel-lindau disease

slide 48

124
Q

what anesthsia considerations should we take into account for von hippel lindau disease?

A
  • exaggerated HTN in pts with pheo
  • NA may be limited if there is a co-exciting spinal cord tumor

slide 48

125
Q

Neurofibromatosis is an autosmal dominat disease with how many types?

A
  • 3 types:
    • Type 1 (most common)
    • Type 2
    • Schwannomatosis (rare)

there are numerous disease presentations

slide 49

126
Q

what are the anesthesia considerations for neurofibromatosis?

A
  • increased ICP
  • airway issues
  • scoliosis
  • possibility of pheochromocytoma
  • Avoid NA d/t high likelihood of spinal tumors

slide 49

127
Q

____ is a disorder of CSF accumulation, causing increased ICP, that results in ventricular dilatation

A

Hydrocephalus
The accumulation of CSF is due to an imbalance between CSF production and absorption

slide 50

128
Q

hydrocephalus can be congenital or aquired d/t?

A
  • meningitis
  • tumors
  • head injury
  • stroke

slide 50

129
Q

Hydrocephalus s/s

A
  • Sx can be acute, subacute, or chronic

slide 50

130
Q

treatment for hydrocephalus

A
  • diuretics (furosemide & acetazolamide decrease CSF production) [controversial in children]
  • lumbar puncture [temporary measure]
  • surgical treatment
    • Ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt
    • endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV)

slide 50

131
Q

what is an or endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV)?

A

catheter placed into the lateral ventricle that drains into the peritoneal space, right atrium, or more rarely the pleural space

slide 50

132
Q

what is a Ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt?

A

drain placed in ventricle of the brain andempties into peritoneum

slide 50

133
Q

when does shunt malfunction occure most frequently?

A

in the first year of placement (high failure rate)

slide 50

134
Q

traumatic brain injury is categorized as ____ or ____ by using ____ to categorize the severity

A
  • “penetrating” or “non-penetrating,” d/o breech of dura
  • Severity categorized by Glasco-Coma Scale

slide 51

135
Q

what is primary injury and secondary injuries?

A
  • Primary injury: occurs at time of insult
  • Secondary injuries: neuroinflammation, cerebral edema, hypoxia, anemia, electrolyte imbalances, and neurogenic shock

slide 51

136
Q

when is intubation required for TBI?

A
  • intubation required in severe TBI (GCS < 9, AW trauma, resp distress)
  • mild hyperventaion to control ICP
  • CT of head/neck ASAP

slide 51

137
Q

anesthesia considerations for TBI?

A
  • Pre-anesthesia: review co-morbidities, degree of injury, imaging, labs, gross neurologic exam. Do not delay emergent surgery
  • C-spine stabilization, adequate IV access, CVC, Aline, possible uncrossmatched blood if no time for T & C
  • Refrain from NGT/OGT –potential for basal skull fx
  • Intra-op ISTAT labs, Pressors, Bicarb, Calcium, & Blood products

slide 51

138
Q

____: transient, paroxysmal, synchronous discharge of neurons in the brain

A

seizure

slide 52

139
Q

what can be tranisent abnormalities that can cause a seizure?

A
  • hypoglycemia
  • hyponatremia
  • hyperthermia
  • intoxication

In these cases, treating the underlying cause is curative

slide 52

140
Q

____: recurrent seizures d/t congenital or acquired factors

A

Epilepsy

slide 52

141
Q

____ drugs decrease neuronal excitability/enhance inhibition

A

Antiepileptic

slide 52

142
Q

pre-anesthesia considerations for seizure disorders?

A
  • Determine source of seizures (if known) and how well they are controlled. Want anti-seizure drugs on board before incision
  • Review drugs and pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic actions
  • Phenytoin, Tegretol, Barbiturates are enzyme-inducers
  • Likely require higher doses of hepatically-cleared medications

May be called to intubate post-seizure→ RSI w/cricoid pressure

slide 52

143
Q

chiari malformaion:
* sx:
* tx:
* pre-anesthesia considerations

A
  • Sx: headache, extending to shoulders/arms,visual disturbances, ataxia
  • Tx: Surgical decompression
  • Pre-anesthesia: Review H&P, deficits, imaging, CBC, BMP, T&C
    • May hyperventilate to ↓ICP, Lg bore IV x 2 or CVC, Aline

slide 46