Exam 3- Exercise Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

The average VO 2 max value for the young (e.g., 21 years old) male sedentary
population is approximately

A) 45 ml * kg -1 * min -1.
B) 35 ml * kg -1 * min -1.
C) 22ml * kg -1 * min -1.
D) 83 ml * kg -1 * min -1

A

A) 45 ml * kg -1 * min -1.

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2
Q

Endurance exercise training programs (e.g., 3 days/week @ 60% VO 2 max for 12
weeks) typically results in a ______

A) 1-5% improvement in VO 2 max
B) 15-25% improvement in VO 2 max
C) 5-10% improvement in VO 2 max
D) 40-60% improvement in VO 2 max

A

B) 15-25% improvement in VO 2 max

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3
Q

Cross-sectional studies demonstrate that the physiological variable responsible for the
large variation in VO 2 max across the normal (untrained) population is maximal

A) heart rate.
B) stroke volume.
C) arteriovenous O 2 difference.
D) systolic blood pressure.

A

B) stroke volume.

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4
Q

Heritability (i.e., genetics) determines approximately _____% of VO 2 max variability in
sedentary adults.
A) 20
B) 50
C) 30
D) 90

A

B) 50

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5
Q

Endurance training has been shown to reduce the oxygen deficit in subjects performing a
bout of submaximal exercise. This is likely due to

A) an increased maximal cardiac output.
B) increases in the number of mitochondria and capillaries.
C) a decreased resting heart rate.
D) a greater anaerobic capacity.

A

B) increases in the number of mitochondria and capillaries.

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6
Q

The heart rate and ventilatory responses to constant load submaximal exercise are lower
(i.e., lower heart rate and lower minute ventilation) following an endurance training program.
This training-induced adaptation is primarily due to changes in the

A) central nervous system.
B) carotid bodies.
C) trained skeletal muscles.
D) lungs.

A

C) trained skeletal muscles.

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7
Q

During the first four months of an endurance exercise training program, the initial
increase in VO 2 max is primarily due to

A) increases in stroke volume.
B) neural adaptations.
C) increases in maximal cardiac output.
D) Both increases in stroke volume and increases in maximal cardiac output are correct.

A

B) neural adaptations.

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8
Q

Which of the following factors do not contribute to the endurance exercise training induced improvement in VO 2 max?

A) increased maximal cardiac output
B) increased maximal stroke volume
C) increased maximal heart rate
D) None of these answers is correct

A

C) increased maximal heart rate

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9
Q

Endurance training results in increased mitochondrial and capillary density in muscle but
has no effect on muscle glycolytic capacity. This is an example of what training principle?

A) overload
B) specificity
C) reversibility
D) none of these

A

B) specificity

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10
Q

High responders to endurance exercise training (i.e., individuals that achieve large
increases in VO 2 max) can achieve up to ______% improvement in VO 2 max following a
prolonged and intense training program.

A) 20
B) 35
C) 90
D) 50

A

D) 50

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11
Q

The removal of damaged mitochondria in skeletal muscle and other cells is called
A) mitogenesis.
B) mitophagy.
C) mitochondria endocytosis.
D) mitochondrial exocytosis.

A

C) mitochondria endocytosis.

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12
Q

Following several weeks of endurance exercise training, the capacity to transport glucose
into skeletal muscle fibers is increased. Which of the following training-induced changes
contribute to this training effect?

A) an increase in mitochondria within muscle fibers
B) the increase in the number of GLUT4 glucose transporters
C) an increase in circulating catecholamines
D) a decrease in circulating insulin

A

B) the increase in the number of GLUT4 glucose transporters

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13
Q

Four-to-ten weeks of anaerobic training (high intensity exercise lasting 10-30 seconds)
can increase the peak anaerobic capacity by ______ across individuals.

A) 30-40%
B) 50-60%
C) 3-25%
D) 65-75%

A

C) 3-25%

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14
Q

The increase in VO 2 max that occurs following 16 months of endurance exercise
training results from
A) an increase in the maximal a-vO 2 difference.
B) an increase in maximal cardiac output.
C) an increase in the maximal heart rate.
D) both an increase in the maximal a-vO 2 difference and an increase in maximal cardiac output are correct

A

D) both an increase in the maximal a-vO 2 difference and an increase in maximal cardiac output are correct

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15
Q

Following an acute bout of endurance exercise training, the rise in the activity of
calcinuneurin, calmodulin kinase, and AMP kinases occurs within _____ following the exercise
session.

A) seconds
B) minutes
C) hours
D) days

A

B) minutes

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16
Q

Following an acute bout of endurance exercise training, the increase in mitochondrial
biogenesis occurs within _____ following the completion of the exercise session.
A) seconds
B) minutes
C) hours
D) days

A

C) hours

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17
Q

Endurance exercise training results in an increase in mitochondria volume within skeletal
muscle fibers. The process of synthesizing mitochondria in cells is called ______.
A) mitophagy
B) mitochondrial proteostasis
C) mitochondrial biogenesis
D) none of these answers is correct

A

C) mitochondrial biogenesis

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18
Q

The principle of specificity of training refers to the fact that exercise training is specific to
A) the muscles involved in the activity.
B) the fiber types recruited.
C) the principal energy system (i.e., aerobic vs. anaerobic) involved in the activity.
D) all of these are correct.

A

D) all of these are correct.

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19
Q

Which of the following physiological factors does NOT contribute to the endurance
exercise training-induced increase in the maximal a-vO 2 difference?
A) increased mitochondria volume in the muscle
B) increased capillaries in the muscle
C) increased muscle blood flow
D) increased hemoglobin in the blood

A

D) increased hemoglobin in the blood

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20
Q

The enhanced capacity of the trained muscle to use fatty acids as a fuel results in
A) increased uptake of fatty acids.
B) decreased utilization of muscle glycogen.
C) sparing of blood glucose.
D) all of these answers are correct.

A

D) all of these answers are correct.

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21
Q

Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to the endurance exercise training induced improvement in stroke volume during exercise?
A) increased end-diastolic volume
B) increased peripheral resistance
C) increased cardiac contractility
D) decrease in total peripheral resistance

A

B) increased peripheral resistance

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22
Q

Which of the following endurance training adaptations does NOT result in lower lactate
production in the contracting muscles?
A) increased glycogen utilization
B) increased H 4 form of LDH
C) increased mitochondrial uptake of pyruvate
D) decreased pyruvate formation

A

A) increased glycogen utilization

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23
Q

Which of the following training adaptations does NOT occur in skeletal muscles
following 4-10 weeks of anaerobic exercise training?
A) increased muscle buffer capacity
B) increased activities of myokinase and creatine phosphokinase
C) increased activities of key glycolytic enzymes
D) None of these answers is correct

A

D) None of these answers is correct

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24
Q

Which of the following factors DO NOT contribute to the decline in VO 2 observed
during 84 days of detraining?
A) A decrease in maximal heart rate
B) A decrease in the maximal arterial-venous O 2 difference
C) A decrease in maximal stroke volume
D) None of these is correct

A

A) A decrease in maximal heart rate

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25
Q

Which of the following factors DO NOT contribute to the endurance exercise training induced increases in fat metabolism during exercise?
A) slower blood flow in muscle
B) increased fat storage in the liver
C) increased FFA transporters
D) increased beta oxidation enzymes

A

B) increased fat storage in the liver

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26
Q

Which of the following endurance training adaptations assist in maintaining acid-base
balance during exercise?
A) increased mitochondrial volume in skeletal muscle
B) increased M 4 form of LDH
C) increased glycolytic capacity
D) decreased beta oxidation capacity

A

A) increased mitochondrial volume in skeletal muscle

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27
Q

Which of the following statements are true about the effect of endurance training or
detraining on mitochondria volume in human skeletal muscle?
A) Five weeks of endurance training can increase skeletal muscle mitochondrial
volume by two times about normal.
B) Seven days of detraining can reduce mitochondrial volume by 50% below the
trained level.
C) After a period of detraining, approximately 4 weeks of retraining is required to
regain the lost mitochondrial volume.
D) All of these are true.

A

D) All of these are true.

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28
Q

Aging is associated with a decline in strength, with most of the decline occurring after
age 50. The loss of strength is due, in part, to a loss of muscle mass; this age-related loss of
muscle mass is termed
A) sarcopenia.
B) muscle fiber hypotrophy.
C) muscle fiber hyperplasia.
D) None of these is correct.

A

A) sarcopenia.

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29
Q

Which of the following statements about resistance training is NOT true?
A) Resistance training results in hypertrophy and strength gains in people aged 13-65
years old.
B) Resistance training results in hypertrophy and strength gains in young men and
women less than 39 years old.
C) Resistance training results in hypertrophy and strength gains in people of all ages.
D) Resistance training DOES NOT promote hypertrophy and strength gains in
people greater than 65 years old.

A

D) Resistance training DOES NOT promote hypertrophy and strength gains in
people greater than 65 years old.

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30
Q

Muscles receive a neural activation signal from motor neurons located in the spinal cord.
This neural signal is referred to as ________.
A) motor learning
B) efferent control
C) neural drive
D) motor endplate activation

A

C) neural drive

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31
Q

A muscle (i.e., prime mover) that results in movement of a limb in the desired direction is
labeled as _____________.
A) an antagonist
B) an agonist
C) a promoter
D) none of these is correct

A

B) an agonist

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32
Q

During the first 8 weeks of a resistance training program, the initial increase in muscular
strength is primarily due to
A) neural adaptations.
B) muscle fiber hypertrophy.
C) muscle fiber hyperplasia.
D) Both muscle fiber hypertrophy and muscle fiber hyperplasia are correct.

A

A) neural adaptations.

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33
Q

A single bout of resistance exercise training increases muscle protein synthesis by as
much as ______% above resting levels?
A) 20-30
B) 50-150
C) 35-45
D) 200-300

A

B) 50-150

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34
Q

Following a single bout of resistance exercise training, muscle protein synthesis can
remain elevated above sedentary levels for as much as ______ in both trained and untrained
individuals.
A) 10-15 hours
B) 15-20 hours
C) 35-50 hours
D) 20-25 hours

A

C) 35-50 hours

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35
Q

A single bout of resistance exercise training results in an increase in skeletal muscle
protein synthesis. This exercise-induced increase in muscle protein synthesis can occur within
_____ following the exercise session.
A) seconds
B) minutes
C) hours
D) days

A

C) hours

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36
Q

The term cross-education refers to ___________________.
A) the observation that if one limb engages in resistance training, muscular strength
increases in the untrained (contralateral) limb
B) the observation that if one limb engages in resistance training, muscular strength
does NOT increase in the untrained (contralateral) limb
C) the observation that if one limb engages in resistance training, muscular strength
decreases in the untrained (contralateral) limb
D) None of these is true

A

A) the observation that if one limb engages in resistance training, muscular strength
increases in the untrained (contralateral) limb

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37
Q

Neural drive is defined as ___________________________________.
A) the size of the motor units activated during muscular contraction
B) the magnitude of the efferent neural output from the central nervous system to the motor units and the muscle fibers that they activate
C) the amount of afferent feedback to the central nervous system during exercise
D) the amplitude of the neural output from the cerebellum during exercise

A

B) the magnitude of the efferent neural output from the central nervous system to the motor units and the muscle fibers that they activate

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38
Q

An important physiological factor that may contribute to the inhibition of motor unit
activation during resistance training is ____________.
A) the muscle spindle
B) the inhibitory neurotransmitter acetylcholine
C) the Golgi tendon organ
D) both the muscle spindle and the Golgi tendon organ are correct

A

C) the Golgi tendon organ

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39
Q

Resistance training increases the specific force production of ________.
A) type I muscle fibers
B) type IIa muscle fibers
C) type IIx muscle fibers
D) all muscle fiber types

A

A) type I muscle fibers

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40
Q

The term hyperplasia refers to ________________.
A) muscle hypertrophy
B) an increase in muscle plasticity
C) an increase in the total number of muscle fibers
D) None of these is correct

A

C) an increase in the total number of muscle fibers

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41
Q

Resistance training results in a __________________.
A) fast-to-slow shift in muscle fiber types
B) slow-to-fast shift in muscle fiber types
C) decrease in the number of slow muscle fibers
D) None of these is correct

A

A) fast-to-slow shift in muscle fiber types

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42
Q

Resistance training results in an increase in the rate of contractile protein synthesis which
is matched by _________________.
A) an increase in mitochondrial protein synthesis
B) an increase in the expansion of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) a decrease in synthesis of antioxidant enzymes
D) an increase in the synthesis of collagen in tendons and ligaments

A

D) an increase in the synthesis of collagen in tendons and ligaments

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43
Q

A major regulator of protein synthesis and muscle size is ____________.
A) TSC2
B) the lysosome
C) tyrosine
D) mTOR

A

D) mTOR

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44
Q

Growing evidence reveals that, independent of resistance exercise, ____________ can
activate mTOR and promote small increases in muscle protein synthesis.
A) the amino acid taurine
B) the amino acid leucine
C) an increase in the muscle levels of TSC2
D) All of these are correct

A

B) the amino acid leucine

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45
Q

Several hormones have the potential to increase muscle protein synthesis. These include:
A) testosterone, insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1), and growth hormone
B) testosterone, cortisol, and growth hormone
C) insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1), glucocorticoids, and growth hormone
D) testosterone, insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1), and parathyroid hormone

A

A) testosterone, insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1), and growth hormone

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46
Q

Research reveals that resistance training induced muscle hypertrophy is associated with
an increase in myonuclei. The source of these additional myonuclei is _____________.
A) from circulating stem cells that attach to muscle fibers
B) via the division of existing nuclei in the muscle fibers
C) via hyperplasia resulting in the addition of new muscle fibers
D) via satellite cell activation

A

D) via satellite cell activation

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47
Q

It is estimated that _______% of the differences in muscle mass between individuals can
be explained by genetic variation.
A) 30
B) 50
C) 80
D) 90

A

C) 80

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48
Q

By comparison to the rate of detraining following endurance training, the rate of
detraining (i.e., loss of muscular strength) following a resistance training program is _________.
A) slower
B) faster
C) approximately equal
D) extremely rapid with 90% of the strength loss occurring within the first 10 days of
detraining

A

A) slower

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49
Q

The phenomenon that previous strength training accelerates the re-acquisition of both
muscular strength and hypertrophy is commonly referred to as _________.
A) motor learning
B) the boomerang effect
C) satellite cell phenomenon
D) muscle memory

A

D) muscle memory

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50
Q

Prolonged inactivity of skeletal muscle leads to rapid muscle atrophy; this occurs due to:
A) a decrease in muscle protein synthesis
B) increased protein breakdown in muscle fibers
C) both a decrease in muscle protein synthesis and increased protein breakdown in
muscle fibers are correct
D) None of these is correct

A

C) both a decrease in muscle protein synthesis and increased protein breakdown in
muscle fibers are correct

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51
Q

The addition of myonuclei to growing muscle fibers ______________.
A) appears to be essential for optimal muscle hypertrophy in response to resistance training
B) is clearly NOT essential for optimal muscle hypertrophy in response to resistance
training
C) is likely required to maintain the high level of transcriptional capacity needed to
synthesize muscle proteins and allow muscle fibers to grow during resistance training
D) Both appears to be essential for optimal muscle hypertrophy in response to
resistance training and is likely required to maintain the high level of transcriptional capacity needed to synthesize muscle proteins and allow muscle fibers to grow during resistance training are correct

A

D) Both appears to be essential for optimal muscle hypertrophy in response to
resistance training and is likely required to maintain the high level of transcriptional capacity needed to synthesize muscle proteins and allow muscle fibers to grow during resistance training are correct

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52
Q

In resting skeletal muscle fibers, Ras homologue enriched brain (Rheb) activation of
mTOR is inhibited by ______.
A) phosphatidic acid
B) tuberous sclerosis complex 2 (TSC2)
C) IGF-1
D) none of these answers is correct

A

B) tuberous sclerosis complex 2 (TSC2)

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53
Q

Increased production of radicals in skeletal muscles during periods of prolonged
inactivity (prolonged bedrest) and promotes muscle atrophy because:
A) oxidative stress activates proteases in muscle fibers
B) oxidative stress decreases protein synthesis in muscle fibers
C) oxidative stress prevents mTOR activation
D) All of these are correct

A

D) All of these are correct

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54
Q

Several factors contribute to neural drive. Which one of the following factors is NOT a
contributor to neural drive?
A) total number of motor units activated
B) the firing rate of the motor neuron
C) activation of the Golgi tendon organ
D) motor unit synchronization

A

C) activation of the Golgi tendon organ

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55
Q

It is established that resistance exercise training promotes an increase in muscle protein
synthesis by activating the mechanistic target of rapamycin (mTOR) which results in increased protein synthesis. Recent evidence suggests that two signaling molecules interact to directly activate mTOR. These molecules are:
A) IGF-1 and Akt
B) IGF-1 and phosphatidic acid
C) IGF-1 and Ras homologue enriched brain (Rheb)
D) phosphatidic acid and Ras homologue enriched brain (Rheb)

A

D) phosphatidic acid and Ras homologue enriched brain (Rheb)

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56
Q

Several mechanisms have been proposed to explain why concurrent endurance and
resistance (strength) training impedes strength development compared to strength training alone.
Which of the following mechanisms have NOT been proposed to explain why concurrent
training impedes strength development?
A) Neural factors
B) Overtraining
C) Depressed muscle protein synthesis
D) none of these is correct

A

D) none of these is correct

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56
Q

Several mechanisms have been proposed to explain why concurrent endurance and
resistance (strength) training impedes strength development compared to strength training alone.
Which of the following mechanisms have NOT been proposed to explain why concurrent
training impedes strength development?
A) Neural factors
B) Overtraining
C) Depressed muscle protein synthesis
D) none of these is correct

A

D) none of these is correct

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57
Q

In theory, concurrent resistance and endurance exercise training can impair muscle
protein synthesis following a bout of resistance exercise. The proposed mechanism to explain this inhibition is _____________________________________.
A) AMP kinase activation of TSC2
B) AMP kinase activation of mTOR
C) AMP kinase activation of PGC-1α
D) p38 activation of TSC2

A

A) AMP kinase activation of TSC2

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58
Q

If a 30-year-old man checked a “yes” response on the PAR-Q+, what should he do prior to
taking an exercise test?
A. nothing; he can take the test
B. answer additional questions about his health history
C. have a complete physical examination
D. check into a hospital immediately

A

B. answer additional questions about his health history

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59
Q

The basis for the running field tests for estimating VO2 max is that
A. maximal heart rate is achieved during the test.
B. the average running speed is below the anaerobic threshold.
C. there is a linear relationship between the average running speed (i.e. during maximal effort
running of 10-20 minutes duration) and maximal oxygen uptake.
D. none of the above.

A

C. there is a linear relationship between the average running speed (i.e. during maximal effort
running of 10-20 minutes duration) and maximal oxygen uptake.

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60
Q

A sign of myocardial ischemia measured on the ECG during a graded exercise test is
A. a large P wave.
B. an increase in the width of a QRS complex.
C. a depression of the ST segment.
D. a disappearance of the T wave.

A

C. a depression of the ST segment.

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61
Q

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for having achieved VO2 max during a graded
exercise test?
A. leveling off of the VO2.
B. achieving 85% of maximal heart rate.
C. a blood lactate level of >8 mmoles  liter-1.
D. respiratory exchange ratio >1.15.

A

B. achieving 85% of maximal heart rate.

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62
Q

For many individuals that are not trained cyclists, the highest VO2 value is usually
measured during an exercise test to exhaustion using
A. a cycle ergometer.
B. a treadmill walk test.
C. a graded treadmill running test.
D. an arm ergometer test.

A

C. a graded treadmill running test.

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63
Q

The Bruce protocol is a graded exercise test protocol that uses the __________ to perform
the test.
A. cycle ergometer
B. arm ergometer
C. treadmill
D. step test

A

C. treadmill

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64
Q

In general, the graded exercise test (GXT) used for sedentary subjects would start at 2-3
METs and progress at about_____________ per stage.
A. 1 MET
B. 2-3 METS
C. 4-5 METS
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

A. 1 MET

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65
Q

The term arrhythmia refers to
A. an irregularity in the normal electrical activity of the heart.
B. cardiac arrest.
C. a unique form of myocardial ischemia.
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

A. an irregularity in the normal electrical activity of the heart.

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66
Q

The type of graded exercise test that is most conducive for individuals to complete at home or for testing large groups of subjects simultaneously is
A. a cycle ergometer test.
B. a treadmill test.
C. a step test.
D. an arm ergometer test.

A

A. a cycle ergometer test.

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67
Q

Angina pectoris is a ________________.
A. symptom of COPD
B. symptom of myocardial ischemia
C. symptom of respiratory muscle fatigue
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

B. symptom of myocardial ischemia

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68
Q

A sphygmomanometer may be used during a cycling exercise test to determine
A. arrhythmias.
B. conduction disturbances.
C. myocardial ischemia.
D. blood pressure.

A

D. blood pressure.

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69
Q

The term dyspnea refers to ________________.
A. abdominal discomfort
B. breathlessness
C. chest pain
D. none of the above answers are correct

A

B. breathlessness

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70
Q

The “double product” is___________________.
A. an estimate of cardiac work and oxygen demand
B. computed as the product of heart rate and systolic blood pressure.
C. a biomarker indicating that the subject has reached their maximal heart.
D. Both A and B are correct

A

D. Both A and B are correct

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71
Q

Which of the following field tests is used for children?
A. Bruce protocol
B. PACER test
C. FITNESSGRAM
D. both B and C are correct

A

D. both B and C are correct

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72
Q

The original Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion scale used the rankings from
_______whereas the revised Borg scale now uses a ranking from ______.
A. 6-12, 1-10
B. 6-18, 1-10
C. 6-20, 1-10
D. 6-20, 0-10

A

D. 6-20, 0-10

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73
Q

Which of the following specific signs would be an indication to stop a graded exercise
test?
A. Increase in heart rate with an increase in work rate
B. A decrease in blood pressure with an increase in work rate
C. Dizziness
D. Both B and C are correct

A

D. Both B and C are correct

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74
Q

Heart rate can be measured by palpating the carotid artery. Applying too much pressure to the carotid artery could impact the measurement of heart rate in which of the following ways.
A. Applying excessive pressure to the carotid artery could increase heart rate by activation of the sympathetic nervous system.
B. Applying excessive pressure to the carotid artery could decrease heart rate by way of the baroreceptor reflex.
C. Applying excessive pressure to the carotid artery could decrease heart rate by impacting venous return to the heart.
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

B. Applying excessive pressure to the carotid artery could decrease heart rate by way of the baroreceptor reflex

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75
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of myocardial ischemia?
A. Depression of the ST segment of the electrocardiogram
B. Increase in the height of the P wave on the electrocardiogram
C. Pain in the jaw
D. Pain in the neck

A

B. Increase in the height of the P wave on the electrocardiogram

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76
Q

Studies have shown that VO2 max can be estimated without an exercise test by combining
a few simple variables. Which of the following variables are NOT typically used to estimate
VO2 max in a large and diverse population?
A. Age and gender
B. Body weight
C. Body fatness
D. Body mass index

A

B. Body weight

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77
Q

VO2 max can be estimated by drawing a line through the heart rate values measured
during a submaximal graded exercise test and extrapolating to the age-adjusted maximal heart rate. This VO2 max estimate could be incorrect if:
A. the subjects true maximal heart rate was incorrectly estimated.
B. the subject held onto the treadmill railing during the test.
C. the measurement of treadmill speed and grade were inaccurate.
D. All of the above answers are correct

A

D. All of the above answers are correct

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78
Q

VO2 max can be estimated by completing a cycle ergometer test to exhaustion. Calculate
the estimated VO2 max from a graded cycle ergometer test given the following information:
Subjects age = 40 years old
Subjects body weight = 72 kilograms
Subjects maximal heart rate = 180 beats/min
Highest work rate achieved on cycle = 1000 kpm
VO2 (ml. min-1) = (1.8 ml.kpm-1 X kpm.min-1 ) + (7ml.kg-1. min-1 X kg body weight)
Using the above information, the estimated VO2 max (ml min-1) would be:
A. 1800
B. 2304
C. 1296
D. VO2 max cannot be calculated from the above information

A

B. 2304

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79
Q

VO2 max can be estimated by drawing a line through the heart rate values measured
during a submaximal graded exercise test and extrapolating to the age-adjusted maximal heart rate. Which of following factors could contribute to an underestimation of VO2 max using this type of submaximal test?
A. a cool testing environment
B. the subject held onto the treadmill railing during the test
C. a hot and humid testing environment
D. All of the above answers are correct

A

C. a hot and humid testing environment

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80
Q

A plateau in VO2 is always necessary to insure that a true VO2 max was measured.

A

False

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81
Q

In general, the overall risk of severe cardiovascular complications or death during a
symptom limited graded exercise test is 1/10,000.

A

False

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82
Q

The Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire can be used to estimate VO2 max in a
diverse population.

A

False

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83
Q

The double product provides an estimate of the work load and oxygen demand of the
heart during exercise.

A

True

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84
Q

The formula, 250-age, provides an estimate of maximal heart rate in adults

A

False

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85
Q

One standard error describes where 68% of the estimates are compared to the true value.

A

True

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86
Q

The risk of cardiac complications during exercise is
A) directly related to the degree of pre-existing cardiac disease.
B) higher in women compared to men.
C) independent of the presence of heart disease.
D) None of these answers is correct.

A

A) directly related to the degree of pre-existing cardiac disease.

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87
Q

Epidemiological studies confirm that regular physical activity
A) reduces the risk of developing coronary heart disease.
B) lowers the risk of all-cause mortality.
C) reduces the risk of heart disease in both smokers and hypertensive individuals.
D) All of these answers are correct.

A

D) All of these answers are correct.

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88
Q

According to the FITT principle, the letter “I” signifies
A) “interval” training.
B) the “interval” or time between exercise sessions.
C) the “intensity” of exercise.
D) None of these answers is correct.

A

C) the “intensity” of exercise.

89
Q

Regular exercise training provides numerous health-related benefits. The two healthrelated benefits that are the MOST responsive to exercise are
A) blood pressure and resting heart rate.
B) blood pressure and capillary number.
C) blood pressure and insulin sensitivity.
D) blood pressure and lipid profile

A

C) blood pressure and insulin sensitivity.

90
Q

The majority of epidemiological studies observe a greater reduction in the risk of
developing cardiovascular disease with an aerobic exercise training intensity ______.
A) between 1-3 mets
B) between 3-4 mets
C) between 4-5 mets
D) >6 mets

A

D) >6 mets

91
Q

In general, an optimal aerobic exercise training intensity to improve VO 2 max is
______.
A) 20-30% VO 2 max
B) 30-45% VO 2 max
C) 50-60 VO 2 max
D) 60-80 VO 2 max

A

D) 60-80 VO 2 max

92
Q

A 30-year-old woman achieves her target heart rate on a cool day by jogging at 6 mph. If
she were to exercise on a very hot day, she would have to ________________________.
A) maintain the speed of her run to achieve her target heart rate
B) decrease the speed of her run to achieve her target heart rate
C) increase the speed of her run to achieve her target heart rate
D) None of these answers is correct

A

B) decrease the speed of her run to achieve her target heart rate

93
Q

Which of the following is not a method that is useful for prescribing the recommended
intensity of exercise training?
A) %HRR.
B) %VO 2R.
C) RPE.
D) the onset of sweating.

A

D) the onset of sweating.

94
Q

In general, the risk of orthopedic and cardiac complications associated with exercise
training increases at exercise intensities ____________.
A) of 50-60% VO 2 max
B) of 60-70% VO 2 max
C) >80% VO 2 max
D) None of these answers is correct

A

C) >80% VO 2 max

95
Q

Exercise is defined as ____________.
A) planned physical activity with the goal of improving or maintaining fitness
B) any form of muscular activity
C) any form of resistance exercise
D) any form of physical activity

A

A) planned physical activity with the goal of improving or maintaining fitness

96
Q

Which of the following individuals would gain the greatest health benefits from changing
their level of physical activity?
A) a sedentary person who becomes moderately active
B) a moderately active person who becomes more active
C) both of these would experience the same health benefit
D) None of these answers is correct

A

A) a sedentary person who becomes moderately active

97
Q

Which of the following variables is the least sensitive to exercise (training)?
A) blood pressure
B) heart rate
C) VO 2 max
D) high-density lipoproteins (HDL)

A

D) high-density lipoproteins (HDL)

98
Q

The frequency of exercise can be best described in terms of
A) number of minutes of exercise.
B) number of days per week.
C) total kilocalories (kcal) expended.
D) total kcal expended per kilogram body weight.

A

B) number of days per week.

99
Q

When maximal strength gain is the principal goal of the strength training program,
current evidence suggests that single-set protocols are
A) not effective in promoting increases in maximal strength.
B) more effective than multiple-set protocols.
C) less effective than multiple-set protocols.
D) equally effective as multiple-set protocols

A

C) less effective than multiple-set protocols.

100
Q

Physical activity is defined as
A) exercise that is associated with limited health benefits.
B) daily activities below a 3 MET exercise intensity.
C) exercise designed to improve cardiovascular fitness.
D) any form of muscular activity

A

D) any form of muscular activity

101
Q

Which of the following physical activity intensity categories is listed incorrectly?
A) Low-intensity physical activity (LPA) = 1 + METs
B) Moderate-intensity physical activity (MPA) = 3 - 5.9 METs
C) Vigorous-intensity physical activity (VPA) = 6 + METs
D) all of these are correct

A

A) Low-intensity physical activity (LPA) = 1 + METs

102
Q

Exercise guidelines indicate vigorous-intensity physical activity should be performed at
least ____ minutes/week, while moderate-intensity physical activity be performed at least ____
minutes/week
A) 150; 75
B) 75; 150
C) 300; 150
D) 150; 300

A

B) 75; 150

103
Q

It is recommended that MVPA should be performed for approximately _____ METmin/week.
A) 75-150
B) 150-300
C) 300-500
D) 500-1000

A

D) 500-1000

104
Q

To realize health benefits of physical activity, adults should perform _____________.
A) 120-140 minutes of moderate physical activity per week
B) 150-300 minutes of moderate physical activity per week
C) 75-150 minutes of vigorous-intensity physical activity per week
D) Both 150-300 minutes of moderate physical activity per week and 75-150 minutes
of vigorous-intensity physical activity per week are correct

A

D) Both 150-300 minutes of moderate physical activity per week and 75-150 minutes
of vigorous-intensity physical activity per week are correct

105
Q

The Karvonen (or heart rate reserve) method of calculating the “heart rate reserve” is
computed as _____________.
A) maximal heart rate minus resting heart rate
B) maximal heart rate minus 60
C) maximal heart rate minus resting heart rate, times 0.60
D) None of these is correct

A

A) maximal heart rate minus resting heart rate

106
Q

Exercise at high altitude (e.g., >7,000 feet above sea level) could result in
A) reduced oxygen bound to hemoglobin.
B) a decrease in resting heart rate.
C) an increase in the heart rate response to a fixed level of exercise.
D) Both reduced oxygen bound to hemoglobin and an increase in the heart rate
response to a fixed level of exercise are correct.

A

D) Both reduced oxygen bound to hemoglobin and an increase in the heart rate
response to a fixed level of exercise are correct.

107
Q

When compared to resistance exercise training, aerobic exercise training generally results
in ____________.
A) greater increases in both lean body mass and muscle mass
B) greater improvements in both mitochondrial volume and muscular power
C) greater improvements in the reduction of total body fat and muscular strength
D) None of these answers is correct

A

D) None of these answers is correct

108
Q

Using the FITT principle, the volume of exercise performed can be computed as
____________.
A) exercise intensity × time
B) mean exercise heart rate × time × frequency
C) frequency × intensity × time
D) None of these answers is correct

A

C) frequency × intensity × time

109
Q

Which of the following general statements about step counts and physical activity in
healthy adults is false?
A) 5,000 daily steps is an approximate threshold for being physically active
B) 7,000 + daily steps appears to be associated with improved health
C) 10,000 is a firm step count goal that all people should achieve on a daily basis
D) vigorous-intensity physical activity is associated with a stepping cadence of 130
steps/minute

A

C) 10,000 is a firm step count goal that all people should achieve on a daily basis

110
Q

The reason that HR can be used to estimate aerobic exercise intensity is that
A) HR and the VO 2 cost of muscular activity are linearly related to workload.
B) HR accurately reflects exercise workload once a person is approximately 20 years of
age.
C) most people do not understand the concept of RPE, so HR is the best option.
D) All of these are correct statements about HR and aerobic exercise intensity
estimations.

A

A) HR and the VO 2 cost of muscular activity are linearly related to workload.

111
Q

For a given person, 80% of HRR is __________________ to 80% HRmax.
A) a lower intensity as compared
B) a higher intensity as compared
C) an equal exercise intensity
D) None of these is correct

A

B) a higher intensity as compared

112
Q

Given: A 50-year-old man with a resting heart rate of 70 beats * min -1. What is the target
heart rate range as determined by the heart rate reserve method?
A) 102-144 beats * min -1
B) 120-140 beats * min -1
C) 130-150 beats * min -1
D) 140-155 beats * min -1

A

C) 130-150 beats * min -1

113
Q

Given: A 50-year-old man with a resting heart rate of 70 beats * min -1. What is the target
heart rate range as determined by the percentage of maximal heart rate method?
A) 90-110 beats * min -1
B) 120-130 beats * min -1
C) 130-150 beats * min -1
D) 119-144 beats * min -1

A

D) 119-144 beats * min -1

114
Q

The slope of the exercise “dose/response” curve provides information about
___________.
A) the dose of exercise (i.e., minutes/week) required to promote health benefits
B) the dose of exercise required to improve the lactate threshold
C) the amount of exercise required to improve VO 2 max
D) None of these answers is correct

A

A) the dose of exercise (i.e., minutes/week) required to promote health benefits

115
Q

Which of the following does NOT summarize a fitness variable that is improved by
regularly performing both aerobic exercise and strength exercise?
A) insulin sensitivity and glucose control
B) submaximal exercise rate pressure product and resting BP
C) resting metabolic rate
D) All of these answers are correct

A

D) All of these answers are correct

116
Q

Studies suggest that elevating the levels of _____________ in the brain can contribute to
“central” fatigue during prolonged endurance events.
A) epinephrine
B) serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine)
C) acetylcholine
D) norepinephrine

A

B) serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine)

117
Q

One disadvantage of studying muscle fatigue in vivo is that ________________.
A) these studies often produce correlative data and it is difficult to identify mechanisms
B) these studies are not physiological
C) these studies only allow the study of fatigue during endurance events
D) None of these

A

A) these studies often produce correlative data and it is difficult to identify mechanisms

118
Q

When the intensity of exercise exceeds 75% of VO 2 max, which of the following fibers
are likely brought into play?
A) Type I
B) Type IIa
C) Type IIx
D) Type Ix

A

C) Type IIx

119
Q

What is the primary source of ATP production in ultra short-term (high intensity)
exercise performances (i.e., exercise lasting less than 10 seconds)?
A) oxidative phosphorylation
B) phosphocreatine (i.e., ATP-PC system)
C) equal ATP production is derived from glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation
D) equal ATP production is derived from phosphocreatine and oxidative
phosphorylation

A

B) phosphocreatine (i.e., ATP-PC system)

120
Q

In short-term performances (10-180 seconds) which of the following factors is the
primary cause of muscle fatigue?
A) muscle glycogen depletion
B) depressed plasma FFA
C) hypoglycemia
D) H + accumulation

A

D) H + accumulation

121
Q

Carbohydrate supplementation during exercise is most important in performances lasting
A) less than 10 seconds.
B) 30 to 180 seconds.
C) 3 to 20 minutes.
D) longer than 60 minutes.

A

D) longer than 60 minutes.

122
Q

Which of the following has been shown to interfere with cross-bridge “cycling” during
exercise?
A) an accumulation of ATP
B) an accumulation of H +
C) a decrease in Na +
D) a decrease in Pi (inorganic phosphate)

A

B) an accumulation of H +

123
Q

Fatigue refers to
A) the sensation of pain associated with repeated muscle contractions.
B) an inability to maintain power output during repeated contractions.
C) the feeling of sleepiness that occurs during repeated muscle contractions.
D) an increased free radical production that occurs during repeated muscle contractions

A

B) an inability to maintain power output during repeated contractions.

124
Q

At three minutes of all-out high-intensity exercise, __________ of the ATP is derived
from aerobic sources.
A) 10%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 90%

A

C) 60%

125
Q

Free radicals can promote muscle fatigue in events lasting longer than 30 min minutes by
A) damaging contractile proteins and limiting the number of cross-bridges bound to actin.
B) blocking action potential transmission across the neuromuscular junction.
C) limiting ATP production.
D) none of these answers is correct.

A

A) damaging contractile proteins and limiting the number of cross-bridges bound to actin.

126
Q

Blood buffers would most likely improve performances lasting
A) less than 10 seconds.
B) 30 to 180 seconds.
C) 3 to 20 minutes.
D) longer than 20 minutes

A

B) 30 to 180 seconds.

127
Q

In events lasting 21 to 60 minutes, the athlete would typically work at _______% VO 2
max.
A) <50
B) <60
C) <70
D) <90

A

D) <90

128
Q

Having a high VO 2 max would be a primary factor for success in performances lasting
A) less than 10 seconds.
B) 30 to 180 seconds.
C) 3 to 20 minutes.
D) >4 hours.

A

C) 3 to 20 minutes.

129
Q

Which of the following durations of exercise would environmental factors play the
largest role in determining performance?
A) events <10 seconds duration
B) events 10-180 seconds duration
C) events lasting 3-20 minutes duration
D) events lasting 1-4 hours

A

D) events lasting 1-4 hours

130
Q

Which of the following are not potential mechanisms of peripheral fatigue?
A) Ca ++ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) cross-bridge force production
C) spinal cord activation
D) transverse tubules and the sarcolemma

A

C) spinal cord activation

131
Q

A subject, with eyes closed, repeatedly contracts a muscle until fatigue occurs. When the
eyes are opened, the muscle’s ability to produce force is improved. This experiment is a
demonstration of fatigue being linked to which of the following sites?
A) muscle
B) central nervous system
C) mitochondria
D) peripheral nervous system

A

B) central nervous system

132
Q

Compared to studying muscle function in vivo, using an isolated single muscle fiber to
study muscle fatigue provides which of the following advantages?
A) measurements of ions and metabolites within fiber possible
B) force production of the single fiber can be measured
C) environment identical to in vivo conditions
D) Both measurements of ions and metabolites within fiber possible and force
production of the single fiber can be measured are correct

A

D) Both measurements of ions and metabolites within fiber possible and force
production of the single fiber can be measured are correct

133
Q

In examining the mechanisms for exercise-induced fatigue, the vast majority of the
evidence points to the
A) central nervous system.
B) the alpha motor neuron in the spinal cord.
C) periphery (i.e., peripheral fatigue).
D) Both central nervous system and the alpha motor neuron in the spinal cord are correct.

A

C) periphery (i.e., peripheral fatigue).

134
Q

Daily supplementation with high doses of the antioxidant vitamins C and E can
A) diminish muscle fatigue during prolonged exercise.
B) provide limited protection against exercise-induced muscle fatigue.
C) depress exercise-induced training adaptations in skeletal muscles.
D) Both provide limited protection against exercise-induced muscle fatigue and depress
exercise-induced training adaptations in skeletal muscles are correct.

A

D) Both provide limited protection against exercise-induced muscle fatigue and depress
exercise-induced training adaptations in skeletal muscles are correct.

135
Q

What factor is essential for an athlete to complete a marathon in an elite time?
A) they must possess a superior VO 2 max
B) they must exhibit a high lactate threshold (e.g., ~80% VO 2 max)
C) they must have excellent running economy
D) All of these are essential

A

D) All of these are essential

136
Q

A high H + concentration can contribute to fatigue by
A) reducing the force generated per cross-bridge.
B) interfering with Ca ++ binding to troponin
C) inhibiting Ca ++ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
D) All of these answers are correct.

A

D) All of these answers are correct.

137
Q

Research indicates that following a series of voluntary contractions to produce skeletal
muscle fatigue, electrical stimulation of the “fatigued” muscle group results in an increase in the
maximal voluntary force production. This experiment suggests that:
A) exercise-induced muscle fatigue results from peripheral factors located within the muscle.
B) exercise-induced muscle fatigue results from peripheral factors located at the
neuromuscular junction.
C) the upper limit of voluntary strength is psychologically set and that the central
nervous system can limit performance.
D) None of these answers is correct.

A

C) the upper limit of voluntary strength is psychologically set and that the central
nervous system can limit performance

138
Q

In aerobic performances lasting 3 to 20 minutes, which of the following factors do not
contribute to performance?
A) VO 2 max
B) Maximal cardiac output
C) depletion of muscle glycogen
D) Fiber type

A

C) depletion of muscle glycogen

139
Q

Which of the following are essential factors in the successful completion of an ultraendurance event?
A) having trained the body to markedly shift to fat oxidation to fuel the work performed
during the ultra-endurance competition
B) having a superior VO 2 max and high lactate threshold
C) avoiding carbohydrate intake during the event
D) All of these are essential

A

A) having trained the body to markedly shift to fat oxidation to fuel the work performed
during the ultra-endurance competition

140
Q

The term afterload refers to:
A. the impact of exercise on cardiac workload
B. the work imposed on the heart following an exercise training session
C. the peripheral vascular resistance that provides a load on the ventricle as the heart contracts
D. All of the above answers are correct

A

C. the peripheral vascular resistance that provides a load on the ventricle as the heart contracts

141
Q

Three years of endurance exercise training increases VO2 max by:
A. increasing maximal cardiac output and increasing the max arterial-venous oxygen difference
B. increasing maximal cardiac output ONLY
C. increasing the max arterial-venous oxygen difference ONLY
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

A. increasing maximal cardiac output and increasing the max arterial-venous oxygen difference

142
Q

Resistance exercise training results in a shift in muscle fiber type from _____to _____.
A. IIa to IIx
B. IIa to I
C. IIx to IIa
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

C. IIx to IIa

143
Q

__________are the source for additional nuclei in muscle fibers.
A. Bone-derived stem cells
B. Space cells
C. Satellite cells
D. Plasma cells

A

C. Satellite cells

144
Q

__________are the source for additional nuclei in muscle fibers.
A. Bone-derived stem cells
B. Space cells
C. Satellite cells
D. Plasma cells

A

C. Satellite cells

145
Q

Increases in muscular strength during 20-30 weeks of resistance training is largely due to:
A. fiber hypertrophy
B. fiber hyperplasia
C. changes in the nervous system
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

A. fiber hypertrophy

146
Q

The sensation of breathlessness is called ____________.
A. hyperpnea
B. angina pectoris
C. apnea
D. dyspnea

A

D. dyspnea

147
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a sign of myocardia ischemia?
A. extreme fatigue
B. jaw pain
C. abdominal pain
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

D. None of the above answers are correct

148
Q

Which of following tests to estimate VO2max produces the lowest standard error?
A. VO2max is estimated from a 1-mile walk test or 12-minute run.
B. VO2max is estimated from the heart rate values measured during a submaximal test.
C. VO2max is estimated from the last stage of a maximal test
D. All of these tests produce essentially the same standard error

A

C. VO2max is estimated from the last stage of a maximal test

149
Q

A conduction disturbance refers to__________________.
A. a cardiac arrhythmia
B. myocardial ischemia
C. blockage or slowing of depolarization of the heart
D. All of the above answers are correct

A

C. blockage or slowing of depolarization of the heart

150
Q

According the revised Borg scale of the rating of perceived exertion, a rating of 10 would indicate a
perceived exertion of _______________.
A. moderate
B. somewhat hard
C. heavy (strong)
D. very, very heavy

A

D. very, very heavy

151
Q

Physical inactivity is now considered to be ____________ risk factor for coronary heart disease.
A. a minor
B. an uncomplicated
C. a moderate
D. primary

A

D. primary

152
Q

A potential side effect of regular exercise training is______________.
A. increased risk of developing coronary heart disease
B. increased risk of developing type I diabetes
C. increased risk of seizures
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

D. None of the above answers are correct

153
Q

In adults, the risk of sudden death during vigorous-intensity physical activity is one per year for every ____-____individuals.
A. 1000-2000
B. 5,000-10,000
C. 15,000-18,000
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

C. 15,000-18,000

154
Q

The standard deviation (i.e., potential error) in estimating maximal heart rate from 220-age is approximately________ beats/min.
A. 5
B. 8-10
C. 11
D. 22

A

C. 11

155
Q

In general, stretching to improve flexibility should be performed ______times per week
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3-4
D. >5

A

B. 2

156
Q

Which of the following factors affect performance during ultra-short exercise?
A. skill/technique
B. motivation/arousal
C. rates of ATP production via PC and glycolysis
D. All of the above answers are correct

A

D. All of the above answers are correct

157
Q

During high intensity exercise lasting 180 seconds, what percent of the total ATP production is derived
from aerobic production (i.e., oxidative phosphorylation) of ATP?
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 60%

A

D. 60%

158
Q

During maximal effort exercise lasting 20 minutes, what percent of the total ATP production is derived from anaerobic sources?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

A. 10%

159
Q

As exercise intensity increases, muscle fiber recruitment progresses from________________.
A. type I> type IIa> type IIx
B. type IIa> type I> type IIx
C. type I> type IIx> type IIa
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

A. type I> type IIa> type IIx

160
Q

Depletion of liver and muscle glycogen stores are most likely to contribute to fatigue and impaired performance in exercise events lasting_______________.
A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. >60 minutes

A

D. >60 minutes

161
Q

To be effective, laboratory physiological tests should be:
A. relevant to the sport
B. valid and reliable
C. repeated at regular intervals
D. All of the above answers are correct

A

D. All of the above answers are correct

162
Q

Which of the following measurements have been used to estimate the “lactate threshold”?
A. inspiratory threshold
B. ventilatory threshold
C. peak running velocity
D. All of the above answers are correct

A

D. All of the above answers are correct

163
Q

Critical power is defined as_______________________.
A. the power output during 1 RM
B. the amount of power required to reach VO2 max
C. the running speed at which the speed/time curve reaches a plateau
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

C. the running speed at which the speed/time curve reaches a plateau

164
Q

The Loughborough Intermittent Shuttle test is a ________________.
A. laboratory test to evaluate fitness in tennis players
B. laboratory test designed to evaluate performance in soccer players
C. field test designed to evaluate performance in soccer players
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

C. field test designed to evaluate performance in soccer players

165
Q

The Wingate test is a test designed to ________________.
A. estimate VO2 max
B. measure the maximal capacity of the ATP/PC system during 10 seconds of all out effort
C. determine both peak anaerobic power and the mean power over the 30-seconds of the test
D. None of the above answers are correct

A

C. determine both peak anaerobic power and the mean power over the 30-seconds of the test

166
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests would provide the LEAST important information
about performance potential in a long endurance event (e.g., a marathon)?
A. test to measure maximal oxygen uptake
B. Wingate test
C. test to measure lactate threshold
D. test to measure exercise economy

A

B. Wingate test

167
Q

Measurement of the highest VO2 obtained during an incremental arm ergometer test is
often called
A. VO2 max.
B. peak VO2.
C. maximal aerobic power.
D. VO2 arm

A

B. peak VO2.

168
Q

Which of the following performance tests is a good test of anaerobic, glycolytic power?
A. vertical leap test
B. Wingate test
C. one-repetition maximum test
D. VO2 max test

A

B. Wingate test

169
Q

Performance of a one-repetition maximum (1RM) test to determine muscular strength is an
example of a(n) _______________ strength test.
A. isokinetic
B. dynamic
C. isometric
D. isolateral

A

B. dynamic

170
Q

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of physiological testing for athletes?
A. provides information about strengths and weaknesses
B. educates the subject about the physiology of exercise
C. provides feedback about effectiveness of training program
D. All of the above are benefits of physiological testing.

A

D. All of the above are benefits of physiological testing.

171
Q

Measurement of the lactate threshold has been used to estimate maximal
A. aerobic power.
B. steady-state running speed.
C. performance in events lasting less than 60 seconds.
D. power of the ATP-PC system.

A

B. steady-state running speed.

172
Q

In general, the duration of an incremental test to determine VO2 max should NOT
exceed_____________.
A. 6-8 minutes
B. 10-12 minutes
C. 14-18 minutes
D. 20-22 minutes

A

B. 10-12 minutes

173
Q

Both the lactate threshold and the measurement of critical power have been used to predict performance in endurance events. Studies reveal that, from an exercise intensity viewpoint, critical power measurements represent an exercise intensity_____________.
A. 30% below the lactate threshold.
B. above the lactate threshold.
C. equal to the lactate threshold.
D. 10% below the lactate threshold

A

B. above the lactate threshold.

174
Q

The concept of critical power is based on the notion that athletes
A. cannot work below the lactate threshold for extended periods.
B. can maintain a specific submaximal power output without fatigue.
C. can work at 90% of VO2 max without fatigue.
D. can sustain maximal intensity exercise for only one minute

A

B. can maintain a specific submaximal power output without fatigue.

175
Q

Peak running velocity is defined as the highest running speed that can be maintained for
A. 5 seconds.
B. 30 seconds.
C. 60 seconds.
D. 5 minutes.

A

A. 5 seconds.

176
Q

A handgrip dynamometer is an easy method of assessing ______________ strength.
A. isometric
B. dynamic
C. isotonic
D. isokinetic

A

A. isometric

177
Q

An isokinetic dynamometer monitors the
A. force a muscle generates at a constant speed.
B. speed a muscle generates at a constant force.
C. force a muscle generates against an unmovable resistance.
D. force a muscle generates during lengthening contractions ONLY.

A

A. force a muscle generates at a constant speed.

178
Q

Which of the following is a method to estimate the lactate threshold?
A. the work rate at which the R exceeds 1.00
B. the work rate at which HR exceeds 85% predicted HR max
C. the work rate at which maximal running velocity occurs
D. the work rate at which the ventilatory threshold occurs

A

D. the work rate at which the ventilatory threshold occurs

179
Q

Many investigators argue that the following measurement is the single best predictor of
success in endurance events.
A. Critical power
B. Lactate threshold
C. Wingate power test
D. VO2 max

A

D. VO2 max

180
Q

The vertical jump power test has been used to evaluate explosive anaerobic power. This
test is valuable in predicting performance in______________.
A. running 40 yards
B. running 100 yards (or meters)
C. sports requiring vertical leaping ability
D. All of the above answers are correct

A

C. sports requiring vertical leaping ability

181
Q

Which of the following is NOT among the criteria used to determine if a VO2 max test is
valid?
A. HR within 10 beats per minute of predicted HR max
B. respiratory exchange ratio >1.00
C. blood lactate concentration >8 m moles  L-1
D. plateau in VO2 with increasing work rate

A

B. respiratory exchange ratio >1.00

182
Q

Which of the following components of performance testing are NOT important to
consider when designing a laboratory test to evaluate sport performance?
A. The testing protocol should be relevant to the sport and sport specific.
B. The test should be valid.
C. The test must be reliable.
D. Follow-up testing should be avoided.

A

D. Follow-up testing should be avoided.

183
Q

Exercise scientists often use data from laboratory tests to predict performance in a variety
of sports. Which of the following measurements (or performance tests) are required to predict
a performance time for a 10,000 meter race?
A. Wingate power test and measurement of running economy
B. lactate threshold and VO2 max
C. critical power and VO2 max
D. lactate threshold and measurement of running economy

A

D. lactate threshold and measurement of running economy

184
Q

Exercise scientists often use data from laboratory tests to predict performance in a variety
of sports. Given:
VO2 max = 55 ml.
kg.-1min-1
VO2 at the lactate threshold = 45 ml.
kg.-1min-1
Running economy data:
Estimated running speed at lactate threshold = 245 meters per minute
Estimated running speed at 75% VO2 max = 255 meters per minute
Estimated running speed at VO2 max = 275 meters per minute
Using the data provided above, your estimate for the time to complete a 10,000 meter race is:
A. approximately 40.8 minutes
B. approximately 39.2 minutes
C. approximately 36.4 minutes
D. A finish time for this race cannot be estimated using the data above

A

A. approximately 40.8 minutes

185
Q

Which of the following statements about Laboratory (physiological) testing is NOT true?
A. Laboratory testing can often provide valuable feedback about the effectiveness of exercise training programs.
B. Laboratory testing is a powerful tool to identify future Olympic champions.
C. Laboratory testing can be used an educational tool for the athlete to learn about exercise physiology.
D. Laboratory testing can provide an athlete information about their strengths and
weaknesses.

A

B. Laboratory testing is a powerful tool to identify future Olympic champions.

186
Q

Measurement of VO2 max can be performed using either the arms or the legs

A

False

187
Q

VO2 max is an excellent predictor of performance in endurance events for trained
runners.

A

False

188
Q

The vertical jump test uses the ATP-PC system, so it is considered a good predictor of
success in running a short (40-100 yards) dash.

A

False

189
Q

Lactate threshold can be used to predict the estimated finish time in a race.

A

True

190
Q

A more economical runner will have a higher VO2 at a given speed than with an
uneconomical runner.

A

False

191
Q

A cool-down period following heavy exercise is important in ___________
A) preventing heat stroke.
B) preventing muscle cramps.
C) returning “pooled” blood from the exercising skeletal muscle back to central circulation.
D) allowing the individual to reduce brain blood flow back to normal.

A

C) returning “pooled” blood from the exercising skeletal muscle back to central circulation.

192
Q

The term overload, when used in conjunction with a sport conditioning program, is
defined as:
A) exercise performed above 90% VO 2 max.
B) exercise training that stresses the cardiovascular system and/or skeletal muscles above a level to which it’s accustomed.
C) injury or damage a muscle group.
D) exercise that results in emotional stress.

A

B) exercise training that stresses the cardiovascular system and/or skeletal muscles above a level to which it’s accustomed.

193
Q

A genetic predisposition for athletic talent _____________.
A) is not necessary for an individual to compete at a world-class level
B) has limited impact on the individual’s ultimate athletic potential
C) is essential if an individual is to compete at a world-class level
D) is important only in power events such as sprinting

A

C) is essential if an individual is to compete at a world-class level

194
Q

Intervals aimed at specific improvement of the ATP-CP system should generally last
_____ seconds.
A) 5-10
B) 30-60
C) 90-180
D) >180

A

A) 5-10

195
Q

Delayed onset of muscle soreness is likely due to ____________.
A) lactic acid buildup in muscles
B) depletion of muscle glycogen
C) microscopic tears in the muscle resulting in calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) muscle cramps

A

C) microscopic tears in the muscle resulting in calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

196
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of overtraining?
A) Decrease in performance
B) Loss of body weight
C) Chronic fatigue
D) Decrease in the heart rate response to exercise

A

D) Decrease in the heart rate response to exercise

197
Q

Many training injuries occur due to overtraining. A common sense guideline to avoid
training-induced injuries is that training intensity or duration should not be increased more than ____ per week.
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%

A

B) 10%

198
Q

Which of the following training intensities of exercise are likely to elicit the greatest
percentage of improvement in VO 2 max?
A) <50% VO 2 max
B) 55-60% VO 2 max
C) 65-70% VO 2 max
D) 80-100% VO 2 max

A

D) 80-100% VO 2 max

199
Q

When an athlete stops exercise training, the training effect is quickly lost. This illustrates
the concept of ________.
A) overload
B) specificity
C) reversibility
D) the “ten percent rule.”

A

C) reversibility

200
Q

HIIT training is advantageous for which of the following reasons?
A) training sessions are time-efficient
B) workout variation options are plentiful
C) the warm-up and cool-down are proportionately shorter than moderate intensity
continuous training
D) Both training sessions are time-efficient and workout variation options are plentiful are correct

A

D) Both training sessions are time-efficient and workout variation options are plentiful are correct

201
Q

Most, if not all, of the increase in muscle size due to strength training is the result of
_________.
A) hypertrophy
B) hyperplasia
C) both hypertrophy and hyperplasia contribute equally
D) an increase in muscle water content

A

A) hypertrophy

202
Q

The minimum number of sets required for strength gains in untrained, beginning
weightlifters is ________ set.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) >4

A

A) 1

203
Q

Which of the following is NOT an important factor that contributes to performance in
endurance events?

A) high VO 2 max
B) superior exercise efficiency/economy
C) high anaerobic capacity
D) high lactate threshold

A

C) high anaerobic capacity

204
Q

Genetics influences the training response and exerts a significant influence on how much
VO 2 max can be improved with training. “High responders” to endurance exercise training can
improve their VO 2 max by as much as ______.
A) 25%
B) 35%
C) 50%
D) 85%

A

C) 50%

205
Q

Genetics influences the training response and exerts a significant influence on how much
VO 2 max can be improved with training. “Low responders” to endurance exercise training may only improve their VO 2 max by ______.
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%

A

A) 5%

206
Q

Training has been shown to improve exercise economy in both runners and cyclists by as
much as __________ over several years of training.
A) 1-5%
B) 5-6%
C) 8-15%
D) 25%

A

C) 8-15%

207
Q

Training has been shown to improve the lactate threshold in endurance athletes by as
much as __________ during 10 years of training.
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 30%

A

D) 30%

208
Q

Current evidence suggests that compression garments ____________________.
A) increase VO 2 max
B) reduce wind resistance during running
C) may decrease swelling following exercise-induced muscle soreness
D) improve performance in short-duration (i.e., events lasting <10 seconds) high
intensity exercise

A

C) may decrease swelling following exercise-induced muscle soreness

209
Q

The “RICE” treatment is recommended to improve the recovery from delayed onset
muscle soreness. RICE is an abbreviation for _________________.
A) rest, ice, compression, and elevation
B) rest, intensity, cold, and elevation
C) recovery, ice, compression, and elevation
D) None of these answers is correct

A

A) rest, ice, compression, and elevation

210
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE about the use of non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NAIDS) for the treatment of delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS)?
A) The specific drug, treatment program, and dosage of NAIDS to relieve DOMS pain
is well established in the literature.
B) The use of NAIDS does not reduce the pain associated with DOMS.
C) The use of NAIDS increases the risk of stomach irritation.
D) The use of NAIDS has been shown to completely eliminate the muscle damage
associated with DOMS within a 12-hour period.

A

C) The use of NAIDS increases the risk of stomach irritation.

211
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common laboratory test used to quantify endurance
exercise potential?
A) lactate threshold test
B) determination of ventilatory threshold
C) tests of movement efficiency (e.g., running economy)
D) All of these are correct

A

D) All of these are correct

212
Q

Starting an endurance exercise training session with low glycogen levels has been shown
to:
A) Promote protein synthesis in the active skeletal muscles
B) Activate both AMP Kinase and p38
C) Increase the activation PGC-1α
D) All of these answers are correct

A

D) All of these answers are correct

213
Q

Providing high quality protein to athletes immediately prior to or after a training session
has been shown to:
A) Increase the rate of muscle protein synthesis following both endurance and
resistance training
B) Accelerate gains in anaerobic power
C) Increase the activation PGC-1α
D) Both Increase the rate of muscle protein synthesis following both endurance and resistance training and Accelerate gains in anaerobic power are correct

A

D) Both Increase the rate of muscle protein synthesis following both endurance and resistance training and Accelerate gains in anaerobic power are correct

214
Q

Supplementation with mega doses of the antioxidant vitamins C and E has been shown
to:
A) Accelerate training adaptations in skeletal muscles
B) Diminish training adaptations in muscle because free radicals are required to activate signal molecules
C) Diminish training adaptations in muscle because free radicals are required to promote amino acid uptake in muscle fibers
D) Both Diminish training adaptations in muscle because free radicals are required to
activate signal molecules and Diminish training adaptations in muscle because free radicals are
required to promote amino acid uptake in muscle fibers are correct

A

B) Diminish training adaptations in muscle because free radicals are required to activate signal molecules

215
Q

The five-zone intensity scale to prescribe and monitor exercise
A) is based on the relationship between HR, %VO 2 max, and blood lactate for a given intensity
B) has identical training durations for the five zones.
C) is an essential training technique for weight loss through exercise.
D) All of these are correct

A

A) is based on the relationship between HR, %VO 2 max, and blood lactate for a given intensity

216
Q

Training-based improvements in VO 2 max are typically greatest for
A) a person that is already a competitive endurance athlete.
B) someone who is active, but not particularly well trained for aerobic exercise.
C) a sedentary individual that is beginning an aerobic exercise program.
D) None of these is correct.

A

C) a sedentary individual that is beginning an aerobic exercise program.

217
Q

Which of the following theories has NOT been proposed to explain the repeated bout
effect of protection against exercise-induced muscle soreness?
A) Neural theory
B) Central nervous system theory
C) Connective tissue theory
D) Cellular theory

A

B) Central nervous system theory

218
Q

Preceding a static stretch with an isometric contraction of the muscle group to be
stretched _____________.
A) is called proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
B) is effective in improving muscle relaxation
C) can activate the Golgi tendon organ
D) All of these answers are correct

A

D) All of these answers are correct

219
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about strength training comparisons between men
and women?
A) Men and women generally exhibit the same absolute levels of strength.
B) When muscle force production is normalized to cross-sectional area, men and
women are similar.
C) Men typically have more muscle mass than women.
D) All of these answers are correct.

A

A) Men and women generally exhibit the same absolute levels of strength