Exam 3 - Example Questions from Class

Question 1

A nurse takes the time to read and understand the community’s disaster plans and participates in mock disaster drills as a leader of the triage team. The nurse obtained disaster management training through the local Red Cross chapter and registered with the state as a disaster management nurse. The best description of the nurse’s activities is:

A. American Red Cross disaster training
B. Community preparedness
C. Personal preparedness
D. Professional preparedness

Answer 1

B. Community preparedness

Question 2

Nurses need to be aware that, when a disease or event outbreak occurs as a result of a purposeful introduction of an agent into the population, then the:

A. case definition must be validated by laboratory results
B. predictable patterns may not exist
C. surveillance systems can detect the event
D. source of contamination must be identified to respond appropriately

Answer 2

B. predictable patterns may not exist

Question 3

A newly hired public health nurse is familiarizing himself with the levels of disaster management. Which of the following actions is a component of disaster preparedness?

A. outlining specific roles of community agencies
B. identifying community vulnerabilities
C. prioritizing care of individuals
D. providing stress counseling

Answer 3

A. outlining specific roles of community agencies

Question 4

A community health nurse is determining available and needed supplies in the event of a bioterrorism attack. The nurse should be aware that community members exposed to anthrax will need access to which of the following medications?

A. metronidazole (Flagyl)
B. ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
C. zanamivir (Relenza)
D. fluconazole (Diflucan)

Answer 4

B. ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

Question 5

A nurse is assigned to provide community outreach to a small town that was partially destroyed by a tornado 3 years earlier and has been rebuilt. The first client is a family who lost their home and their best friend in the tornado. The best intervention would include:

A. assessment of the family’s home environment to rule out safety issues
B. avoidance of discussion of the disaster of 3 years ago
C. consideration that the family will have worked through the emotional aftermath by now
D. support of the family in preparing a personal disaster response plan

Answer 5

D. support of the family in preparing a personal disaster response plan

Question 6

The highest priority for a nurse who is among the first responders to a disaster is:

A. arranging for shelter for disaster providers
B. beginning community assessment as soon as possible to ensure a rapid recovery
C. beginning surveillance and planning needed health education for disaster survivors
D. immediately developing plans for effective triage and client management

Answer 6

D. immediately developing plans for effective triage and client management

Question 7

A nurse is working with a disaster medical assistance team as it responds to a disaster. A new team member excitedly insists that its personnel can exceed their 12-hour shifts and do not need breaks. The best intervention on the part of the nurse is to:

A. arrange for the team member to be transferred to another unit
B. arrange for the team member to leave duty, return home, and talk with his or her pastor
C. educate the rescuer about necessary stress-management techniques and offer to pair up with the individual so that each can monitor the other’s stress level
D. help the team member to call home to speak with his or her family

Answer 7

C. educate the rescuer about necessary stress-management techniques and offer to pair up with the individual so that each can monitor the other’s stress level

Question 8

A nurse wishes to become actively involved in disaster management and is extremely interested in providing first aid and delivering aggregate health promotion, disease prevention, and emotional support. It would be ideal for the nurse to train and volunteer as which of the following?

A. community emergency response team member
B. disaster medical assistance team member
C. member of the medical reserve corps
D. Red Cross shelter manager

Answer 8

D. Red Cross shelter manager

Question 9

A nurse is interviewing a group of people several weeks after a community tornado. Which of the following statements by a group member should the nurse identify as the emotional reaction of reconstruction? (Select all that apply)

A. “I am tired and don’t think I’ll ever be able to fix everything.”
B. “I can’t believe we survived. I keep telling everyone what happened.”
C. “Things will never be the same, but we will find a way to go on.”
D. “Our neighborhood is working together to make good changes.”
E. My old hobbies don’t seem interesting anymore since the tornado.”

Answer 9

C. “Things will never be the same, but we will find a way to go on.”
and
D. “Our neighborhood is working together to make good changes.”

Question 10

A nurse is preparing a presentation on bioterrorism. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as an indication of potential bioterrorism?

A. nationwide incidence of pneumonia is higher than the prior year
B. a large number of otherwise healthy adults are dying from sepsis
C. a health department reports cases of influenza in October
D. most of the clients’ diagnoses with pneumonia have an elevated white blood cell count

Answer 10

B. a large number of otherwise healthy adults are dying from sepsis

Question 11

You respond to a motor vehicle accident that involves several vehicles. When you arrive to the scene you walk up to a woman who is 42 years old, with no obvious injuries and no carotid pulse. What is the correct triage priority?

A. immediate
B. delayed
C. minor
D. dead/morgue

Answer 11

D. dead/morgue

Question 12

There’s a gas explosion during a renovation at a local factory. When you arrive at the scene you come upon a 57 year old woman with a deformed tibia and fibula, oriented, with respirations of 20 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 100 bpm. What is the correct triage priority?

A. immediate
B. delayed
C. minor
D. dead/morgue

Answer 12

B. delayed

Question 13

You are triaging victims in a building after an earthquake. You come upon a victim partially trapped under heavy debris. He is a 36 year old male unresponsive with brain matter showing. What is the correct triage priority?

A. immediate
B. delayed
C. minor
D. dead/morgue

Answer 13

D. dead/morgue

Question 14

You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle accident that involved several motorcycles. You first walk up to a 50 year old male with bilateral femur fractures, faint radial pulse, and respiration rate of 24 breaths per minute. What is the correct triage priority?

A. immediate
B. delayed
C. minor
D. dead/morgue

Answer 14

A. immediate

Question 15

You are triaging victims in a building after an earthquake. You come upon a 65 year old woman, sitting on the ground in the corner of a room, eyes open, and she can’t answer or follow directions. What is the correct triage priority?

A. immediate
B. delayed
C. minor
D. dead/morgue

Answer 15

A. immediate

Question 16

You are triaging victims in a building after an earthquake. Determine the correct triage priority for each of the victims:

1. 40yo woman, ambulatory, says she is OK
2. 34yo woman, pale moist skin, 32 respirations per minute, arm lacerated from from falling debris
3. 70yo woman with a broken arm, sitting in a chair, alert and oriented, HR 100bpm, 18 respirations per minute
4. 66yo male, unresponsive, no palpable pulse

A. immediate
B. delayed
C. minor
D. dead/morgue

Answer 16

1. • C. minor
2. • A. immediate
3. • B. delayed
4. • D. dead/morgue

Question 17

An American takes a long-awaited vacation in sunny Peru, spending days on the beach eating fresh berries from a nearby vendor and drinking bottled water. The tourist may be altering:

a. Agent-host-environment interaction
b. Circadian rhythms
c. Herd immunity
d. Host resistance

Answer 17

a. Agent-host-environment interaction

Question 18

The time interval between invasion by an infectious agent and the first appearance of signs and symptoms of the disease is called:

a. Communicable period
b. Incubation period
c. Infectiousness
d. Pathologic reaction

Answer 18

b. Incubation period

Question 19

West Nile Virus is an example of which of the following types of illness?

a. Foodborne
b. Vectorborne
c. Waterborne
d. Airborne

Answer 19

b. Vectorborne

Question 20

A mother and her 4-year-old child were recently infected with E. Coli O157:H17 infections. What are the possible types of transmission to consider? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a. Vertical
b. Horizontal-direct
c. Vectors
d. Horizontal-common Vehicle
e. Airborne

Answer 20

b. Horizontal-direct
and
d. Horizontal-common Vehicle

Question 21

A PHN understands that the emergence of new infectious diseases is influenced by the:

a. Increased availability of immunizations
b. Globalization of food supplies
c. Decreased use of childcare facilities
d. Creation of sanitation systems in third world countries

Answer 21

b. Globalization of food supplies

Question 22

The nurse teaches food handlers to wash utensils after contact with raw meat. This prevention focuses on the:

a. Agent
b. Host
c. Environment
d. Food handler

Answer 22

c. Environment

all that is external to the human host

Question 23

An example of a fomite is:

a. A paper tissue carrying rhinovirus
b. A mosquito carrying a parasite
c. A human ill with H1N1 influenza
d. A raccoon carrying the rabies virus

Answer 23

a. A paper tissue carrying rhinovirus

Question 24

A nurse is working in a health department when a patient arrives who has been traveling to South America and has been diagnosed with malaria. The nurse knows:

a. The Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report should be consulted to investigate the rate of malaria in the US.
b. This is a disease that must be reported to the state health department.
c. The nurse should take precautions to wear a mask and gown to avoid exposure.
d. The patient is very ill and should be sent to the hospital immediately.

Answer 24

b. This is a disease that must be reported to the state health department.

Question 25

Which information is important for the nurse to know about preventing and controlling parasitic infections?

a. The medication to prescribe to treat these infections.
b. The nature and symptoms of all parasitic illnesses.
c. What specimens to collect and how and when to collect them.
d. Public policy about parasitic infections.

Answer 25

c. What specimens to collect and how and when to collect them.

Question 26

A client comes to the local clinic with acute symptoms of fever, nausea, lack of appetite, malaise, and abdominal discomfort. During the course of the assessment, the nurse determines that the client is a health care aide working at a daycare center. These facts are important because:

a. Acute hepatitis B is self-limiting
b. Hepatitis A outbreaks commonly occur in facilities where staff change diapers.
c. Hepatitis C is a “silent stalker”.
d. Individuals with chronic liver disease are at greater risk for hepatitis A.

Answer 26

b. Hepatitis A outbreaks commonly occur in facilities where staff change diapers.

Question 27

The nurse is counseling a female who has recently tested positive for HIV. The nurse educates her that she is responsible to: (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Have regular medical evaluations and follow-ups.
b. Donate blood, plasma, body organs, or sperm.
c. Inform healthcare providers about the HIV infection.
d. Consider the risk of perinatal transmission.
e. Never use barrier methods of birth control.

Answer 27

a. Have regular medical evaluations and follow-ups.
and
c. Inform healthcare providers about the HIV infection.
and
d. Consider the risk of perinatal transmission.

Question 28

Which of the following reduces or prevents transmission of infectious agents? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Hand washing
b. Vaccines
c. Pasteurization
d. Refrigeration
e. Surveillance

Answer 28

a.	Hand washing
and
b.	Vaccines 
and
c.	Pasteurization
and
d.	Refrigeration

Question 29

Every year, diarrheal disease is a leading cause of death among children younger than 5 years of age. Which of the following actions would significantly reduce the incidence of diarrheal disease? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Safe drinking water
b. Hand hygiene/hand washing
c. Immunizations
d. Oral rehydration
e. Antidiarrheal medication

Answer 29

a. Safe drinking water
and
b. Hand hygiene/hand washing

Question 30

Noncommunicable disease refers to:

a. Diseases both communicable and noncommunicable
b. Diseases that do not limit one’s ability to perform ADLs.
c. Those that are short in duration.
d. Those that may need minimal physician follow up.

Answer 30

a. Diseases both communicable and noncommunicable

Question 31

Which of the following is/are risk factor(s) of NCDs?

a. Behavior
b. Genetics
c. Environment
d. “A” only
e. All of the above

Answer 31

e. All of the above

Question 32

Which activities represent the four most common risk factors for NCDs in the US? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a. Smoking a pack of cigarettes a day
b. Binge drinking 2 days a month
c. Having a parent with diabetes
d. Eating high fat, high sugar foods
e. Living a sedentary lifestyle

Answer 32

a.	Smoking a pack of cigarettes a day
and
b.	Binge drinking 2 days a month
and
d.	Eating high fat, high sugar foods
and
e.	Living a sedentary lifestyle

Question 33

The nurse knows the best public health approach to NCDs is:

a. Long-term management
b. Medication management
c. Vaccination
d. Primary health care

Answer 33

a. Long-term management

Question 34

According to the CDC, which of the following are among the top 5 leading causes of death in the US? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Chronic lower respiratory disease
b. Heart disease
c. Accidents
d. Alzheimer’s disease
e. Diabetes

Answer 34

a.	Chronic lower respiratory disease
and
b.	Heart disease
and
c.	Accidents

Question 35

The WHO has stated several challenges of primary care in countries, one of which is:

a. The focus of prevention.
b. Disease control is too long term.
c. Fragmented delivery.
d. Regulated delivery by an organization.

Answer 35

C is the correct answer.

Question 36

The essence of case management is:

a. Incorporation of the client, the family, and the community.
b. Identification of individuals with sub-clinical disease.
c. Treatment of acute/chronic illness.
d. Build partnerships in community and with key stakeholders.

Answer 36

A is the correct answer.

The other choices do not deal with case management

Question 37

Secondary prevention in primary care does not focus on:

a. Identification of individuals with subclinical disease
b. Initiating early treatment
c. Treatment of acute/chronic disease
d. Screening

Answer 37

3 is the correct answer.

Treatment of acute/chronic disease is an example of tertiary care.

Question 38

True or false:

A free primary care clinic is a volunteer-based, safety-net health-care organization that is supported directly by public funds.

Answer 38

False. A free primary care clinic does not receive direct public funds.

Question 39

A nurse is admitting a client who has active tuberculosis to a room on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following room assignments should the nurse make for the client?

A) A room with air exhaust directly to the outdoor environment
B) A room with another nonsurgical client
C) A room in the ICU
D) A room that is within view of the nurses’ station

Answer 39

A) A room with air exhaust directly to the outdoor environment

Answer Rationale: A room with air exhaust directly to the outside environment eliminates contamination of other client care areas. This type of ventilation system is referred to as an airborne infection isolation room.

Question 40

A charge nurse is planning a room assignment for a client who has a productive cough, a questionable chest x-ray, and a positive Mantoux test. To which of the following rooms should the nurse assign the client?

A) Room 208 is a private, negative-pressure airflow room
B) Room 212 is a semi-private, positive-pressure airflow room
C) Room 214 is a negative-pressure, semi-private room
D) Room 216 is a private, positive-pressure airflow room.

Answer 40

A) Room 208

Answer Rationale:
A client who has or might have tuberculosis requires airborne precautions. That means a private room with negative-pressure airflow. Room 208 is the only one of these options that fits these requirements.

Question 41

A school nurse identifies that a child has pediculosis capitis and educates the child’s parents about the condition. Which of the following statements by the parents indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A)”All recently used clothing, bedding, and towels must be washed in hot water.“
B)“Our family pet must be checked for lice”.
C)”I will treat all the family members to be on the safe side.“
D) “Toys that can’t be dry cleaned or washed must be thrown out.”

Answer 41

A) “All recently used clothing, bedding, and towels must be washed in hot water.”

Answer Rationale:
Pediculosis capitis is commonly referred to as head lice. All recently used clothing, bed sheets, and towels need to be washed in hot water. Anything that cannot be washed should be sealed in a plastic bag for 10 to 14 days. Unwashable items can include jackets, sweaters, hats, pillows, bicycle helmets, and stuffed animals. Furniture, carpets, and car seats can be sprayed with a variety of over-the-counter products.

Question 42

A charge nurse is making a room assignment for a client who has scabies. In which of the following rooms should the nurse place the client?

A)A negative-pressure isolation room
B)A semi-private room with a client who has pediculosis capitis
C)A positive-pressure isolation room
D)A private room

Answer 42

D) A private room

Answer Rationale:
The nurse should place a client who has a communicable condition, such as scabies, in a private room to reduce the risk of exposure and possible transmission to other clients. If necessary, the nurse can use a semi-private room with a client who has the same condition.

Question 43

A nurse is admitting a client who has pertussis. Which of the following types of transmission-based precautions should the nurse initiate?

A)Airborne
B)Contact
C)Droplet
D)Protective

Answer 43

C) Droplet

Answer Rationale:
The nurse should initiate droplet precautions for clients who have infections that spread by droplets larger than 5 microns, including mumps, streptococcal pharyngitis, and pertussis.

Question 44

A nurse is planning a presentation about HIV for a church-based group. Which of the following information about HIV transmission should the nurse include?

A)It is primarily transmitted through casual contact.
B)It is primarily transmitted through accidental puncture wounds
C)It is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected body fluids.
D)It is primarily transmitted through mosquitoes.

Answer 44

C) It is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected body fluids.

Answer Rationale:
The nurse should include in the teaching that HIV is transmitted through direct contact with infected blood, seminal fluid, vaginal secretions, amniotic fluid, breast milk and other body fluids.

Question 45

A nurse in a community clinic is counseling a client who received a positive test result for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?

A)”This infection is treated with one dose of azithromycin.“
B)”If your sexual partner has no symptoms, no medication is needed.“
C)”You have to avoid sexual relations for 3 days
D)”You need to return in 6 months for retesting.”

Answer 45

A) “This infection is treated with one dose of azithromycin.“

Answer Rationale:
A single dose of azithromycin is an appropriate treatment for a chlamydial infection. An acceptable alternative is doxycycline twice a day for 7 days.

Question 46

A nurse is instructing a client who is newly diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) about the use of antitubercular medications. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A)Medications will need to be taken for the rest of the client’s life, even if the client feels better
B)Medications will need to be taken until the Mantoux test is negative.
C)A typical course of treatment involves 6 to 9 months of consistent medication use.
D)The client’s family will also need to take medications to prevent infection

Answer 46

C) A typical course of treatment involves 6 to 9 months of consistent medication use.

Answer Rationale:
Pulmonary TB is a contagious bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Active TB is usually treated with the simultaneous administration of a combination of medications to which the organisms are susceptible. Such therapy is continued until the disease is controlled. A 6- to 9-month regimen consisting of two, and often four, different medications is used. The client should not drink alcohol during this time.

Question 47

Which does not represent one of the three main purposes of case definitions?

A. Enabling understanding of the data being collected
B. Creating a uniform, standardized method of reporting and monitoring diseases
C. Providing ease of copying similar results data quickly and efficiently from one case to the next
D. Reducing the chance that different criteria will be used for reporting similar cases of a disease

Answer 47

C. Providing ease of copying similar results data quickly and efficiently from one case to the next