Exam 3 Histoo Flashcards

1
Q

Classification of asthma

A

Obstructive inflammatory airway disease

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2
Q

Conducting portion of the respiratory system

A

Nasal cavity, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, primary and terminal bronchioles.

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3
Q

Structural division; extra-pulmonary segments

A

Nasal cavity, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, primary bronchi

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4
Q

Anatomical division; upper respiratory tract

A

Nasal cavity, nasopharynx, larynx

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5
Q

Structural division; intrapulmonary segments

A

Secondary/lobar and tertiary/segmental bronchioles, respiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct, alveolar sac

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6
Q

Anatomical division; lower respiratory tract

A

Trachea, bronchi, primary and terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct, alveolar sac.

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7
Q

Epithelium of the upper respiratory tract

A

PSCC, simple columnar, simple cuboidal

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8
Q

Epithelium in alveoli

A

Simple squamous

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9
Q

Serous exocrine glands

A

Located in nasal cavity and eosinophilic stained

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10
Q

Mucous exocrine glands

A

Located in the larynx, trachea, and bronchi and stain pale

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11
Q

Seromucous glands

A

Located in the nasal cavity, larynx, trachea and bronchi. Stain pale and bright

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12
Q

Lamina propria

A

LCT of respiratory system

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13
Q

Submucosa

A

DICT

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14
Q

Hyaline

A

Cartilage

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15
Q

Autonomic nervous effects of respiratory system

A

Parasympathetic- bronchoconstriction and increase gland secretion
Sympathetic-bronchodilation and inhibits gland secretion

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16
Q

Somatic afferent NS of respiratory system

A

Pain to parietal pleura via intercostal and phrenic nerves and Stretch visceral pleura

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17
Q

Mucous membrane of respiratory system

A

The luminal epithelial lining and underlining LCT of the lamina propria

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18
Q

Where are goblet cells in the respiratory tract

A

In the upper respiratory tract from the trachea to the primary bronchiole

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19
Q

Where are Brush cells found

A

In the upper respiratory tract in the trachea to the primary bronchiole

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20
Q

Where can granule cells and neuroendocrine cells be found in respiratory tract

A

In the upper respiratory tract from trachea to primary bronchiole

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21
Q

Where can Clara cells be found

A

From the primary bronchiole, terminal bronchiole then down to the respiratory bronchiole

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22
Q

Where are alveolar macrophages found

A

Alveoli

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23
Q

Where are type II pneumocytes found

A

Alveoli

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24
Q

What cells produce surfactant

A

Clara cells and type II pneumocytes

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25
Q

Lamina propria

A

LCT that contains a high number of WBC’s which contribute to the amount of lymphatic tissues and BALT

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26
Q

BALT

A

Plasma cells that have been activated and secrete IgA which coats the epithelial surface and provides a layer immune protection

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27
Q

Cell types in the respiratory epithelium that are not visible

A

Brush cells and granule cells

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28
Q

Respiratory epithelium contains

A

Goblet cells, ciliated cells, basal cells that are all visible. Brush and granule cells there but not visible

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29
Q

Mucociliary elevator

A

Goblet cells and cilia play an important and protective role in cleaning the airway. Goblet cells produce mucus that trap particulate and cilia beat moving the trapped particulate matter

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30
Q

Functions of the upper respiratory tract

A

Conducts air to respiratory tract, adjusts temperature/humidity of inspired air, remove dust/debris/immunoprotection, and vocalization

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31
Q

How does the epithelium in the respiratory tract change with chronic smoking or presence of toxins

A

Squamous Metaplasia occurs—a change from pseudostratified ciliated columnar to stratified squamous NK epithelium

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32
Q

Histological features of the trachea

A

PSCC and CT, smooth muscle, Seromucous and mucus glands, hyaline cartilage.

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33
Q

Histological features of primary bronchi

A

Respiratory epithelium and CT, incomplete ring of smooth muscle, seromucous and mucus glands, incomplete rings of of hyaline cartilage

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34
Q

What does chronic bronchitis in smokers demonstrate

A

Metaplasia involving an increase in the number of goblet cells relative to the number of ciliated cells. This increases mucus production but reduction of movement from cilia cells prevents mucus movement.

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35
Q

What germ layer is the epithelium of the respiratory tract from

A

Endoderm

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36
Q

What germ layer is the wall of the respiratory tract from

A

Mesoderm

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37
Q

What changes the diameter and length of the bronchi

A

Smooth muscle

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38
Q

Components of the intrapulmonary segment (conducting portion)

A

Secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, primary bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles and alveoli

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39
Q

What is the most distal part of the conducting system

A

Terminal bronchioles

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40
Q

What is the most proximal part of the conducting portion

A

Trachea

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41
Q

Histological features of intrapulmonary segment/conducting portion (secondary bronchi and tertiary bronchi)

A

Respiratory epithelium, CT, may see BALT tissue, incomplete rings of smooth muscle, seromucous glands and a few mucus glands, incomplete plates of cartilage (hyaline)

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42
Q

BALT

A

Bronchial associated lymphatic tissue and represents aggregations of lymphocytes in the mucosa.

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43
Q

Mucosa of the primary/conducting bronchioles

A

Simple ciliated columnar epithelium, few goblet cells, clara cells, complete rings of smooth muscle. There is no glands and no cartilage.

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44
Q

What change in airway will you see due to chronic asthma

A

An increase in the amount of smooth muscle in the wall of the airway

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45
Q

Acute asthma

A

Occurs as isolated episodes of reversible bronchial obstruction

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46
Q

Chronic asthma

A

Is irreversible and associated with pathological changes to the wall due to inflammation

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47
Q

Classifications of asthma

A

Extrinsic- due to allergies cause hyper-immune response
Intrinsic-typically the outcome of infections, exercise, inhalation of irritants (smoking) cause hyper responsive reaction.

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48
Q

What are the three changes during an asthma attack and what are they due to

A

Due to hyper immune response
Excessive inflammation of mucosa and edema, smooth muscle constriction, increased glandular secretion.

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49
Q

Outcome of hyper immune response due to asthma attack

A

Increased airway constriction and increased secretions cause partial obstruction. Although some air passes into alveoli, can’t exhale effectively making it harder to breath.

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50
Q

Treatments of symptoms of asthma

A

Corticosteroids-decrease inflammation
Sympathetic agonist- decrease glandular secretion, causes relaxation of bronchiole muscles

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51
Q

What tissue comprising the wall of a bronchiole serves as the primary effector cell responsible for controlling airway caliber?

A

Smooth muscle

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52
Q

What part of the airway is maximally affected by bronchoconstriction an why?

A

Primary bronchi because of the complete rings of smooth muscle?

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53
Q

As a result of bronchoconstriction, the physiological outcome on airway resistance will be to:

A

Increase

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54
Q

As a result of bronchoconstriction, what is the physiological effect on airflow and gas exchange

A

Airflow: decrease
Gas exchange: decrease

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55
Q

Histological appearance of terminal bronchioles

A

Simple ciliated cuboidal and simple cuboidal, predominately Clara cells but also brush and granule cells. Incomplete bundles of smooth muscle seen. No goblet cells, submucosa, or cartilage.

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56
Q

Clara cells of terminal bronchiole

A

Appear as cuboidal cells with round nuclei and pale/white cytoplasm.

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57
Q

Function of Clara cells

A

Clara (club) cells are secretory cells that produce a glycoprotein that is anti microbial, anti inflammatory and protects the bronchial epithelium form damage due to inflammation. Act as stem cells for ciliated and non ciliated epithelium

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58
Q

What does the product produced by clara cells also aid in

A

Reduce surface tension

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59
Q

Appearance of the respiratory bronchioles

A

Thick and thin wall segments

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60
Q

Appearance of the alveolar ducts and sacs

A

Will have only thin walls

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61
Q

Respiratory bronchioles epithelium

A

Simple cuboidal and simple squamous. Will have clara cells still but less in number.

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62
Q

What are simple squamous epithelium lining the respiratory bronchioles called

A

Type I pneumocytes

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63
Q

What structures do type I pneumocytes form in the gas exchange portion of the respiratory system

A

Form the walls of the alveolar ducts and alveoli

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64
Q

What does the change in thickness from terminal bronchiole to respiratory bronchioles related to

A

Directly related to functional ability to exchange air in respiratory portion

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65
Q

What kind of CT is seen in the respiratory bronchioles

A

High amounts of elastic and reticular fibers

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66
Q

Why is there high amounts of elastic and reticular fibers in the respiratory bronchioles

A

Eslatic fibers because they are needed for recoil and to fight surface tension and reticular fibers are also type III collagen for support

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67
Q

Muscular layer of the respiratory bronchioles

A

Can see an incomplete ring of smooth in thick sections but it will be absent in thin sections.

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68
Q

What is the distal end of the respiratory bronchiole

A

Alveolar ducts

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69
Q

Epithelium of the alveoli

A

Simple squamous epithelium

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70
Q

Three cell types of the alveoli

A

Type II pneumocytes-
Type I pneumocytes -
Alveolar macrophages-

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71
Q

Type II pneumocyte

A

Produce surfactant/act as stem cell and can give rise/renew type I or type 4

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72
Q

Type I pneumocyte

A

air exchange and terminally differentiated. Cover 95% of surface but are fewer in number, just shaped very long.

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73
Q

Alveolar macrophage

A

Also called dust cells. Phagocytosis of particulate matter found in the lumen of the alveoli

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74
Q

CT of the alveoli

A

Elastic and reticular fibers only and they form the interstitial tissue of thick wall

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75
Q

Alveolar wall

A

Inter-alveolar septum made of two parts; thick and thin sections.

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76
Q

Thick inter-alveolar septum

A

Abundant elastic fibers and some reticular. Fibroblasts, mast cells, macrophages, and neutrophils I.e, WBC’s

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77
Q

What does the inter-alveolar septum do

A

Provides elasticity and structural support

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78
Q

Thin inter-alveolar septum

A

Blood air barrier and site of O2 exchange for CO2

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79
Q

What is considered the interstitium in the respiratory portion of the intrapulmonary segment

A

Interalveolar septum

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80
Q

Alveolar pores

A

Equalize pressure and allow collateral air flow if alveoli is blocked

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81
Q

What interrupts the septal wall and connects adjacent alveoli

A

Alveolar pores

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82
Q

What makes the blood air barrier in the alveoli

A

Type I pneumocyte, BM, endothelial cells that line a capillary. (Thin portion of alveolar septum)

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83
Q

Elastic recoil is _____________ proportional to compliance

A

Inversely

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84
Q

If compliance increases what happens to elastic recoil

A

It decreases

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85
Q

Elastance

A

Also elastic recoil and its a measure of the tendency of a hollow organ to recoil toward its original dimension upon removal of a distending or compressing force

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86
Q

What determines the elasticity and ability of a hollow organ to recoil

A

Amount of elastic fibers in the wall of the hollow organ

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87
Q

What prevents the ability of a hollow organ to expand

A

High surface tension

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88
Q

Compliance

A

Compliance is the ability of a hollow organ to distend/increase volume but resist recoil toward its original dimensions on application of a distending or compressing force

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89
Q

What effects a larger airway to expand and then resist recoil

A

Wall thickness, amount smooth muscle and collagen and type of collagen, and amount of surface tension at the air water interface.

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90
Q

What affects compliance in the alveoli

A

The amount of elasticity and amount of surface tension

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91
Q

Emphysema is hallmarked by what

A

The destruction of the alveolar wall

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92
Q

In emphysema neutrophils and macrophages secrete an elastase enzyme that..

A

Destroys the elastic fibers and leads to a loss of elasticity and recoil

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93
Q

What does destruction of the alveolar wall cause

A

A decrease in alveolar surface tension and less gas exchange.

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94
Q

What will be the impact of decreased elastic fibers on the
elasticity and compliance be

A

Decrease elastance and increase compliance

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95
Q

Pulmonary fibrosis

A

Is characterized by an increase in interseptal wall thickness due to increased collagen fiber deposit

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96
Q

What will be the impact of increased wall thickness and
collagen on compliance in pulmonary fibrosis

A

Decrease compliance

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97
Q

What germ layer is the hart derived from

A

Mesoderm

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98
Q

Lymphatic vascular system

A

Collects excess interstitial fluid from the tissue spaces as lymph and return it to the blood

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99
Q

What is lymph

A

Protein rich filtrate of plasma that contains wasate, antigens, cellular debris and lymphocytes

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100
Q

What does lymph filter through before it enters the cardiovascular system

A

Lymph nodes

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101
Q

What transports lymphocytes from CT to other regions

A

Lymph circulates lymphocytes

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102
Q

How does lymph enter the venous system

A

The thoracic duct

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103
Q

Cardiovascular system

A

Includes heart that pumps blood to and form lungs and body organs

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104
Q

Pulmonary circulation

A

Deoxygenated blood from right side of heart—>pulmonary artery—>lungs—>oxygenated blood carried by pulmonary veins—>left side of heart for distribution

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105
Q

Which pulmonary vessels carry deoxygenated blood

A

Pulmonary arteries

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106
Q

Which pulmonary vessels carry oxygenated blood

A

Pulmonary veins

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107
Q

Systemic circulation

A

Left ventricle—>aorta—>arterial distribution to body tissues—>capillary in tissues—>venous collecting system transports deoxygenated blood—>right atrium of heart

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108
Q

Portal circulation

A

Supplementary venous system in which two capillary beds are connected by a vein prior to heart

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109
Q

Hepatic portal

A

GI capillary—>distributing vein—>liver capillary—>systemic vein—>heart

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110
Q

Hypophyseal portal

A

Hypothalamus capillary—>distributing vein—>pituitary capillary—>systemic circulation

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111
Q

Vessels that function in blood distribution and collection

A

Elastic arteries, muscular arteries, medium veins

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112
Q

Vessels that function in interchange of metabolites between blood vessels and CT

A

Arterioles, capillaries, venules

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113
Q

Path of blood through vessels

A

Elastic arteries—>muscular arteries—>arterioles—>capillaries—>postcapillary venule—>venule—>medium vein—>large vein

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114
Q

Blood pressure in the arterial system

A

100-40 mmHg

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115
Q

What are the distributing vessels

A

Muscular arteries

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116
Q

Arteriovenous anastomsis

A

Channels with direct connection from arteriole to venule that bypass a capillary bed to conserve heat

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117
Q

Precapillary sphincter of arteriole

A

Smooth muscle that acts as a precapillary sphincter to regulate blood to capillary bed and determines if it by passes capillary via a shunt

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118
Q

Three concentric layers surrounding the lumen of a hollow tube

A

Tunica intima, tunica media, tunica adventitia

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119
Q

What is common to all parts of the circulatory system and is necessary to maintain blood vessel function

A

Endothelium (simple squamous epithelium)

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120
Q

Tunica intima

A

Internal layer of endothelium BM, LCT

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121
Q

Tunica media

A

Middle layer of mainly smooth muscle and some elastic fibers and type III collagen fibers. Contains fibers of the ANS.

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122
Q

Tunica adventitia

A

Outer layer of DICT—>LCT that connects the vessel to surrounding structures, contains fibers of ANS

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123
Q

What lines the lumen of all blood, lymphatic systems and heart

A

Endothelium

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124
Q

What vessels contain only endothelium with complete or incomplete basement membranes

A

Capillaries

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125
Q

Variation in each tunica exists for different vessels T/F

A

True

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126
Q

Arrangement of sub layers from the lumen out in the tunica intima

A

Endothelium, BM, subendothelial CT, internal elastic lamina (in muscular arteries)

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127
Q

Arrangement of sub layers from the lumen out in the tunica media

A

Muscular layer, ECM CT fibers, external elastic Lamina or elastic sheet

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128
Q

Components of the tunica intima

A

Simple squamous epithelium, ECM, LCT, aggregation of elastic fibers

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129
Q

Components of tunica media

A

Smooth muscle, smooth muscle cells arranged helically with intervening CT fibers, large aggregation of elastic fibers arranged as sheets throughout media or bundles between media and externa

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130
Q

Components of tunica adventitia

A

DICT—>LCT, nerve fascicles (ANS), blood vessels, smooth muscle in wall of large veins arranged longitudinally

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131
Q

Function of tunica intima

A

Diffusion barrier between blood and vessel wall, selectively permeability, coagulation via clotting proteins secreted from endothelium, controls adhesion of WBC/allows passage from vessel, accommodates volume fluctuation through the vessel

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132
Q

Function of tunica media

A

Regulates luminal diameter and determines vascular resistance, produce ECM fibers, vessel elasticity and recoil distribution of fibers varies based on vessel size

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133
Q

Function of the tunica adventitia

A

Attaches vessel to neighboring structures

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134
Q

What supplies nutrients to the walls of larger vessels

A

Vasa vasorum

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135
Q

What supplies ANS innervation to large vessels

A

Nervi vasorum

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136
Q

What are arteries characterized by

A

Size and characteristics of tunica media

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137
Q

What is the thickest layer of elastic/conducting vessels

A

Tunica media

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138
Q

Tunica intima of elastic/conducting vessels

A

Well developed with endothelium and subendothelium CT

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139
Q

Tunica adventitia of elastic/conducting vessels

A

Is much thinner than the media and contains numerous lymphatic vessels, vasa vasorum and Nervi vasorum

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140
Q

What is the functional significance of elastin

A

Allows elastic arteries to stretch when large volumes of blood are ejected at ventricular systole

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141
Q

What helps propel the blood forward in diastole

A

Elastic energy

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142
Q

Where is the internal elastic lamina

A

Between tunica intima and tunica media

143
Q

Where is the external elastic lamina

A

Between tunica media and tunica adventitia

144
Q

What vessels is the EEL more prominent in

A

Muscular artery. It is inconspicuous in elastic arteries due to the abundance of elastic fibers present

145
Q

What is the thickest layer in muscular/distributing arteries

A

Tunica media

146
Q

Tunica media of muscular/distributing arteries

A

Contains abundant smooth muscle cells, EEL located between smooth muscle and TA

147
Q

Tunica adventitia of muscular/distributing arteries

A

Consists of DICT to LCT, contains lymphatic vessels in larger vessels, vasa vasorum, Nervi vasorum, all of which may penetrate to the outer part of the media

148
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

Is an inflammatory disease that affects the tunica intima of the large elastic and muscular arteries. Characterized by endothelial damage, inflammation, increased synthesis of collagen fibers, and decreased production of elastic fibers

149
Q

Atheroma

A

Fibro fatty plaque formation

150
Q

Atheromas in elastic arteries

A

Produce localized destruction within the wall, weakening it and causing the arterial wall to bulge which can rupture

151
Q

Atheromas is muscular arteries

A

Cause narrowing of the lumen and occlusion to vessels which can lead to ischemia and hypoxia

152
Q

Arteriosclerosis

A

Is a broader term for narrowing or hardening of the smaller arteries due to age related loss of elasticity

153
Q

Thrombus

A

Is a blood clot inside a vessel (stationary)

154
Q

What represents the transition to micro vasculature

A

Arterioles

155
Q

Arterials do not have the same three layers as larger vessels (T/F)

A

False. They do have the same three layers they are just greatly diminished

156
Q

Tunica intima of arterioles

A

Is very thin, single layer of squamous epithelium, thin layer of CT, IEL is thin to absent

157
Q

Tunica media of arterioles

A

Consists of 1-6 layers of circularly arranged in smooth muscle layers. EEL is absent

158
Q

Tunica adventitia of arterioles

A

Is thin and inconspicuous, merges in with the surrounding CT tissue

159
Q

How do primary resistance vessels enter an organ to distribute and control blood flow into capillary beds

A

They enter an organ to distribute and control blood flow by contacting or dilating the size of the lumen

160
Q

What vessels are considered part of the resistance vasculature that provides the majority of the resistance to blood flow in the body

A

Arterioles

161
Q

What is the importance of arterioles

A

They will be the primary site of both resistance and regulation of blood pressure

162
Q

Terminal arteriole

A

Arteriole closest to capillary bed

163
Q

Precapillary sphincters

A

Are incomplete ring of smooth muscles at terminal end of arteriole/beginning of capillary

164
Q

What is there function of a terminal arteriole

A

Regulate the flow of blood to specific capillary beds

165
Q

AV shunt

A

Arteriole connects directly with venule and allows blood to bypass a capillary bed, conserve heat, and is localized/specialized routes for blood in skin, lips, erectile tissue.

166
Q

What is a key feature of an AV shunt

A

AV sphincters

167
Q

AV sphincters

A

Contraction or relaxation of incomplete rings of smooth muscle at terminal end of arteriole end of AV shunt determine blood flow

168
Q

What is the function of the AV shunt

A

AV shunts directly connect the arterial and venous systems and allow blood to temporarily bypass capillaries.

169
Q

What structure helps in thermoregulation in the skin by routing blood

A

AV shunts

170
Q

Composition of capillaries

A

Single layer of flattened endothelial cells with a variable basement membrane. There are no muscular or adventitia layers.

171
Q

Capillaries create ____________

A

Large surface area for exchange

172
Q

Function of capillaries

A

To perfuse tissue, exchange of gases and other substnaces occurs in capillaries between the blood and the surrounding cells and their tissue fluid

173
Q

Ranges of capillary lumen

A

5-10 micrometers

174
Q

What is the flow through capillaries described as

A

Microcirculation

175
Q

What optimizes capillaries for the exchange of nutrients and wastes between blood and tissues

A

Thin walls, extensive surface area, and slow, pulsation blood flow

176
Q

Continuous capillary

A

Continuous endothelial lining with tight junctions between their endothelial cells along with intercellular clefts through which small molecules like ions can pass through and produce minimal fluid leakage

177
Q

Functions of continuous capillaries

A

Selective exchange- all molecules across the endothelium must cross the cells by diffusion or transcytosis

178
Q

What is the most common type of capillary found in all major organs of the body

A

Continuous capillaries

179
Q

Where are continuous capillaries located

A

Brain, respiratory, heart, skin, digestive tract

180
Q

Fenestrated capillaries

A

BM, tight junctions, but also fenestrations through the endothelial cells that allows for greater exchange across the endothelium.

181
Q

Functions of Fenestrated capillaries

A

Exchange of macromolecules thus found in organs where molecular exchange with the blood is important.

182
Q

Discontinuous or sinusoidal capillaries

A

Wider diameter than the other types and have discontinuities between the endothelial cells, large fenestrations through the cells, and a partial discontinuous basement membrane

183
Q

Where can you find Fenestrated capillaries

A

Small intestine, kidneys/glomerulus, choroid plexus of the brain and most endocrine organs, pancreas, hypthalamus, pituitary, pineal, and thyroid gland

184
Q

Function of discontinuous capillaries

A

Exchange of macromolecules and passage of cells

185
Q

Where do you find discontinuous capillaries

A

Bone marrow, liver, and spleen

186
Q

What does vasodilation of an arteriole result in

A

Increased perfusion and increased pressure of capillary bed which increases the fluid passing from capillary to CT

187
Q

What does vasoconstriction of an arteriole result in

A

Decreased perfusion and decreased pressure of the capillary bed. So increases uptake/absorption of excess fluid from CT back into venous system

188
Q

What affects the flow rate

A

Local hormones, and/or neurotransmitters from ANS cause vasodilation and vasoconstriction of arterioles and arteries which will impact capillary perfusion

189
Q

Where is hydrostatic pressure high vs low

A

High on arteriole side and low on venule side

190
Q

Where is osmotic pressure low vs high

A

Low on arteriole side and high on venule side

191
Q

What reabsorbs excess interstitial/CT fluid

A

Venous end of circulation

192
Q

Where does fluid leave vessels and enter CT

A

Arteriole end of circulation

193
Q

What determines the total surface area available for exchange

A

Density of capillary network

194
Q

If a tissue has a high metabolic need what happens to the capillary density

A

It tends to be high as well

195
Q

What is the function of a metarteriole

A

Controls whether blood flows through the capillary bed or bypasses it via an AV shunt. Important during stress, exertion, and temp control

196
Q

Postcapillary venule

A

Receives blood directly from the capillary bed and is found in all CT

197
Q

What characteristics make the postcapillary venules favorable for fluid and solute exchange

A

Slow flow; provide favorable conditions for passive diffusion between blood and interstitial fluid
More permeable to solutes than arterioles

198
Q

Endothelial cells of postcapillary venules can alter their…

A

permeability to fluid and solutes in response to physiological and inflammatory stimuli

199
Q

What is the primary site of a white blood cell to adhere to the endothelium and leave the circulation at site of infection or tissue damage

A

Postcapillary venules

200
Q

What are some key histological features of a postcapillary venule

A

TI layer is inconspicuous, TM with one or two muscle fiber layers, lacks valves, TA merges with surrounding tissue

201
Q

What do small to medium sized veins do

A

Receive blood from collecting and small veins

202
Q

A _______________ is a collecting venule

A

Postcapillary venule

203
Q

What do veins tend to run parallel with

A

Corresponding muscular artery

204
Q

Veins are more numerous than arteries of similar size T/F

A

True

205
Q

Key histological features of small to medium veins

A

Collapsed lumen with RBC’s, TI has one way valves, TM is smooth muscle to prevent pooling, lack external or internal elastic layer, TA IS THICKER THAN TM

206
Q

One way valves

A

In folding of TI visible in the lumen of veins to help direct blood flow

207
Q

Where are one way valves more common

A

In the veins of the lower extremities to prevent back flow

208
Q

Large veins are classified as what and why

A

As capacitance vessels due to high volumes of blood contained and the ability to readily accommodate changes in the blood volume.

209
Q

Key histological features of large veins

A

Well developed TA, smooth muscle in TM, smooth muscle may also be seen in TA to aid in propelling blood back to heart, muscle of TA is arranged longitudinally, valves present in leg veins but absent in vena cava and portal vein

210
Q

What contributes to venous return to the right atrium

A

Calf muscle pump, vein valves, respiration

211
Q

Calf muscle pump

A

External compression and action of the calf skeletal muscle helps force blood upward

212
Q

Vein valves

A

Healthy valves close, preventing blood from refluxing of pooling during relaxation. Smooth muscle longitudinally arranged in TA of vessels

213
Q

Respiration contribution to venous return

A

The movement of the diaphragm during inspiration creates a negative intrathoracic pressure that assists the return of blood from the legs and abdomen to the right side of the heart

214
Q

What causes varicose veins

A

Failure of valves to close

215
Q

What does a high endothelial venule or specialized post capillary venule do

A

Allows selective passage of lymphocytes in to lymph node and MALT

216
Q

TI and TM of high endothelial venule/specialized post capillary venule

A

Cuboidal (endothelium), TM has some CT but no Smooth muscle

217
Q

Functions of the integument

A

Renewable, resists abrasion, protects against infection, protective barrier against UV light, prevents desiccation and absorption, thermoregulation, excretory organ, endocrine function, somatic sensory perception, wound healing.

218
Q

What are the two categories of skin

A

Thick and thin

219
Q

Thick skin

A

Also called glabrous/smooth hairless. Found on palms of hands, soles of feet.

220
Q

Thin hair

A

Most of the body and scalp also hairy

221
Q

Structures of the skin that are ectoderm derived

A

Epidermis, glands, hair follicles, nails

222
Q

What germ layer forms the dermis

A

Mesoderm

223
Q

What makes up the dermis

A

DICT and LCT

224
Q

What germ layer is the hypodermis derived from

A

Mesoderm

225
Q

What makes up the hypodermis

A

Adipose

226
Q

What is the external outside surface of the integument

A

Cutaneous membrane

227
Q

What is the order of the underlying layers of CT from superficial to deep

A

LCT, DICT, adipose/LCT

228
Q

Type of tissue in the epidermis

A

SSK

229
Q

Features of epidermis

A

4-5 layers of epithelium with the superficial layer being keratinized, avascular, varying thickness of SSK, contains nails, sensory receptors, ducts of glands and hair follicles pass through

230
Q

Two layers of the dermis

A

Papillary (LCT) and reticular (DICT)

231
Q

What layer makes up the bulk of the dermis

A

Reticular layer

232
Q

What cells are contained in the dermis

A

WBC, macrophages, mast cells, plasma cells

233
Q

What vessels are contained in the dermis

A

Blood vessels, arterio-venous anastomoses, capillaries

234
Q

What neuronal structures reside in the dermis

A

Nerve fibers, sensory receptors,

235
Q

What structures are in the dermis

A

Hair follicles, sebaceous glands, smooth muscle, ducts

236
Q

What forms a pill sebaceous unit

A

Hair follicle, smooth muscle, and sebaceous (oil) glands

237
Q

Anatomical name of the hypodermis

A

Superficial fascia/subcutaneous tissue

238
Q

What is contained in the hypodermis

A

Subcutaneous LCT tissue layer and adipose, contained larger blood vessels, some secretory parts of glands, base of hair follicles, sensory receptors, WBC, macrophages, mast cells, plasma cells

239
Q

What is the most variable layer between thick and thin skin

A

Superficial layer called stratum corneum

240
Q

What histological appearance does the stratum corneum have in thick and thin skin

A

It’s anucleated and comprised of layers of keratin proteins and phospholipids

241
Q

What layer contains stem cells and progenitor cells that will mature into keratinocytes

A

Stratum basale

242
Q

What layer contains intensely basophilic stained granules in both thin and thick skin

A

Stratum granulosum

243
Q

What structures contain stem cells

A

Sebaceous glands, sweat glands, and hair follicles

244
Q

Stratum basale

A

Single layer of cuboidal shaped cells, keratinocytes appear basophillic due to size and round shaped nuclei. This layer serves as stem cell source.

245
Q

Epithelial stem cell layer

A

Rapidly renewing layer that provides continual turnover. SB can self renew or become a mitotically active progenitor cell.

246
Q

What cells migrate to the surface and become flattened and synthesized keratin

A

Progenitor keratinocytes

247
Q

Hemidesmosomes

A

Attach the stratum basale to the basement membrane, the BM attaches epithelium to the dermis

248
Q

Desmosomes

A

Attach adjacent cells together and are found in all layers throughout the epidermis

249
Q

Stratum spinosum

A

Has several layers (5-7), adjacent cells are attached at spines by desmosomes, mitotically active cells

250
Q

How are the keratinocytes characterized in the stratum spinosum

A

By cytoplasmic extensions extending between cells (desmosomes)

251
Q

Stratum granulosum

A

1-3 layers thick and functions to synthesize a protein that causes the individual keratin filaments to aggregate into bundles of keratin. Also synthesizes phospholipids that spread between the keratin filaments in the stratum corneum to form a water barrier

252
Q

Where is the protein created in the stratum granulosum stored

A

In basophilic granules called keratohyalin granules

253
Q

Key histological feature of stratum granulosum

A

Keratohyalin granules

254
Q

Stratum lucidum

A

Unique to thick skin! Found at the interface of the granulosum and corneum, blue refractile appearnce, keratinocyte cells dont have a nucleus—undergoing apoptosis

255
Q

Stratum corneum

A

Most superficial layer comprised of keratin bundles and apoptotic keratinocytes. No organelles present just anucleated squamous cells.

256
Q

What forms the water barrier and aids in preventing desiccation in the stratum corneum

A

Combination of phospholipids found between the keratin filaments provide a water barrier between granulosum and corneum.

257
Q

The stratum corneum does not vary in thickness with thick and thin skin T/F

A

False. It varies greatly from 5-7 layers to 15-20.

258
Q

Keratinocyte

A

Predominant cell type found throughout all layers of epithelium. They synthesize and assemble the proteins involved in keratinization. Resists abrasion and produces phospholipids to form water barrier

259
Q

What germ layer do keratinocytes come from

A

Ectoderm

260
Q

Melanocyte

A

Scattered cells found in stratum basale, synthesizes melanin, protects against UV radiation (increased exposure+increased synthesis).

261
Q

How do melanocytes transfer melanin pigment

A

In vesicles to groups of progenitor keratinocytes in stratum basale.

262
Q

How does melanocyte vary between races

A

They do not vary much at all but the rate of vesicular transfer, melanin storage, breakdown of pigment is what changes.

263
Q

What does a slower breakdown of melanin result in

A

Wider distribution of melanin throughout layers

264
Q

What are other factors that affect melanin

A

Type and ratio of pigments synthesized vary and distribution of melanocytes within different parts of the body

265
Q

What leads to albinism

A

Faulty melanin synthesis due defects in enzymatic pathway that forms melanin

266
Q

What is melanoma

A

An aggressive highly malignant skin cancer arising from melanocytes.

267
Q

Langerhans cells

A

Are found in upper layer of stratum spinosum and are a type of phagocytic WBC. They function as an antigen presenting cell they phagocytose antigen and present it to T cells in the lymph node.

268
Q

Clinical implications of langerhans cells

A

Involved in delayed hypersensitivity reactions

269
Q

What germ layer do langerhans cells come form

A

Mesoderm

270
Q

Merkel cells

A

Modified keratinocytes found in the stratum basale and function to form sensory receptor that detects cutaneous sensation by responding to mechanical deflection.

271
Q

What does a merkel cell complex with

A

Myelinated sensory nerve fiber to form a sensory receptor called a mechanoreceptor

272
Q

What do merkel cells represent

A

A modified sensory receptor that complexes with an afferent sensory nerve fiber

273
Q

Dermal epidermal junction

A

Interdigitaitng between s basale cell layer of epidermis/basement membrane and the LCT layer dermis

274
Q

What does the dermal epidermal junction function to do

A

To minimize friction. They are higher in number and deeper interdigitation in thick skin

275
Q

What skin exhibits the deepest ridges

A

Skin that is subject to higher amounts of friction

276
Q

What are the structures at the dermal-epidermal junction

A

Dermal papillae and epidermal ridges

277
Q

Dermal papillae

A

Upward projection of dermis into epidermis

278
Q

Epidermal ridge

A

Downward projections of epidermis into dermis

279
Q

Papillary layer of dermis

A

Thin superficial layer of LCT that forms dermal papillae

280
Q

Structures in the papillary layer

A

Superficial capillary network, meissner’s corpuscle, merkels disc

281
Q

Superficial capillary network

A

Important for temperature control and free nerve endings

282
Q

Meissner’s corpuscle

A

Cutaneous nerve endings located in the dermal papilla that detects touch

283
Q

Merkel’s disc

A

Name for the myelinated afferent nerve fiber that complexes with merkel cell

284
Q

Reticular layer

A

Thick layer of DICT

285
Q

Structures in reticular layer

A

Small blood vessels, arterio-venous anastomosis (AV shunts), hair follicles, sebaceous glands, ducts of sweat glands, pacinian corpuscles, ruffini nerve endings

286
Q

Hypodermis/subcutaneous superficial fascia

A

Loose CT and adipose tissue, dermal-hypodermal junction

287
Q

What structures are contained in the dermal-hypodermal junction

A

Contains secretory cells for sweat glands, pacinian corpuscles, small arteries, veins, and base of hair follicle may extend into deeper hypodermis.

288
Q

What allows the skin to serve in heat exchange for thermoregulation

A

It’s large surface area and extensive vascularization

289
Q

What NS regulates/controls the cutaneous temperature

A

Sympathetic

290
Q

What does the sympathetic activity control

A

Arterial blood flow to capillary beds via arteriole vasoconstriction and dilation. Opening and closing of AV shunts.

291
Q

Where’s re AV shunts mainly found

A

Thick skin, lips, ears and nose

292
Q

What does an increased body temp result in

A

Promotes vasodilation of superficial capillary beds

293
Q

How does the the increased body temp cause vasodilation

A

Precapillary sphincters relax/open and AV shunts close/constricts

294
Q

What does the vasodilation result in with an increased body temp

A

Opening of capillary beds diverts blood flow to superficial capillaries to dissipate heat. The sympathetic NS also stimulates sweat glands to aid in cooling.

295
Q

What does a cold body temp promote

A

Vasoconstriction/ closure of superficial capillary beds to conserve heat

296
Q

What mechanism occurs with a decrease body temp and vasoconstriction

A

Precapillary sphincters close/constrict and AV shunts open

297
Q

What is the outcome of vasodilation in a decrease body temp

A

Closure of superficial capillary beds diverts blood to AV anastomoses and AV shunts blood directly form arteriole to venule and keeps blood deeper in body tissue

298
Q

Epidermal skin appendages

A

Pilosebaceous unit

299
Q

Where are hair follicles found

A

In hypodermis/reticular dermis and extends through the dermis to epidermis

300
Q

What is hair

A

Layers of keratinized cells

301
Q

What are key histological features of hair follicles

A

Shaft of follicle is associated with sebaceous glands, aporcrine sweat glands, arrector pili muscles

302
Q

What germ layer are hair follicles from

A

Ectoderm

303
Q

Arrector pili muscles

A

Smooth muscle, located in the reticular layer of the dermis and attaches to the outer shaft of hair follicles and adjacent to sebaceous glands.

304
Q

What germ layer do arrector pili muscles come from

A

Mesoderm

305
Q

Sebaceous gland

A

Is an exocrine gland located in the reticular dermis/hypodermis and are under hormonal control form puberty on.

306
Q

What method of secretion do sebaceous glands use

A

Holocrine method

307
Q

What oily substance does a sebaceous gland produce

A

Sebum

308
Q

What germ layer are sebaceous glands developed from

A

Ectoderm

309
Q

What are the sweat glands of the skin

A

Exocrine glands

310
Q

What are the sweat glands of the skin innervated by

A

Sympathetic NS

311
Q

What method of secretion do the sweat glands of the skin use

A

Merocrine

312
Q

Apocrine sweat glands

A

Have secretory units found in the reticular layer of dermis/hypodermis junction and ducts that extend through dermis and open to hair follicles

313
Q

Where are apocrine sweat glands found

A

In the skin of the axilla and external genitalia

314
Q

What do apocrine sweat glands respond to and produce

A

Emotional stressors and produce a protein based product that can produce an odor upon interacting with bacteria on the skin

315
Q

Eccrine sweat glands

A

Secretory units found in the reticular layer of the dermis/hypodermis with ducts that extend through the dermis and open onto the external surface of the epidermis

316
Q

Where are eccrine sweat glands located

A

All over the body except in the lips and external genitalia

317
Q

Where are there high numbers of eccrine glands

A

Forehead, palms/soles of feet, axilla

318
Q

What is the function of eccrine glands and what do they produce

A

Mainly regulate temperature but can respond to emotional stressors. They produce a watery/electrolyte product

319
Q

What are the functional classifications of cutaneous sensory receptors

A

Mechanoreceptor, thermoreceptors, nociceptors

320
Q

Mechanoreceptor

A

Sense mechanical displacement and it is perceived as light discriminative touch, pressure, vibration, stretch and tension

321
Q

Thermoreceptors

A

Sense temperature change and it is perceived as warm or cool depending on the receptor

322
Q

Nociceptors

A

Sense extreme stimuli of temp, mechanical, and chemical stimuli. These sensations are perceived as pain; either fast and sharp (1st pain and unmyelinated) or slow and dull (2nd and unmyelinated)

323
Q

Motor innervation of the integument is controlled by what

A

Autonomic NS—sympathetic

324
Q

Where do all ANS sympathetic postganglionic fibers terminate

A

In the dermis on smooth muscle of blood vessels, arrector pili muscles, sweat glands

325
Q

What classification of receptors do apocrine and eccrine sweat glands utilize

A

Apocrine- adrenergic
Eccrine-cholinergic

326
Q

What are the structural classifications of sensory receptors

A

Non-encapsulated/ free and encapsulated/CT and myelin covering

327
Q

What is the functional significance of encapsulated receptors

A

Encapsulation increases specificity of nerve impulse transmission

328
Q

Functional significance of myelinated vs unmyelinated receptors

A

Myelination increases conduction speed

329
Q

Types of non-encapsulated/free nerve ending receptors

A

Free nerve ending receptors, specialized free receptor, hair follicle receptor

330
Q

Free nerve endings

A

Nociceptors, thermoreceptors, mechanoreceptors

331
Q

Specialized free receptors

A

Merkel corpuscle which are mechanoreceptors that detect light touch.
Hair follicle receptor which are also mechanoreceptors and detect deformation of hair so if it’s upright or laying down

332
Q

What are the four types of encapsulated mechanoreceptors

A

Meissner’s corpuscle, Krause end bulbs, pacinian corpuscles, ruffini corpuscle

333
Q

Meissner’s corpuscle

A

Located in dermal papillae of papillary layer in thick skin and they detect light discriminative touch

334
Q

Krause end bulbs

A

Located in papillary layer of dermis of thick skin and function in cold thermal/pressure detection

335
Q

Pacinian corpuscle

A

Located in reticular layer of dermis/hypodermis of all skin and some organs and function in transient deep pressure/vibration.

336
Q

Ruffini corpuscle

A

Located in reticular layer of dermis/hypodermis of skin and function to detect stretching of CT fibers/pressure joints

337
Q

What kind of epithelial membrane is the skin

A

A cutaneous membrane covering the external surface of the body

338
Q

What kind of epithelial membrane is the oral mucosa

A

Is a mucous membrane that lines the interior lumen of a hollow organ or lines a passageway that leads to the outside surface

339
Q

What is the skin turn over time and what skin does it take longer in

A

28-55 days and thick skin takes longer

340
Q

What is the oral mucosa turnover time

A

14-20 days

341
Q

Epithelium of the oral mucosa

A

SSK, SSPK, SSNK

342
Q

SSPK

A

Has no stratum corneum only SG, SS, SB

343
Q

What types of intracellular and cell-extracellular junctions exist in the oral cavity

A

Desmosomes and hemidesmosomes

344
Q

Intraepithelial separation

A

Affects desmosomes

345
Q

Subepithelial separation

A

Affects hemidesmosomes

346
Q

Do both skin and oral mucosa exhibit rete ridges and dermal papillae

A

Yes

347
Q

What is the name of the LCT layer in the oral mucosa

A

Papillary layer of lamina propria

348
Q

Name of DICT layer of oral mucosa

A

Reticular layer of lamina propria

349
Q

Name of CT and adipose layer of oral mucosa

A

Submucosa but it is not present in all regions of the oral mucosa

350
Q

How do skin and oral mucosa differ in healing

A

Oral mucosa very rarely forms scar tissue because it exhibits faster rate of epithelial renewal

351
Q

What are factors influencing healing in OM

A

1) Local environment of oral cavity = moist,
ambient temp
2) Presence of saliva and salivary proteins
3) Reduced inflammation

352
Q

What helps reduced inflammation in the OM

A

Rate of epithelial turnover
Type of fibroblasts and rate of cell turnover impacts ECM synthesis decreases scar formation
Fewer inflammatory cells

353
Q

What are complicated wounds in the OM that may scar

A

Tooth extraction and pulp inflammation

354
Q

Is angiogenesis decreased in wound healing of the skin or oral mucosa

A

Oral mucosa