Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Advanced Patho > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Cysts that are filled with fluid and can be caused by a transient condition in which the dominant follicle fails to rupture or one or more of the nondominant follicles fail to regress.

A

Follicular cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cyst may normally form by the granulosa cells left behind after ovulation. This cyst is highly vascularized but usually limited in size, and with the normal menstrual cycle it spontaneously regresses.

A

Corpus luteum cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ovarian teratomas that contain elements of all three germ layers; they are common ovarian neoplasms. These growths may contain mature tissue including skin, hair, sebaceous and sweat glands, muscle fibers, cartilage, and bone–are usually asymptomatic and are found incidentally on pelvic examination. Have malignant potential and need careful evaluation for removal.

A

Dermoid cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A problem with hormones that affects women during their childbearing years–affects a woman’s ovaries, the reproductive organs that produce estrogen and progesterone — hormones that regulate the menstrual cycle. The ovaries also produce a small amount of male hormones called androgens.

It involves cysts in the ovaries, high levels of male hormones, and irregular periods.

A

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Types of Incontinence

A

Urge incontinence, Stress incontinence, Overflow incontinence, Mixed incontinence, Functional incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Involuntary loss of urine associated with abrupt and strong desire to void (urgency); often associated with involuntary contractions of detrusor; when associated with neurologic disorder, this is called detrusor hyperreflexia; when no neurologic disorder exists, this is called detrusor instability; may be associated with decreased bladder wall compliance

A

Urge incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Involuntary loss of urine during coughing, sneezing, laughing, or other physical activity associated with increased abdominal pressure

A

Stress incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Involuntary loss of urine with overdistention of bladder; associated with neurologic lesions below S1, polyneuropathies, and urethral obstruction (e.g., enlarged prostate)

A

Overflow incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Combination of both stress and urge incontinence

A

Mixed incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Involuntary loss of urine attributable to dementia or immobility

A

Functional incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a group of abnormalities in which the testis fails to descend completely

A

Cryptorchidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

International criteria for the diagnosis require at least two of these conditions: irregular ovulation, elevated levels of androgens (e.g., testosterone), and appearance of polycystic ovaries on ultrasound.

A

PCOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

related to a genetic predisposition and an obesity-prone lifestyle related to insulin resistance and an excess of insulin and androgens. A hyperandrogenic state is a cardinal feature in the pathogenesis

A

PCOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

S/S of PCOS

A
  • Insulin resistance and the resultant compensatory hyperinsulinemia
  • overstimulate androgen secretion by the ovarian stroma
  • reduce hepatic secretion of serum sex hormone–binding globulin (SHBG).
  • The net effect is an increase in free testosterone levels. Excessive androgens affect follicular growth, and insulin affects follicular decline by suppressing apoptosis and enabling the survival of follicles that would normally disintegrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Clinical manifestations of PCOS

A

Obesity (41%)
Menstrual disturbance (70% [e.g., dysfunctional uterine bleeding])
Oligomenorrhea (47%)
Amenorrhea (19%)
Regular menstruation (48%)
Hyperandrogenism (69%-74%)
Infertility (73% of anovulatory infertility)
Asymptomatic (20% of those with polycystic ovary syndrome [PCOS])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

an acquired narrowing and distal obstruction of the pylorus and a common cause of postprandial (after a meal) vomiting. It is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infancy.

A

Infantile Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pathophysiology of Infantile Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

A

Individual muscle fibers of the longitudinal and circular muscles thicken, so the entire pyloric sphincter becomes enlarged and inflexible. The mucosal lining of the pyloric opening is folded and narrowed by the encroaching muscle. Because of the extra peristaltic effort necessary to force the gastric contents through the narrow opening, the muscle layers of the stomach may become hypertrophied as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Upper abdominal distention, visible peristaltic waves, a decrease in the size and frequency of meconium stools, progressive weight loss, persistent vomiting, and dehydration. Congenital obstruction of the duodenum is rare and can be caused by intrinsic malformations, such as atresia (complete blockage), stenosis (partial obstruction or narrowing), or external pressure.

A

Duodenal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

the most common congenital anomaly of the small intestine.

A

Intestinal malrotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

a rare congenital malformation characterized by the absence or obstruction of extrahepatic bile ducts resulting in neonatal cholestasis.

A

biliary atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Clinical manifestation of biliary atresia

A

Jaundice is the primary clinical manifestation of BA, along with hepatomegaly and acholic (clay-colored) stools. Fat absorption is impaired because of the lack of bile salts. Abdominal distention caused by hepatomegaly and ascites may cause anorexia and faltering growth. Fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies (A, D, E, K) require supplementation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the telescoping of a proximal segment of intestine into a distal segment, causing an obstruction. It is rare but the most common cause of small bowel obstruction in children in the United States.

A

Intussusception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pathophysiology in intussusception

A
  • the ileum commonly telescopes into the cecum and part of the ascending colon by collapsing through the ileocecal valve
  • Compression of the mesenteric vessels between the two layers of intestinal wall and at the U-shaped angle at either end of the intussusceptum leads within hours to venous stasis, engorgement, edema, exudation, and further vascular compression. Edema and compression obstruct the flow of chyme through the intestine. Unless the intussusception is treated, bleeding, necrosis, and bowel perforation ensue.
24
Q

a congenital malformation of the GI tract involving all layers of the small intestinal wall; it usually occurs in the ileum.

A

Meckel diverticulum

25
Q

a true diverticulum in that it contains all layers of the wall of the intestine, usually the ileum. It is a remnant of the embryonic yolk sac and is the most prevalent congenital abnormality of the small bowel.

A

Meckel diverticulum

26
Q

Develops because of obstruction to the outflow of pancreatic digestive enzymes caused by bile and pancreatic duct obstruction (e.g., gallstones). Also results from direct cellular injury from alcohol, drugs, or viral infection.61

A

Acute pancreatitis

27
Q

2 main causes of acute pancreatitis

A

gall stones and high ingestion of etoh

28
Q

most common causes of chronic pancreatitis

A

repeated acute pancreatitis, years of etoh abuse, cystic fibrosis–decreased FTR proteins that play a role in the movement of chloride ions that help balance salt&water in epithelial cells causing a decrease in bicarb production and an increase of thick mucous in pancreatic ducts.

29
Q

ischemic, inflammatory condition that causes bowel necrosis and perforation.

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis

30
Q

Factors contributing to the development include infections, abnormal bacterial colonization, intestinal ischemia, immature immune responses, exaggerated inflammatory responses, immature intestinal motility, altered microcirculatory blood flow and barrier function, perinatal stress, effects of medications and feeding practices, and genetic predisposition.

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis

31
Q

Defect in copper excretion by liver

Autosomal recessive: defect on chromosome 13 (ATP 7B)

Impaired transport of copper into bile/blood caused by diminished transport protein (ceruloplasmin)

Toxic accumulations of copper in liver, brain, kidney, corneas

A

Wilson’s disease

32
Q

Clinical manifestation
High levels of blood galactose

Vomiting

Hypoglycemia

May have failure to thrive

Symptoms of cirrhosis at 2-6 months—jaundice

Intellectual disabilities if not treated

Cataracts if not treated

High levels of blood fructose

Vomiting

Hypoglycemia

May have failure to thrive

Hepatomegaly

Jaundice

Seizures

Intention tremors

Indistinct speech

Dystonia

Greenish yellow rings in cornea

Hepatomegaly

Jaundice

Anorexia

Renal tubular defects

A

Wilson’s disease

33
Q

an inflammation of the glomerulus caused by primary glomerular injury and is isolated to the kidney. Secondary glomerular injury is a glomerular injury that occurs as a consequence of systemic diseases, including diabetes mellitus, hypertension, bacterial toxins, systemic lupus erythematosus, congestive heart failure, and HIV-related kidney disease.

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

34
Q

Pathophysiology of Glomerulonephritis

A

The most common type of immune injury is related to the presence of antigen-antibody complexes within the glomerulus.

Immune injury is caused by activation of the inflammatory response (i.e., complement activation, leukocyte recruitment, and release of cytokines from leukocytes). Injury begins after the antigen-antibody complexes have deposited or formed in the glomerulus.

35
Q

a group of symptoms characterized by severe proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and edema. The syndrome is more common in children than in adults.

A

Nephrotic syndrome

36
Q

a reduction in the total number of erythrocytes in the circulating blood or a decrease in the quality or quantity of hemoglobin.

A

Anemia

37
Q

three factors that cause anemia

A

(1) impaired erythrocyte production,
(2) blood loss (acute or chronic),
(3) increased erythrocyte destruction, or
(4) a combination of these three factors

38
Q

irreversible inflammatory, fibrotic liver disease.

A

Cirrhosis

39
Q

a chronic inflammatory disease that causes ulceration of the colonic mucosa, most commonly in the rectum and sigmoid colon. The lesions appear in susceptible individuals between 20 and 40 years of age.

A

Ulcerative colitis

40
Q

the reflux of acid and pepsin or bile salts from the stomach into the esophagus, causing esophagitis.

A

GERD

41
Q

a type of diaphragmatic hernia with protrusion (herniation) of the upper part of the stomach through the diaphragm and into the thorax

A

Hiatal hernia

42
Q

the proximal portion of the stomach moves into the thoracic cavity through the esophageal hiatus, an opening in the diaphragm for the esophagus and vagus nerves. A congenitally short esophagus, fibrosis or excessive vagal nerve stimulation, or weakening of the diaphragmatic muscles at the gastroesophageal junction contributes to the hernia.

A

sliding hiatal hernia

43
Q

the foreskin cannot be retracted back over the glans

A

Phimosis

44
Q

the foreskin is retracted and cannot be moved forward (reduced) to cover the glans

A

paraphimosis

45
Q

fibrotic condition that causes lateral curvature of the penis during erection

A

Peyronie disease

46
Q

uncommon condition of prolonged penile erection. It is usually painful and is not associated with sexual arousal

A

Priapism

47
Q

inflammation of the glans penis (Fig. 36.4) that usually occurs in conjunction with posthitis, an inflammation of the prepuce. (Inflammation of the glans and the prepuce is called balanoposthitis.)

is most commonly seen in men with poorly controlled diabetes and candidiasis.

A

Balanitis

48
Q

an infection caused by a sexually transmitted bacterium that infects both males and females. Gonorrhea most often affects the urethra, rectum or throat. In females, gonorrhea can also infect the cervix. Gonorrhea is most commonly spread during vaginal, oral or anal sex.

A

gonorrhea

49
Q

bleeding from the jejunum, ileum, colon, or rectum, can be caused by polyps, diverticulitis, inflammatory disease, cancer, or hemorrhoids

A

Lower gastrointestinal bleeding

50
Q

bleeding in the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum and is characterized by frank, bright red bleeding or dark, grainy digested blood (“coffee grounds”) that has been affected by stomach acids

A

Upper gastrointestinal bleeding

51
Q

infection is almost exclusively the cause of cervical cancer.

A

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

52
Q

a rare cancer that occurs in your vagina — the muscular tube that connects your uterus with your outer genitals. Vaginal cancer most commonly occurs in the cells that line the surface of your vagina

A

Vaginal Cancer

53
Q

n idiopathic inflammatory disorder that affects any part of the GI tract from the mouth to the anus. In a small percentage of cases, is difficult to differentiate from ulcerative colitis (see Table 38.6). Risk factor associated include smoking, low fiber–high carbohydrate diet, medications, such as NSAIDs, and altered intestinal microbiome.

A

Crohn disease

54
Q

an autoimmune disease that damages small intestinal villous epithelium when gluten (gliadin), the protein component of cereal grains, is ingested. CD is a common multiorgan disease with a strong genetic predisposition. It is associated with certain human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) and autoantibodies.

A

Celiac disease

55
Q

congenital condition in which the urethral meatus is located on the ventral side or undersurface of the penis

A

Hypospadias

56
Q

a rare birth defect located at the opening of the urethra. In this condition, the urethra does not develop into a full tube, and the urine exits the body from an abnormal location.

A

Epispadias

57
Q

a rare embryonal tumor of the kidney arising from undifferentiated mesoderm. Approximately 500 children are diagnosed each year in the United States, most younger than 5 years of age.

A

Nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor)

Advanced Patho (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions