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Bio 101 > Exam #3 from slideshow > Flashcards

Exam #3 from slideshow Flashcards

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1
Q

What are prokaryotes?

A

genomes small and circular

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2
Q

Where is the DNA in prokaryotes?

A

DNA in cytoplasm

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3
Q

What are eukaryote?

A

genome larger and linear

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4
Q

Where is DNA in eukaryotes
Located?

A

DNA is in the nucleus

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5
Q

what is the first step to Binary fission

A
  1. Circular bacterial DNA molecule attached by protien to inner surface of membrane
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6
Q

What is Binary fission

A

Prokaryotic cell division

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7
Q

Second step to binary fission

A
  1. DNA replication begins ; moves bi-directionally around the circular DNA
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8
Q

Third step to binary fission

A
  1. Newly synthesized DNA molecule also attaches to the inner membrane ; near attachment site to the parent molecule
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9
Q

fourth step to binary fission

A

The cell gets longer ; separating DNA molecules

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10
Q

fifth step to binary fission

A

Synthesis of new cell membrane ; cell division starts

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11
Q

sixth step to binary fusion

A

Parent and daughter cell seperate ; Synthesis completes

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12
Q

What are the two types of Eukaryotic cell division?

A

Mitosis and Meiosis

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13
Q

Primary function of Mitosis

A

asexual reproduction of somatic cells

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14
Q

Why Mitosis?

A

Tissues can grow and repair (cells male re move cells)
So organisms can reproduce a sexually

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15
Q

Primary function of meiosis

A

production of gametes

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16
Q

Whats a gametes

A

sperm and eggs

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17
Q

Why Meiosis?

A

So organisms can produce Sexually

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18
Q

Where does Mitosis take place?

A

All somatic cells

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19
Q

Where does Meiosis take place

A

specialized germ cells in gonads

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20
Q

What is the primary difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic genomes?

A

Prokaryotic genomes are small and circular, while eukaryotic genomes are large and linear

Prokaryotic DNA is located in the cytoplasm, whereas eukaryotic DNA is found in the nucleus.

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21
Q

What is the process of prokaryotic cell division called?

A

Binary fission

In binary fission, DNA replication begins at a specific location and proceeds bi-directionally.

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22
Q

What are the two types of eukaryotic cell division?

A
  • Mitosis
  • Meiosis

Mitosis is for asexual reproduction of somatic cells, while meiosis is for the production of gametes.

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23
Q

What are the stages of interphase in the eukaryotic somatic cell cycle?

A
  • G1: Pre-synthesis growth
  • S: Synthesis of DNA via replication
  • G2: Post-synthesis growth

Interphase is the phase before cell division.

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24
Q

What are homologous chromosomes?

A

Chromosomes that carry the same genes but may have different versions (alleles) of those genes

They have similar sizes and shapes.

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25
Q

What occurs during prophase of mitosis?

A

Chromosomes condense, and centrosomes produce microtubules that migrate to opposite poles

The mitotic spindle is composed of microtubules.

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26
Q

What is the outcome of mitosis?

A

Two identical daughter cells are produced

There is no reduction in chromosome number.

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27
Q

What is crossing over and when does it occur?

A

The exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids during prophase I of meiosis

This results in recombinant chromatids.

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28
Q

What are the main differences between meiosis and mitosis?

A
  • Meiosis results in four haploid gametes
  • Mitosis results in two diploid daughter cells
  • Meiosis includes two rounds of division

Meiosis reduces chromosome number, while mitosis maintains it.

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29
Q

What are the phases of the cell cycle?

A
  • G1 phase
  • S phase
  • G2 phase
  • M phase

M phase includes both mitosis and cytokinesis.

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30
Q

What is the function of cyclin proteins in the cell cycle?

A

Cyclin proteins bind to and activate cyclin-dependent kinases (CDK) to control progression through the cell cycle

Cyclin-CDK complexes phosphorylate target proteins that promote cell division.

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31
Q

What is the role of the p53 protein in the cell cycle?

A

p53 inhibits the cell cycle when DNA damage is detected, allowing time for repair

It acts as a transcription factor to turn on genes that produce proteins inhibiting cell division.

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32
Q

True or False: Tumor suppressor genes promote cell division.

A

False

Tumor suppressor genes encode proteins that inhibit cell division.

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33
Q

What is the multiple mutation model for cancer development?

A
  • Activation of oncogene
  • Inactivation of tumor suppressor genes
  • Development from normal cells to benign cancer to malignant cancer

Metastasis can occur when malignant cancer spreads to new sites.

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34
Q

Fill in the blank: The process of _______ produces haploid gametes.

A

Meiosis

This process is essential for sexual reproduction.

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35
Q

What is a genome?

A

All the genetic material in an organism

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36
Q

Which type of genomes are the smallest?

A

Viral genomes

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37
Q

How is genome size measured?

A

Number of nucleotides or base pairs (bp)

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38
Q

What is the size of the COVID-19 genome?

A

30,000 bp

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39
Q

What does MB stand for in genomic terms?

A

Megabase = 1 million base pairs

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40
Q

What is lateral gene transfer (LGT)?

A

Movement of genetic material between organisms other than by vertical transmission

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41
Q

What is the C value paradox?

A

The amount of DNA in a cell is not strongly related to the complexity of an organism

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42
Q

What are the three fundamental components of genomic research?

A
  • Genome Sequencing
  • Genome Assembly
  • Genome Annotation
43
Q

What is genomics?

A

An interdisciplinary field of biology focused on the structure, function, evolution, mapping, & editing of genomes

44
Q

What is the Sanger method?

A

A chain termination method for DNA sequencing, commercialized in 1987

45
Q

What is Next Generation Sequencing (NGS)?

A

A sequencing technology available since 2004 that allows high-throughput whole-genome sequencing

46
Q

What is the primary purpose of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

A

To amplify/replicate DNA

47
Q

What are the steps involved in PCR?

A
  • DNA sample
  • dNTP (nucleotides)
  • Primers
  • Taq Polymerase
  • Buffer solution
48
Q

What is structural annotation in genome annotation?

A

Identification of genomic elements and their locations within the genome

49
Q

What are noncoding DNA sequences?

A

Sequences that do not code for proteins but may have regulatory functions

50
Q

What is a mutation?

A

Any change in the genetic material of an organism

51
Q

What is the difference between somatic cells and germ cells regarding mutations?

A

Somatic mutations are not heritable; germ cell mutations are passed on to offspring

52
Q

What is a single-nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)?

A

A substitution of a single nucleotide at a specific position in the genome present in a large fraction of the population

53
Q

What is the role of short tandem repeat (STR) polymorphisms in DNA fingerprinting?

A

They provide a unique combination of alleles based on the number of repeats at each STR site

54
Q

What is copy number variation (CNV)?

A

Variation in the number of copies of a particular region of the genome

55
Q

True or False: Mutations are random and unrelated to their usefulness to the organism.

A

True

56
Q

What can cause cystic fibrosis at the genetic level?

A

Nucleotide deletion mutations

57
Q

What is a frameshift mutation?

A

A mutation caused by nucleotide insertion or deletion that alters the reading frame of the gene

58
Q

What are the types of point mutations?

A
  • Synonymous (silent) mutations
  • Nonsynonymous (missense) mutations
  • Nonsense mutations
59
Q

What technique is commonly used to separate DNA fragments by size?

A

Gel Electrophoresis

60
Q

What is the average size of a human protein-coding gene?

A

10,000-15,000 base pairs of DNA

61
Q

What is the typical mutation rate in smaller genomes?

A

Higher mutation rates per cell cycle

62
Q

What percentage of the human genome is due to copy number variation (CNV)?

A

5-10%

63
Q

Fill in the blank: The process of identifying all organisms in an environmental sample is known as _______.

A

Metagenomics

64
Q

What is the role of genomic annotation?

A

Attaching biological information to genomic elements

65
Q

What is genetic variation?

A

Genetic differences that exist among individuals in a population at a particular point in time

This concept is essential in understanding how traits are inherited and expressed.

66
Q

Define genotype.

A

The genetic makeup of a cell or organism

The genotype determines the potential traits that can be expressed.

67
Q

What is a gene?

A

Segment of DNA that codes for a protein

Genes are the basic units of heredity.

68
Q

What are alleles?

A

Alternate versions of a gene

Alleles can be dominant or recessive.

69
Q

Define locus.

A

Location of a gene

The locus is crucial for identifying gene positions on chromosomes.

70
Q

What is a phenotype?

A

An individual’s observable characteristics (e.g., height, eye color)

The phenotype is the physical expression of a genotype.

71
Q

What is Mendel’s Principle of Segregation?

A

During gamete formation, alleles for a trait segregate from each other

This principle explains how offspring inherit one allele from each parent.

72
Q

What is a dihybrid cross?

A

Predicts inheritance patterns of two genes that are independent of each other

Dihybrid crosses help in understanding the concept of independent assortment.

73
Q

What does Mendel’s Principle of Independent Assortment state?

A

Genes are inherited independently of other genes

This principle applies when genes are located on different chromosomes.

74
Q

True or False: Genetic linkage means that genes on the same chromosome exhibit independent assortment.

A

False

Linked genes do not assort independently due to their proximity on the chromosome.

75
Q

What is incomplete dominance?

A

Heterozygous genotype displays a unique phenotype that differs from that of homozygous genotypes

An example is the blending of flower colors.

76
Q

What is codominance?

A

Heterozygous genotypes simultaneously display multiple phenotypes

An example is AB blood type.

77
Q

What is pleiotropy?

A

One gene influences two or more seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits

This concept highlights the complexity of gene functions.

78
Q

What is a polygenic trait?

A

Multiple genes contributing to one phenotype

These traits often show a range of phenotypes, such as height.

79
Q

Fill in the blank: Almost none of the genes in the ______ chromosome have counterparts in the Y chromosome.

A

X

This difference in gene content impacts sex-linked traits.

80
Q

What is the expected ratio of XX (female) and XY (male) progeny from random fertilization?

A

1/2 XX and 1/2 XY

This ratio results from the segregation of sex chromosomes during meiosis.

81
Q

What are X-linked traits?

A

Traits whose genes are located on the X chromosome

Males are more likely to express recessive X-linked traits like colorblindness.

82
Q

What is genetic linkage?

A

Genes on the same chromosome exhibit linkage and are called linked genes

The closer genes are on a chromosome, the more likely they are to be inherited together.

83
Q

What does the frequency of gene recombination indicate?

A

It is used to determine the distance between genes and map their relative locations on a chromosome

Recombination frequency is a key concept in genetic mapping.

84
Q

What is heritability?

A

The proportion of variation in a trait that can be attributed to genetic differences

Heritability is often studied using twin studies.

85
Q

Define concordance in the context of twin studies.

A

Percentage of cases in which both members of a pair of twins show the trait

High concordance rates indicate a strong genetic influence on traits.

86
Q

What is regression toward the mean?

A

The tendency for offspring to resemble the average of their parents rather than the extremes

This concept illustrates the influence of both genetics and environment.

87
Q

What is a complex trait?

A

A trait influenced by multiple genes and environmental factors

Examples include height, weight, and susceptibility to diseases.

88
Q

True or False: Mitochondrial DNA is inherited directly via the maternal lineage with no recombination.

A

True

This mode of inheritance is crucial for tracing maternal ancestry.

89
Q

G 1

A

Pre. synthesis growth

90
Q

S

A

Synthesis of DNA via reproduction ; Interphase

91
Q

G2

A

Post synthesis growth ; Interphase

92
Q

Humans have ___ # of chromosomes

A

23 pairs; total n=46

93
Q

Prophase (Mitosis)

A

Chromosomes condenses ; Centrosomes make microtubes + move to polar ends

94
Q

Pro metaphase (Mitosis )

A

Microtubes of Microspindles attach to chromosomes

95
Q

Metaphase (Mitosis)

A

Chromosomes aline in center of the cell

96
Q

Anaphase (Mitosis)

A

sister chromatides pulled apart to poles by Microspindles

97
Q

Telophase (Mitosis)

A

theformation of nuclear envelope ; Chromosomes condense.

98
Q

Prophase I ( Meiosis)

A

Neclear membrane breaks down ; homologous chromosomes condence
…
non sister chromatinds attach (Bivalent) switch DNA

99
Q

Prometaphase I (Meiosis)

A

Microtubes attach to Kinetochores on chromosomes

100
Q

Metaphase I ( Meiosis )

A

Pairs line up on equator

101
Q

Anaphase I (Meiosis)

A

Homologous Chromosomes seperate ; sister chromatinds stay together

102
Q

Telophase I (Meiosis)

A

Two cells form (. cytokinesis)

103
Q

Meiosis second phase

A

prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, telophase

Anaphase - chromosomes pulled apart = cromatids

Bio 101 (3 decks)

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