Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Microbiology MS1 > Exam 3/Final > Flashcards

Exam 3/Final Flashcards

1
Q

Parrot Fever

A

Chlamydophila psittaci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Walking pneumoniae

2nd to Mycoplasma pneumoniae as leading cause of walking pneumoniae

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Highly contagious hazard to poultry worker, veterinarians. (parakeets, macaws, parrots, cockatiels)

A

Chlamydophila psittaci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acute infection of the lower respiratory tract, dry hacking cough, enlarged liver and spleen, interaction with birds.

A

C. psittaci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Unique characteristics to chlamydiacae

A
  • Obligate intracellular
  • Exists as 2 distinct morhpologies (EB + RB)
  • Double layered cell envelope with NO Peptidoglycan
  • Can’t synthesize ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Infectious form/morphology of chlamydiacae

A 
Elementary Body (EB)
Small and Hardy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Intracellular form/morphology of chlamydiacae

A 
Reticulate Body (RB)
Large and Fragile
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This species reticulate bodies synthesize large amounts of glycogen and inclusion bodies stain blue with iodine

A

C. trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Asymptomatic pneumonia, cold agglutinins in serology, aged 5-15, P1 Adhesions (virulence), lack cell wall

A

Mycoplasma Pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Asymptomatic pneumonia, adult, MIF assay confirmed, Gram -, Obligate intracellular parasite

A

C. Pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

C. trachomatis serotype (A, B, Ba, and C

A

Trachoma - chronic eye infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

C. trachomatis serotype (D-K)

A
  • Inclusion Conjunctivitis (neonatal conjunctivitis

- Non-Gonococcal urethritis (NGU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

C. trachomatis serotype (L)

A

Lymphogranuloma venerum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tell-tale sign of C. trachomatis

A

Neutrophils and cytoplasmic inclusions in exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most common cause of neonatal conjunctivitis in the U.S.

A

C. trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most common bacterial STD in the U.S.

A

NGU via C. trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most common STD in the U.S. overall

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Painful swelling of the inguinal and peri-rectal lymphnodes, replicates in macrophages

A

Lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why are Mycoplasma/Ureaplasma resistant to cephalosporins,penicillins, beta-lactams, etc.?

A

Lack a cell wall, smallest free living organism in nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Relentless dry hacking cough, non-purulent otitis media, P1 adhesions (causing persistant cough), x-ray shows unilateral patchy pneumonia in lower lobes

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Fried egg appearance on agar, sexual contact

A

Mycoplasma hominins or Mycoplasma genitalium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fried egg apperance, sexual contact, metabolize arginine, post-partum fever

A

Mycoplasma hominins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

3 possible bugs for (NGU) - non-ghonococcal urethritis

A

Mycoplasma, Ureaplasma, Chlamidophyla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

No cell wall, cultured on ureaplasma agar, produces urease

A

U. urealyticum - either NGU (men), Post partum fever (women)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Three major pathogenic spirochetes

A

Treponemes
Borellia
Leptospira

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Catalase +

A

Staph sp.

  • aureus
  • sapro
  • epi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Coagulase +

A

S. Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Catalase -

A 
Strep sp
- pyogenes
- agalactiae
- pneumoniae
- veridans
Enterococcus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Staph strand novobiocin sensitive?

A

S. Epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is a viral capsid made of

A

proteins called capsomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which viral structure (enveloped or non) is more resistant to environmental conditions?

A

non-enveloped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Constituents of viral envelope?

A

Lipid membrane
Host Cell
Glycoprotein spikes (host cell attachment)
Note: more susceptible to environmental conditions because membrane can dry/shrivel up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How are viruses classified?

A

type of nucleic acid (RNA/DNA)
envelope or not
shape of capsid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Name 3 Enveloped DNA Viruses

Use host cell RNA polymerase to make mRNA

A

Pox
Herpes
Hapadna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name 4 Naked DNA Viruses

Use host cell RNA polymerase to make mRNA

A

Papilloma/Papo (ds)
Adeno (ds)
Parvo (ss)
Polyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Name 2 Naked +RNA Viruses

These viruses use themselves as mRNA

A

Picorna

Calici

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Name 3 Enveloped +RNA viruses

These viruses use themselves mRNA

A

Toga
Flavi
Corona

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Name 6 Enveloped -RNA viruses?

These use their own polymerase to make mRNA in the host cell

A 
Rhabdo
Filo
Orthomyxo
Paramyxo
Bunya
Arena
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which virus is (+/-) and has a double capsid?

A

Reo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which virus is (+RNA via DNA) and has an envelope?

A

Retro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

3 methods of entry of viruses into the host

A 
endocytosis (e.g. viropexis)
fusion (enveloped viruses)
direct injection (possibly naked, capsid left beind)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do retroviruses replicate?

A

They use reverse transcriptase (brought with them) to copy their ssRNA chromosome into cDNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How will you attack a retrovirus with treatment without hurting the eukaryotic organism?

A

Target the reverse transcriptase, because it is specific to the virus (reverse transcriptase inhibitor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does it mean to have a latent viral infection?

A

After initial infection the virus becomes inacitve.

  • can incorporate into the host cell genome
  • can sit quietly in the cytoplasm and freely replicate, waiting for representation (e.g. shingles/herpes in response to stress)
  • representation of symptoms can look different from initial infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Virus modes of transmission

A 
oral
droplet inhalation
direct inoculation (bites, trauma)
direct skin contact (lesions, warts)
trans-placental
sexual
organ transplant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Whats viremia

A

viruses traveling throughout the body via lymphatics and bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the stages of infection for viral pathogens?

A

Incubation (after exposure, before symptoms)
Prodromal (vague symptoms present)
Acute (diagnositc symptoms present)
Resolution (decrease in severity of symptoms)
Convalescence (symptoms largely gone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a “lytic” viral infection?

A

host cell allows virus to replicate until the cell dies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Are perstistant chronic infections “lytic”?

A

No, they release the viral particles without lysing host cells. Just continually release virions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Ebstein Barr (EBV) cancer connection?

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Human Papilloma (HPV) cancer connection?

A

Cervical Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Hepatitis B (HBV) cancer connection?

A

Liver Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Hepatitis C (HCV) cancer connection?

A

Liver Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Human Herpes (HHV-8) cancer connection?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma (latent skin lesions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Human T-Lymphotrophic (HTLV-1) cancer connection?

A

Adult Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the 2 big characteristic cell changes which can help with viral DX?

A
  1. Triggering fusion of cells (multinucleated giant cell, syncitia)
  2. Inclusion bodies
    (e.g. Negri Bodies in cytoplasm - rabies,
    Owl’s eye in nucleus - cytomegalovirus )
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

2 Major pathogenic sp. of Treponemes

A

T. pallidum (syphilis)

T. carateum (pinta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

T. pallidum causes tissue destruction and lesions, what causes these symptoms?

A

Host immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What characteristics are common to all DNA viruses?

(Exceptions)?

A 
Double Stranded (except parvo)
Icosahedral (except pox)
Replicate in the nucleus (except pox)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

DNA viruses associated with virion polymerase for replication?

A 
All naked + Herpes
Paro
Papo
Adeno
Herpes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

DNA viruses NOT associated with virion polymerase for replication?

A

Enveloped (Except Herpes)
Pox
Hepadna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Connection between B19 and anemia/sickel cell patients?

A

APLASTIC CRISIS:

B19 = parovirus, depletes RBC precursors (binds P antigen). paroviruses can be very severe in anemic/sickle patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Transmission of B19 parovirus?

A

respiratory droplets
oral secretions
across placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Dx/ Child
Prodrome (fever, sore throat, myalgia)
Rash (cheeks initially, spreading to extremities, relapses)

A

B19 parovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

B19 parovirus clinical syndromes

A

Dx/ Child
Prodrome (fever, sore throat, myalgia)
Rash (cheeks initially, spreading to extremities, relapses)

Dx/ Adult
Above possibly + Arthralgia, Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Oncogenic potential of HPV?

A

Cervical cancer (contain E6 and E7 - bind to our tumor suppressor genes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Why does HPV cause warts

A

stimulates growth of cell: thickening of basal and prickle layers of the skin and stratum granulosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

HPV serotypes 6/11 associated symptoms?

16/18?

A

6/11 - Condylomata acuminata - Ano/Genital Warts!(90%)

16/18 - Cervical cancer association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Papsmear comes back + for Koilocytic Cells/ Koilocytes.. Large clue for?

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Vaccine for HPV? Serotypes?

A

Gardasil - 6, 11, 16, 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

If a virus is spread via Fecal/Oral transmission, what characteristic does it likely have?

A

It must be naked (more resistant form of virus), can survive that route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Swimming pool conjunctivitis buzzword

A

Adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is special about the Adenovirus vaccine? Unique only to this one.. Hint: Military only

A

Live; *NON-ATTENUATED, oral. Given only to military personnel for that reason

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Clinical Syndromes for Adenovirus

A 
Variola Major (Smallpox, 15-40% mortality)
Variola Minor (1% mortality rate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Differentiate Smallpox and Chickenpox (VZV)

A

Smallpox lesions are all the same because they don’t present unless they are fully vescularized?
**FIX THIS CARD

76
Q

Person bought a praiie dog and has smallpox symptoms…

77
Q

Single nodular lesion forms at point of contact, resembles cutaneous anthrax and associated with sheep and goats?

A

Orf - Poxvirus

78
Q

The pathogenesis of HBV?

A

Blood, IV drug use, Sex

79
Q

Chronic HBV pathway, reason for this?

Possible disease outcome?

A

HBV can go chronic if the host pt. lacks a strong cell-mediated immune response
Acute symptoms followed by possible problems down the road - Cirrhosis, Primary Hepatocellular Carcinoma

80
Q

Acute symptoms of HBV?

A

Jaundice, dark urine, flu-like, anorexia

81
Q

Target of HBV vaccine?

A

surface antigen HBsAg

82
Q

List the 7 viruses in the Herpesveridae family

A 
Herpes simplex -1 (HSV-1)
- STD cold sores
Herpes simplex - 2 (HSV-2)
- STD
Varicella-Zoster (VZV)
- chicken pox
Epstein-Barr (EBV)
- Mononucleosis
Human Cytomegalovirus (HCMV)
- Asymptomatic (causes birth defects)
Human herpesvirus - 6 (HHV-6 and 8)
- Roseola (6)
83
Q

Notable diagnostic clue about glycoproteins in the envelope of Herpesveridae?

A

Fusion proteins (cell-cell fusion)

84
Q

What is the most notable characteristic of the Herpesveridae family?

A

Latency - remains in the host for life! Remain in ganglia or white blood cells, depending on the type.

85
Q

HSV-1 latency site

A

trigeminal ganglia

86
Q

HSV-2 latency site

A

sacral ganglia

87
Q

VZV latency site

A

dorsal root ganglia

88
Q

EBV latency site

A

WBCs (b-cells)

89
Q

CMV latency site

A

WBCs (monocytes)

90
Q

HHV-6 latency site

A

WBCs (lymphocytes

91
Q

HSV-1 Disease States (2 major) (3 minor)

A 
Gingivostomatitis (Primary orofacial)
Cold Sores (Recurrent stomatitis)
Ocular Herpes
Herpes gladitorium
Encephalitis
92
Q

Leading cause of viral encephalitis in the U.S.?

A

HSV-1 (Fatal - 70% mortality rate), Especially beyond neonatal period

93
Q

Tell tale of viral encephalitis (HSV-1 version)

A

Temporal Lobe encephalitis

94
Q

Most common cause of viral encephalitis in neonates?

A

HSV-2 (birthing process with infected mother)

95
Q

what is herpes gladiatorum?

A

known as HSV-1 dermatitis, obtained through contact sports

96
Q

Typical site of lesions for herpes gladiatorum?

A

Head and neck (can be moved to other areas through infectious sores)

97
Q

Presence of gummas is a tell tale sign of this

A

Treponemes

98
Q

Two types of HSV-2 infection?

A

Primary Genital

Recurrent Genital

99
Q

Symptoms of Primary HSV-2

A

lesions with profuse watery discharge (2-7 days after contact)

100
Q

Symptoms of Recurrent HSV-2

A

occurs via reactivation in sacral sensory ganglia, presents less severe form of primary symptoms
less lesions and shorter duration.

101
Q

Very painful, localized lesions that show up 1-2 times per year and last about 8-10 days.. Dx

A

HSV-1 (Recurrent stomatitis)

102
Q

3 phases of T. Pallidum

A

Primary
Secondary -
Late(Tertiary)

103
Q

Primary phase of T. Pallidum symptoms

A

3-4wks
Painless chancre at innoculation site, begins as papule then erodes to painless ulcer with raised borders.
*Ulcer is highly contagious site of replication

104
Q

Secondary phase of T. Pallidum symptoms

A

4-10 wks
Copper-colored rash over Entire Body, “nickel and dime rash” on palms and soles. Patchy Hair-loss “moth-eaten”, Highly infectious like the primary.
*Condylomata lata” - soft fleshy papules

105
Q

Tertiary phase of T. Pallidum symptoms

A

3wks - 3mos

Organ/Tissue Destruction

106
Q

Neurosyphilis

A

Tertiary - T. pallidum

destruction of either brain parenchyma (dementia) or dorsal roots of spinal chord (tabes dorsalis)

107
Q

Gummas

A

Tertiary - T. pallidum

destructive granulomatous lesions in bones, skin, tissues (treponemes usually not found in the lesion)

108
Q

Difference between early and late Congenital Syphillus

A

Early: (birth - 2), Extensive cutaneous lesions, Snuffles (mucopurulent rhinitis), osteochondritis of long bones

Late: (>2yrs), Cutaneous gummas, Hutchinson Teeth (notched incisors), Respberry molars, saber shins, saddle nose.

109
Q

Where does local replication occur for VZV (chicken pox)?

A

Respiratory Epithelial Cells

110
Q

What differentiates VZV from Smallpox?

A

VZV lesions are different sizes and at different stages of development
Smallpox lesions are all the same size and same level of development (because they only present when the virus is fully in the presentation phase)

111
Q

What are some long term effects of a zoster reactivation outbreak?

A

Possible long lasting “neuralgia”

Reactivation in the ‘danger’ dermatome can cause encephalitits! (Must prophylax- acyclovair?)

112
Q

What is the primary target cell for EBV (mono)

A

Epithelial cells within the oropharynx, especially parotid glands. (UNDERGO LYTIC Infection - reservoir for virus that can infect/transform B-Cells)

113
Q

Can EBV replicate in B-Cells?

A

No, EBV can get into/infect B-cells using CD21 marker, however it can’t complete replilcation cycle once inside

114
Q

Why are teens most affected by EBV (mono)?

A

Because it is a disease that attacks B-Cells, and teens have very strong immune systems (lots of B-Cells to infect)

115
Q

What is the reservoir for the EBV?

A

oropharyngeal epithelial cells

116
Q

Pt. presents with sore throat, serology shows “heterophile IgM antibodies”. DX?

A

EBV (Mono), B-Cells proliferate due to being infected and cause a huge immune response.

117
Q

Common cancers seen in association w/ EBV

A

Burkitt Lymphoma - usually in jaw (common in africa)
Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
Hodgkin Lymphoma

118
Q

CMV can cause a mononucleosis, what makes this mono different from EBV?

A

The serology shows heterophile (-) antibodies

119
Q

What is the leading viral cause for congenital infections/defects in the U.S.?

A

Cytomegalovirus

120
Q

Who is at greatest risk of a CMV infection?

A

Fetus via intrauterine transmission

121
Q

What are common CMV manifestations in the immunosuppressed

A

Neonates - very severe (birth defects), death

Adults - Pneumonia, Chorioretinitis

122
Q

Common buzz word for CMV presentation?

A

Owls eye inclusions

123
Q

What is the cause of Roseola?

124
Q

Transmission of HHV-6

A

Respiratory droplets

125
Q

Replication site of HHV-6?

A

WBCs (T and B)

126
Q

Prodrome of HHV-6?

A

Very high fever, Then fever subsides and a RASH presents (WITH NO FEVER)

127
Q

Pt. presents, had a severe fever. After fever subsided and a rash appeared? DX?

A

HHV-6 - Roseola

128
Q

Raised purple lesions in an HIV patient, viral cause?

A

HHV-8 - Kaposi’s sarcoma..

129
Q

What are the only double stranded RNA viruses?

A

Reoviurses, RNA (-)

130
Q

Cruise ship associated gastroenteritis?

A 
Norwalk virus (Calicivirus family)
- Comprimise function of intestinal brush border
131
Q

How are calciviruses (norwalk) usually spread?

A

Usually fecal/oral, careless food handler

132
Q

What is the transmission route of Flaviviridae?

A 
Arthopod Vectors - known as the Arboviruses
Yellow Fever
West Nile
St. Louis 
Japanese
Dengue
133
Q

Hemmhorragic diseases of Arboviruses/Flaviviridae?

A

Yellow Fever

Dengue Fever

134
Q

Primary viremia Arboviruses symptoms?

135
Q

Secondary viremia Arboviruses symptoms?

A

can infect the brain (encephalitis), liver, skin, and vasculature

136
Q

Viral encephalitis? First think – HSV-1, but if there are mosquito bites and its summer?

A

arboviruses

137
Q

Common cold viruses #1 and # 2

A 
#1 Rhinovirus
#2 Coronavirus
138
Q

What are the two big things to remember about the transmission/pathogenesis of Picornaveridae?

A

DO NOT CAUSE ENTERIC DISEASE(diarrhea)

Transmission is fecal-oral

139
Q

Three major diseases caused by Coxsackieviruses?

A

Herpangina (vesicular ulcerated lesions around soft palate and uvula)
Hand-Foot and Mouth (vesicular lesions in these areas)
Pleurodyna (devils grip)

140
Q

What is bacwards/weird about rabies (rhabdovirus) treatment?

A

We vaccinate after exposure

141
Q

Leg myalgia in prodrome of a virus is tell-tale of?
US Southwest

Secondary symptoms look like atypical pneumonia

A

Hantavirus

142
Q

Infant vs adult VIRAL gastroenteritis?

A

Infant - Rotavirus

Adult - Norwalk virus

143
Q

Epidemic vs Pandemic Flu

A

Endemic- caused by antigenic drift specific location

Pandemic Flu - caused by antigenic shift (worldwide)

144
Q

Most notable segmented virus? How many segments

A

Orthomyxos - 8 Segments

145
Q

What is antigenic shift, when referring to orthomyxoviridae, and what is its significance?

A

When a new viral sub/serotype appears, many people dont have antibodies against it. Can spread rapidly through a susceptible population.

146
Q

Which type of influenza can undergo antigenic shift?

A

Type A - can infect BOTH animals and humans

Types B+C can only infect humans

147
Q

What is antigenic drift?

A

Can happen in all RNA viruses.. A or B

148
Q

Two big names in paramyxoviridae

A

Measles and Mumps

149
Q

What are the 5 Classic childhood exanthems?

A 
Measles
Rubella
Roseola
5th Disease
Chickenpox
150
Q

What is easy about identifying a measles rash?

A

The three Cs
cough
conjunctivitis
coryza (runny nose)

Also will see Koplick’s spots (usually in the buccal mucosa) right before the rash

151
Q

Most common complication with measles?

A

Pneumonia (accounts for 60% of measles deaths)

152
Q

What is a sclerosing pan encephalitis? And what is it like?

A

SSPE

  • slow neurological disease like in prions
  • can take years to present after measles infection
153
Q

What virus is associated with “croup”

A

Parainfluenza - barking seal cough caused by tracheitis

154
Q

Virus associated with painful, bilateral parotid swelling/ parotitis?

A

Mumps, lytic so it causes intense inflammation

155
Q

Important associated disease with MUMPS,

A

Causes orchitis (sterility in men)

156
Q

What is the most frequent cause of fatal respiratory tract infections in infants or young children?

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV), pneumonia caused in young children

Note: adults and older children can get it but they just show the flu…

157
Q

Major pathological worry with RSV?

A

Mucus plugs and fibrin blocking an airway

158
Q

Transmission vector of Bartonella spp?
Disease Name?
DX

A

Cats
Cat Scratch Fever
Dx/ Warthin Starry Silver Stain
Normally only seen in immunocomprimised

159
Q

Transmission vector of Borellia Burgdoferi?
Disease Name?
DX

A

Tick (deer and mice)
Lyme Disease
AB detection Test
Western Blot Protein

160
Q

Transmission vector of Borrelia recurrentis?
Disease Name?
DX

A

Louse (human body)
Relapsing Fever
Dx/ Dark Field Microscopy

161
Q

Transmission vector of Brucella spp.?
Disease? ** Manifestation (key)
DX

A

Direct contact w/ goats + sheep (aborted fetuses)
Brucellosis (Undulant Fever) ** Profuse Sweating
Dx/ HISTORY, gram -, cat/ox/urease +

162
Q

Transmission vector of Campylobacter?

Manifestations?

A

Puppies/Livestock

Bloody Diarrhea, Guillain-Barra syndrome

163
Q

Transmission vector of chlamydophila psittaci?
Disease?
Dx?

A 
Parrots/Other Birds
Parrot Fever/ Psittaciosis
Dx/ hepato/splenomegaly
Ab titer or IFA 
MIF for confirmation
164
Q

Transmission of coxiella burnetti?
Disease Name?
Dx?

A 
(only Rickettsiae with NO VECTOR -- Spores from tick feces or cattle placenta
Q Fever
DX/ Serology: 
Acute  --> Phase II antigens only 
Chronic -> Phase I and II antigens
165
Q

Transmission vector of Erlichiosis chaffeensis?

A

Lonestar tick, Dog Tick, Black-legged wood tick
Erlichiosis
Dx/ HME = chaffeensis (monocytic inclusions)
Wright Stained Blood Smear
*** Morula or Raspberry Inclusion

166
Q

Transmission vector of Francisella tularensis?
Disease
DX?

A

RABBITS, Ticks

Tularemia

167
Q

What are fungal cell walls made up of?

Cell membranes?

A

Chitin

Ergosterol

168
Q

What agar are fungi most commonly grown on ?

A

Saouraud Dextrose Agar

169
Q

What is the term used for a fungal infection

170
Q

Name the three genera of dermatophytes aka tineas (cutaneous mycoses)

A

Trichophyton
Microsporum
Epidermophyton

171
Q

Tinea Corporis

A

smooth skin

172
Q

Tinea Cruris

173
Q

Tinea Barbae

174
Q

Tinea Unguium

A

under nails

175
Q

Protozoa are protected from harsh conditions by what?

Evade the immune system via what?

A

Cyst form allows them to survive harsh envrionments (malaria has no cyst – needs arthropod vector)
Evade immunity through antigenic variation

176
Q

Metazoa are protected by what?

Evade immunity via?

A

Protected by a tough external layer (cuticle)

Evade immunity via antigenic variation and host cell lysing

177
Q

Cat Bite/ Bi-polar staining

A

Pasturella Multocida

178
Q

Cat scratch/ Warthin Starry Silver Stain

A

Bartonella henselae

179
Q

Just Bi-Polar staining (2 bugs)

A

Pasturella

Yersinia

180
Q

Dog bite/gangrene

A

Capnocytophaga canimorsus

181
Q

Rat-bite fever/string of beads/fried egg

A

Streptobacillus moniliformis

rat-bite fever and haverhill fever

182
Q

Contact with pigs/ Triple sugar iron agar

A

Erysipelothrix Rhusiopathiae

183
Q

Exposure to aborted goat/sheep fetuses, urease positive

A

Brucella — Profuse sweating

184
Q

Virulence mechanisms of bubonic plague (yersina pestis) - 3 major

A

F1 Gene - protein capsule
Plasminogen activator (Pla) protease- degrades complement, degrades clots
Yop genes: Type III secretion, antiphagocytic

185
Q

Major test to diagnose a prion

A

Western Blot

Microbiology MS1 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions