Exam 3 Kahoot - Immunity, PONV, Chemo Flashcards
Which immune cell is the fastest responder to infection?
A. mast cells
B. t cells
C. basophils
D. neutrophils
D. neutrophils
Select all that apply:
Which of the following contain macrophages?
A. microglia
B. alveolar cells
C. langerhans cells
D. Kupffer cells
All: Langerhans cells (epidermis), microglia (CNS), Kupffer cells (liver), alveolar cells (lungs)
Which type of immune cells line the GI tract?
A. NK cells
B. monocytes
C. eosinophils
D. basophils
C. eosinophils
Removal of what gland may leave a pt the most immunocompromised?
A. parathyroid
B. thyroid
C. thymus
D. lymph nodes
C. thymus
Select 2 examples of passive immunity:
A. vaccines
B. infant receiving breast milk
C. IV Ig
D. environmental exposure
B. Infant receiving breast milk
C. IV Ig
Status asthmaticus is an example of which type of allergic response?
A. Type I
B. Type IV
C. Type II
D. Type III
A. Type I
Which type of allergic reaction is caused by retained antigen-antibody complexes in the tissues?
A. Type I
B. Type III
C. Type IV
D. Type II
B. Type III
What is the best tx for a type III allergic response (pick 2)?
A. epinephrine
B. anti-inflammatories
C. immunosuppressives
D. bronchodilators
B. anti-inflammatory
C. immunosuppressive
Steven-Johnson syndrome is seen as a reaction to which drug type?
A. dextromethorphan
B. antibiotics
C. PPIs
D. NSAIDs
D. NSAIDs
Select 2 risk factors for peri-op anaphylaxis:
A. males
B. advanced age
C. females
D. long duration of anesthesia
C. females
D. long duration of anesthesia
Which medication may be a trigger for angioedema?
A. beta blockers
B. ARBs
C. CCBs
D. ACE inhibitors
D. ACE-inhibitors (-prils)
Which anesthetic drugs are known to suppress NK cells? select 4.
A. ketamine
B. opioids
C. VA
D. midazolam
E. propofol
F. NSAIDs
A. ketamine
B. opioids
C. VA
D. midazolam
When does PONV normally peak?
A. 9hrs postop
B. 3 hrs postop
C. 6hrs postop
D. immediately after wakeup
C. 6 hrs postop
Select 2 examples of butyrophenones
A. haldol
B. droperidol
C. prochlorperazine
D. promethazine
A. Haldol
B. droperidol
Select 2 subtypes of antidopaminergics.
A. butyrophenones
B. phenylephrines
C. phenothiazines
D. butyeric acid
A. Butyrophenones (haldol, droperidol)
C. phenothiazines (prochlorperazine, chlorpromazine, promethazine)
select all that apply:
Which of the following are risk factors for PONV?
A. smoker
B. female
C. elderly
D. anxiety
B. female
D. anxiety
Which types of sx are more highly assoc w PONV?
A. plastic
B. neuro
C. ortho
D. vascular
A. plastic
B. neuro
select all that apply:
Which anesthetic agents reduce PONV?
A. VA
B. propofol
C. benzodiazepines
D. opioids
B. propofol
C. benzodiazepines
Select 2 examples of anti-dopaminergic drugs.
A. ondansetron
B. droperidol
C. aprepitant
D. prochlroperazine
B. Droperidol
D. prochlorperazine
Which neurotransmitter does aprepitant antagonize?
A. dopamine
B. serotonin
C. histamine
D. substance P
D. substance P
Select all factors that increase PONV in pediatric patients.
A. females
B. hernia repairs
C. males
D. orthopedics
E. orchiopexy
F. ENT
A. females
B. hernia repairs
C. males
E. orchiopexy
F. ENT
select all that apply:
Which interventions reduce the risk of PONV?
A. hydration
B. multimodal anesthesia
C. nitrous oxide
D. early ambulation
A. hydration
B. multimodal anesthesia
select all that apply:
Which is true regarding the emetic center in the brain?
A. receives efferent signals
B. located in the lateral reticular foramen
C. has no BBB
D. is triggered directly by neurotransmitters
B. located in the lateral reticular foramen
C. has no BBB
Select the neurotransmitters that can induce nausea In the CTZ.
A. ACh
B. histamine
C. serotonin
D. epinephrine
A. ACh
B. histamine
C. serotonin
Which antimuscarinic drug is best given w neostigmine as a reversal?
A. glycopyrrolate
B. atropine
C. hyoscine
D. scopalamine
B. Atropine
b/c glycopyrrolate has higher incidence of N/V than atropine
select all that apply:
Alteration in which genes are the main drivers in the development of cancers?
A. promotor genes
B. regulator genes
C. DNA repair genes
D. pro-oncogenes
C. DNA repair gene
D. Pro-oncogenes
Which type of cancer has glandular origin?
A. leukemia
B. squamous
C. sarcoma
D. adenocarcinoma
D. adenocarcinoma
How would you stage a tumor that is very small, no lymph node involvement, and no metastasis?
A. TX N0 M1
B. T2 N0 M0
C. T1 N0 M0
D. T0 N1 MX
C. T1 N0 M0
Select the most appropriate nerve block for pancreatic cancer pain:
A. intercostal block
B. lumbar sympathetic ganglion block
C. celiac plexus block
D. adductor canal block
C. celiac plexus block
Which chemo drug is associated with the subsequent development of leukemia?
A. bleomycin
B. cisplatin
C. doxorubicin
D. methotrexate
B. Cisplatin - or any other alkalizing agent
Which chemo drug can cause pulmonary toxicity when the patient is exposed to high FiO2?
A. cisplatin
B. methotrexate
C. bleomycin
D. doxorubicin
C. bleomycin
Which type of cancer accounts for majority of lung cancers?
A. large cell
B. non-small cell
C. carcinoid
D. small cell
B. non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome may develop in which type of lung cancer?
A. large cell
B. non-small cell
C. carcinoid
D. small cell
D. small cell lung cancer
select all that apply:
What are common side effects of chemotherapy?
A. hypotension
B. elevated WBCs
C. immunocompromise
D. loss of neck ROM
A. hypotension
C. immunocompromise
loss of ROM in neck is usually d/t radiation not chemotherapy
select all that apply:
What symptoms may be associated with squamous cell NSCLC?
A. superior vena cava syndrome
B. eaton lambert syndrome
C. peripheral neuropathy
D. hemoptysis
A. SVC syndrome
B. hemoptysis
