Exam 3 Flashcards
Which of the following types of diarrhea would most likely occur with a bacterial GI infection? a. Osmotic b. Secretory c. Hypotonic d. Motility
b.
Secretory
A 20-year-old recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. This diarrhea can be classified as \_\_\_\_\_ diarrhea. a. osmotic b. secretory c. hypotonic d. motility
a.
osmotic
Assuming that midline epigastric pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is classified as: a. visceral. b. somatic. c. parietal. d. referred.
a.
visceral.
The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is: a. diverticulosis. b. hemorrhoids. c. esophageal varices. d. cancer.
c.
esophageal varices.
Bright red bleeding from the rectum is referred to as: a. melena. b. occult bleeding. c. hematochezia. d. hematemesis.
c.
hematochezia.
A 50-year-old is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux. This condition is caused by:
a.
fibrosis of the lower third of the esophagus.
b.
sympathetic nerve stimulation.
c.
loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter.
d.
reverse peristalsis of the stomach.
c.
loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter.
A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. These symptoms support which diagnosis? a. Pyloric stenosis b. Gastric cancer c. Achalasia d. Hiatal hernia
d.
Hiatal hernia
A serious complication of paraesophageal hiatal hernia is: a. hemorrhage. b. strangulation. c. peritonitis. d. ascites.
b.
strangulation.
Tests reveal narrowing of the opening between the stomach and the duodenum. This condition is referred to as: a. ileocecal obstruction. b. hiatal hernia. c. pyloric obstruction. d. hiatal obstruction.
c.
pyloric obstruction.
The symptoms and signs of large bowel obstruction are: a. abdominal distention and hypogastric pain. b. diarrhea and excessive thirst. c. dehydration and epigastric pain. d. abdominal pain and rectal bleeding.
a.
abdominal distention and hypogastric pain.
Chronic gastritis is classified according to the: a. severity. b. location of lesions. c. patient’s age. d. signs and symptoms.
b.
location of lesions.
Gastroscopy reveals degeneration of the gastric mucosa in the body and fundus of the stomach. This condition increases the risk for the development of: a. pernicious anemia. b. osmotic diarrhea. c. increased acid secretion. d. decreased gastrin secretion.
a.
pernicious anemia.
What is the cause of peptic ulcer disease?
a.
Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels
b.
Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions
c.
Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement
d.
Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux
b.
Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions
A 39-year-old is diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following behaviors may have contributed to the development of the ulcer? a. Regular NSAID use b. Drinking caffeinated beverages c. Consuming limited fiber d. Antacid consumption
a.
Regular NSAID use
A 22-year-old underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, the patient experienced a peptic ulcer. This ulcer is referred to as a(n) \_\_\_\_\_ ulcer. a. infectious b. Cushing c. H. pylori d. Curling
b.
Cushing
What is the primary clinical manifestation of a stress ulcer? a. Bowel obstruction b. Bleeding c. Pulmonary embolism d. Hepatomegaly
b.
Bleeding
Clinical manifestations of bile salt deficiencies are related to poor absorption of: a. fats and fat-soluble vitamins. b. water-soluble vitamins. c. proteins. d. minerals.
a.
fats and fat-soluble vitamins.
Which complication is associated with gastric resection surgery? a. Constipation b. Acid reflux gastritis c. Anemia d. Hiccups
c.
Anemia
A 50-year-old male reports episodes of frequently recurring crampy abdominal pain, diarrhea, and bloody stools. A possible diagnosis would be: a. ulcerative colitis. b. hiatal hernia. c. pyloric obstruction. d. achalasia.
a.
ulcerative colitis.
Pancreatic insufficiency is manifested by deficient production of: a. insulin. b. amylase. c. lipase. d. bile.
c.
lipase.
A 19-year-old presents with abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant. Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and a low-grade fever. A possible diagnosis would be: a. colon cancer. b. pancreatitis. c. appendicitis. d. hepatitis.
c.
appendicitis.
A common cause of chronic mesenteric ischemia among the elderly is: a. anemia. b. aneurysm. c. lack of nutrition in gut lumen. d. atherosclerosis.
d.
atherosclerosis.
Which of the following characteristics is associated with an acute occlusion of mesenteric blood flow to the small intestine?
a.
Often precipitated by an embolism
b.
Commonly associated with disease such as pancreatitis and gallstones
c.
Caused by chronic malnutrition and mucosal atrophy
d.
Often a complication of hypovolemic shock
a.
Often precipitated by an embolism
The risk of hypovolemic shock is high with acute mesenteric arterial insufficiency because:
a.
the resulting liver failure causes a deficit of plasma proteins and a loss of oncotic pressure.
b.
ischemia alters mucosal membrane permeability, and fluid loss occurs.
c.
massive bleeding occurs in the GI tract.
d.
overstimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system results in ischemic injury to the intestinal wall.
b.
ischemia alters mucosal membrane permeability, and fluid loss occurs.
Which of the following conditions is thought to contribute to the development of obesity? a. Insulin excess b. Leptin resistance c. Adipocyte failure d. Malabsorption
b.
Leptin resistance
A 54-year-old reports vomiting blood. Tests reveal portal hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition? a. Thrombosis in the spleen b. Cirrhosis of the liver c. Left ventricular failure d. Renal stenosis
b.
Cirrhosis of the liver
The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is \_\_\_\_\_ bleeding. a. rectal b. duodenal c. esophageal d. intestinal
c.
esophageal
Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of: a. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice. b. fluid and electrolyte imbalances. c. impaired ammonia metabolism. d. decreased cerebral blood flow.
c.
impaired ammonia metabolism.
An increase in the rate of red blood cell breakdown causes which form of jaundice? a. Obstructive b. Hemolytic c. Hepatocellular d. Metabolic
b.
Hemolytic
The icteric phase of hepatitis is characterized by which clinical manifestations?
a.
Fatigue, malaise, vomiting
b.
Jaundice, dark urine, enlarged liver
c.
Resolution of jaundice, liver function returns to normal
d.
Fulminant liver failure, hepatorenal syndrome
b.
Jaundice, dark urine, enlarged liver
The autopsy of a 55-year-old revealed an enlarged liver, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. What is the most likely cause of this condition? a. Bacterial infection b. Viral infection c. Alcoholic steatohepatitis d. Drug overdose
c.
Alcoholic steatohepatitis
In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage is caused by: a. acetaldehyde accumulation. b. bile toxicity. c. acidosis. d. fatty infiltrations.
a.
acetaldehyde accumulation.
An analysis of most gallstones would reveal a high concentration of: a. phosphate. b. bilirubin. c. urate. d. cholesterol.
d.
cholesterol.
A 55-year-old is diagnosed with extrahepatic obstructive jaundice that is a result of the obstruction of the: a. intrahepatic bile canaliculi. b. gallbladder. c. cystic duct. d. common bile duct.
d.
common bile duct.
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:
a.
accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.
b.
obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone.
c.
accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.
d.
viral infection of the gallbladder.
b.
obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone.
Tissue damage in pancreatitis is initially triggered by: a. insulin toxicity. b. autoimmune destruction of the pancreas. c. backup of pancreatic enzymes. d. hydrochloric acid reflux into the pancreatic duct.
c.
backup of pancreatic enzymes.
Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions? a. Right lower quadrant b. Right upper quadrant c. Epigastric d. Suprapubic
c.
Epigastric
A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the esophagus. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease? a. Reflux esophagitis b. Intestinal parasites c. Ingestion of salty foods d. Frequent use of antacids
a.
Reflux esophagitis
A patient presents to the physician with reports infrequent bowel movements and is diagnosed with functional constipation. What can be a contributing factor to this condition? (select all that apply) a. Neurogenic disorder b. Sedentary lifestyle c. Low residue diet d. Colon cancer e. Low fluid intake
b. Sedentary lifestyle c. Low residue diet e. Low fluid intake
The primary causes of duodenal ulcers include: (select all that apply) a. consumption of spicy foods. b. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). c. H. pylori infection. d. trauma. e. side effects of antibiotics.
b.
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
c.
H. pylori infection.
A 56-year-old is diagnosed with gastric ulcers. Which of the following characterizes this disorder? (select all that apply) a. Pain occurs immediately after eating b. Anorexia c. History of NSAID use d. Occurrence is typically a single event e. Occur more frequently in females
a. Pain occurs immediately after eating b. Anorexia c. History of NSAID use
Which of the following type(s) of hepatitis has an incubation period of up to 180 days? (select all that apply) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
b.
B
d.
D
A 31-year-old female is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following will be part of the treatment plan? (select all that apply) a. Narcotic analgesics b. Restriction of food intake c. Nasogastric suctioning d. Steroid therapy e. IV fluids
a. Narcotic analgesics b. Restriction of food intake c. Nasogastric suctioning e. IV fluids
A 52-year-old female presents with continuous abdominal pain that intensifies after eating. She is diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis. Contributing factors include: (select all that apply) a. alcohol abuse. b. history of gallstones. c. trauma. d. smoking. e. bulimia
a. alcohol abuse. b. history of gallstones. d. smoking.
Obesity is defined as a body mass index (BMI) greater than _____.
30
Digestion begins in the mouth with salivary α-amylase (ptyalin) that initiates the digestion of: a. proteins. b. carbohydrates. c. fats. d. amino acids.
b.
carbohydrates.
When parasympathetic nervous system activity is inhibited what is the expected effect on salivary glands? a. Hyperactive function b. Hypoactive function c. Atrophy d. Enlargement
b.
Hypoactive function
Which immunoglobulin is found in normal saliva? a. IgG b. IgD c. IgE d. IgA
d.
IgA
Food is moved down the esophagus via what process? a. Peristalsis b. Retropulsion c. Haustral segmentation d. Defecation
a.
Peristalsis
Which cells of the gastric glands secrete hydrochloric acid? a. Chief b. Parietal c. Zymogenic d. Surface epithelial
b.
Parietal
A young male student becomes very hungry during class. He begins thinking of a cheeseburger and fries, his favorite meal. These thoughts will trigger which phase of gastric secretion? a. Cephalic b. Gastric c. Enteral d. Intestinal
a.
Cephalic
Mucus production to form the mucosal barrier in the stomach is stimulated by the release of: a. somatostatin. b. gastrin. c. prostaglandins. d. histamine.
c.
prostaglandins.
Which sphincter prevents reflux of digested material from the colon into the small intestine? a. Haustral b. Lower esophageal c. Pyloric d. Ileocecal valve
d.
Ileocecal valve
Absorption of nutrients from the intestine occurs initially through the: a. mesentery. b. villi. c. lamina propria. d. splenic veins.
b.
villi.
Which reflex inhibits gastric motility when the ileum becomes overdistended? a. Ileogastric b. Gastroduodenal c. Gastroileal d. Gastrocolic
a.
Ileogastric
The vermiform appendix is attached to the: a. duodenum. b. ileum. c. cecum. d. sigmoid colon.
c.
cecum.
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ sphincter controls the movement of waste from the sigmoid colon into the rectum? a. oddi b. ileocecal c. O’Beirne d. internal anal
c.
O’Beirne
The \_\_\_\_\_ reflex initiates propulsion in the entire colon, usually during or immediately after eating. a. gastrocolic b. ileocolic c. duodenocolic d. cephalocolic
a.
gastrocolic
The blood supply of the large intestine is derived from which vessel(s)? a. Celiac b. Superior and inferior mesenteric c. Hepatic and portal d. Omental
b.
Superior and inferior mesenteric
The capillaries of the liver are more commonly known as hepatic: a. canaliculi. b. ducts. c. sinusoids. d. papillae.
c.
sinusoids.
Which of the following liver cells are phagocytic? a. Glisson b. Kupffer c. Meissner d. Lieberkühn
b.
Kupffer
The primary bile salts are synthesized from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ by hepatocytes lining the bile canaliculi. a. lecithin b. fatty acids c. cholesterol d. testosterone
c.
cholesterol
In the liver, free bilirubin moves from the plasma in the sinusoids into the hepatocytes, where it is converted into: a. unconjugated bilirubin. b. biliverdin. c. conjugated bilirubin. d. urobilinogen.
c.
conjugated bilirubin.
Which information indicates the nurse understands digestion? During the cephalic and gastric phases of digestion, gallbladder contraction is mediated by branches of the: a. sympathetic nervous system. b. somatic nervous system. c. vagus nerve. d. glossopharyngeal nerve.
c.
vagus nerve.
Which sphincter, when it relaxes, allows bile to flow into the duodenum? a. Pyloric sphincter b. Sphincter of Oddi c. Ampulla of Vater d. Ileocecal valve
b.
Sphincter of Oddi
The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains: a. alpha cells. b. beta cells. c. acinar cells. d. islets of Langerhans.
c.
acinar cells.
The function of the acinar cells of the pancreas is to secrete: a. bicarbonate. b. enzymes. c. mucus. d. electrolytes.
b.
enzymes.
Parasympathetic stimulation to the pancreas will cause which of the following reactions? a. Hormonal inhibition b. Enzyme secretion c. Vasoconstriction d. Decreased bicarbonate production
b.
Enzyme secretion
The pancreas produces which substance to prevent the premature activation of proteolytic enzymes in the pancreas? a. Bicarbonate b. Carboxypeptidase c. Secretin d. Trypsin inhibitor
d.
Trypsin inhibitor
The GI tract performs which of the following processes? (select all that apply) a. Absorption of digested food b. Chemical breakdown of food particles c. Initiates erythropoiesis d. Mechanical breakdown of food particles e. Secretion of mucus
a. Absorption of digested food b. Chemical breakdown of food particles d. Mechanical breakdown of food particles e. Secretion of mucus
A patient is diagnosed with urinary tract obstruction. While planning care, the nurse realizes that the patient is expected to have hydronephrosis and a decreased glomerular filtration rate caused by:
a.
decreased renal blood flow.
b.
decreased peritubular capillary pressure.
c.
dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces proximal to a blockage.
d.
stimulation of antidiuretic hormone.
c.
dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces proximal to a blockage.
A patient has a severe kidney obstruction leading to removal of the affected kidney. Which of the following would the nurse expect to occur? a. Atrophy of the remaining kidney b. Compensatory hypertrophy of the remaining kidney c. Dysplasia in the remaining kidney d. Renal failure
b.
Compensatory hypertrophy of the remaining kidney
A 55-year-old presents reporting urinary retention. Tests reveal a lower urinary tract obstruction. Which of the following is of most concern to the nurse? a. Vesicoureteral reflux and pyelonephritis b. Formation of renal calculi c. Glomerulonephritis d. Increased bladder compliance
b.
Formation of renal calculi
What is the most common type of renal stone composed of? a. Struvite b. Cystine c. Calcium d. Uric acid
c.
Calcium
While planning care for a patient with renal calculi, the nurse remembers the most important factor in renal calculus formation is: a. urine pH. b. body temperature. c. gender. d. serum mineral concentrations.
a.
urine pH.
A patient is diagnosed with renal calculus that is causing a urinary obstruction. Which symptoms would be most likely experienced? a. Anuria b. Hematuria c. Pyuria d. Flank pain
d.
Flank pain
When a patient’s CT scan reveals a lesion above the pontine micturition center, which condition would the nurse expect? a. Dyssynergia b. Detrusor hyperreflexia c. Detrusor areflexia d. Detrusor sphincter dyssynergia
b.
Detrusor hyperreflexia
A 75-year-old reports loss of urine with cough, sneezing, or laughing. These symptoms support which diagnosis? a. Urge incontinence b. Stress incontinence c. Overflow incontinence d. Functional incontinence
b.
Stress incontinence
Which is the most beneficial medication treatment for a patient experiencing detrusor sphincter dyssynergia? a. Alpha-blocker b. Beta-blocker c. Vasodilator d. Diuretic
a.
Alpha-blocker
A 29-year-old female presents with cloudy urine, flank pain, and hematuria. These signs and symptoms support which diagnosis? a. Acute cystitis b. Renal calculi c. Chronic renal failure d. Postrenal renal failure
a.
Acute cystitis
A 25-year-old female is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. When the nurse checks the culture results, which of the following organisms is most likely infecting her urinary tract? a. Streptococcus b. Candida albicans c. Chlamydia d. Escherichia coli
d.
Escherichia coli
When considering pyelonephritis, where is the site of the infection? a. Bladder b. Renal pelvis c. Renal tubules d. Glomerulus
b.
Renal pelvis
The most common condition associated with the development of acute pyelonephritis is: a. cystitis. b. renal cancer. c. urinary tract obstruction. d. nephrotic syndrome.
c.
urinary tract obstruction.
A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3-5 grams per day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is: a. cystitis. b. chronic pyelonephritis. c. acute glomerulonephritis. d. renal calculi.
c.
acute glomerulonephritis.
Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is primarily caused by:
a.
swelling of mesangial cells in the Bowman space in response to the presence of bacteria.
b.
immune complex deposition in the glomerular capillaries and inflammatory damage.
c.
inflammatory factors that stimulate cellular proliferation of epithelial cells.
d.
accumulation of antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies.
b.
immune complex deposition in the glomerular capillaries and inflammatory damage.
A 54-year-old female is diagnosed with nephritic syndrome. Which of the following is a common symptom of this disease? a. Hematuria b. Dysuria c. Oliguria d. Proteinuria
a.
Hematuria
A 42-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident that has resulted in prerenal failure. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition? a. Kidney stones b. Immune complex deposition in the glomerulus c. Inadequate renal blood flow d. Obstruction of the proximal tubule
c.
Inadequate renal blood flow
A 35-year-old who was severely burned is now demonstrating symptomology associated with acute tubular necrosis (ATN). Which form of renal failure is this patient experiencing? a. Prerenal b. Intrarenal c. Extrarenal d. Postrenal
b.
Intrarenal
An older male presents with flank pain and polyuria. Tests reveal that he has an enlarged prostate. Which type of renal failure is this patient at risk for? a. Prerenal b. Intrarenal c. Extrarenal d. Postrenal
d.
Postrenal
A 45-year-old presents with hypertension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and anemia and is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. What is the cause of this patient’s anemia? a. Red blood cells being lost in the urine b. Inadequate production of erythropoietin c. Inadequate iron absorption in the gut d. Red blood cells being injured as they pass through the glomerulus
b.
Inadequate production of erythropoietin
When a 42-year-old is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, which dietary restriction will the nurse discuss with the patient? a. Fats b. Complex carbohydrates c. Proteins d. Sugars
c.
Proteins
Bone fractures are a risk factor in chronic renal failure because: a. calcium is lost in the urine. b. osteoblast activity is excessive. c. the kidneys fail to activate vitamin D. d. autoantibodies to calcium molecules develop.
c.
the kidneys fail to activate vitamin D.
Mechanisms for defense against urinary pathogens in men include: (select all that apply)
a.
the long length of the urethra.
b.
the alkaline pH of urine.
c.
the secretion of mucus that traps bacteria.
d.
the antimicrobial secretions from the prostate.
e.
the implantation of the ureters in the bladder.
a.
the long length of the urethra.
d.
the antimicrobial secretions from the prostate.
The region of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli is called the: a. medulla. b. cortex. c. pyramids. d. columns.
b.
cortex.
When discussing the functional unit of the kidney, what term should the nurse use? a. Calyx b. Nephron c. Collecting duct d. Pyramid
b.
Nephron
Which type of nephron determines the concentration of the urine? a. Juxtamedullary b. Midcortical c. Cortical d. Medullary
a.
Juxtamedullary
What type of phagocytic cell lies between the layers of the renal capillaries? a. Podocytes b. Macula densa cells c. Mesangial cells d. Filtration slits
c.
Mesangial cells
When the nurse discusses the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule together, it is referred to as the renal: a. corpuscle. b. capsule. c. medulla. d. pyramid.
a.
corpuscle.
When a nurse is checking the urinalysis, plasma proteins should be absent from the urine because:
a.
all filtered proteins are subsequently reabsorbed.
b.
the texture of the covering surrounding plasma proteins interferes with reabsorption.
c.
filtered proteins are subsequently degraded before elimination.
d.
the negative charge of the glomerular filtration membrane repels the plasma proteins.
d.
the negative charge of the glomerular filtration membrane repels the plasma proteins.
hen the nurse is discussing the sodium-sensing cells of the glomerulus, what term should the nurse use? a. Podocytes b. Macula densa c. Mesangial cells d. Loop of Henle
b.
Macula densa
What structure does urine pass through prior to entering the ureters? a. Collecting duct b. Renal pelvis c. Urethra d. Major calyx
b.
Renal pelvis
The trigone is defined as: a. the orifice of the ureter. b. the inner area of the kidney. c. a triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra. d. the three divisions of the loop of Henle.
c.
a triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra.
When describing the male urinary anatomy, which information should the nurse include? The portion of the male urethra that is closest to the bladder is the \_\_\_\_\_ portion. a. membranous b. prostatic c. cavernous d. vas deferens
b.
prostatic
On average, the kidneys receive approximately \_\_\_\_\_ of the cardiac output. a. 10-14% b. 15-19% c. 20-25% d. 26-35%
c.
20-25%
The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is directly related to the:
a.
perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries.
b.
oncotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries.
c.
vascular resistance in the glomerular arterioles.
d.
hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman’s capsule.
a.
perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries.
The blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the: a. vagus nerve. b. sympathetic nervous system. c. somatic nervous system. d. parasympathetic nervous system.
b.
sympathetic nervous system.
The renin-angiotensin system will be activated by: a. increased blood volume. b. elevated sodium concentrations. c. decreased blood pressure in the afferent arterioles. d. renal hypertension.
c.
decreased blood pressure in the afferent arterioles.
A nurse realizes glucose will be excreted in the urine when:
a.
the maximum rate of glucose filtration is achieved.
b.
the carrier molecules have reached their maximum.
c.
glucose is consumed.
d.
the ability of the kidneys to regulate blood glucose is lost.
b.
the carrier molecules have reached their maximum.
Where does the majority of sodium reabsorption take place? a. Proximal tubule b. Loop of Henle c. Distal tubule d. Collecting duct
a.
Proximal tubule
What structure supplies blood to the medulla? a. Renal artery b. Arcuate artery c. Peritubular capillary d. Vasa recta
d.
Vasa recta
The descending segment of the loop of Henle primarily allows for: a. sodium secretion. b. potassium secretion. c. hydrogen ion reabsorption. d. water reabsorption.
d.
water reabsorption.
When a staff member asks which of the following substances is actively secreted by the renal tubules, what is the nurse’s best response? a. Sodium and chlorine b. Phosphate and calcium c. Hydrogen and potassium d. Bicarbonate and carbonic acid
c.
Hydrogen and potassium
Reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts requires which hormone? a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANP) c. Renin d. Aldosterone
a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
A 35-year-old hypertensive male begins taking a diuretic. Which of the following common side effects of this medication should the nurse monitor? a. Hypokalemia b. Hyponatremia c. Increased uric acid secretion d. Hypermagnesemia
a.
Hypokalemia
Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys to stimulate bone marrow production of red blood cells? a. Creatinine b. Aldosterone c. Erythropoietin d. Renin
c.
Erythropoietin
If a nurse wants to obtain the best estimate of renal function, which test should the nurse monitor? a. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) b. Circulating antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels c. Volume of urine output d. Urine-specific gravity
a.
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
A nurse recalls that the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and plasma creatinine (Pcr) concentration are \_\_\_\_\_ related. a. directly b. indirectly c. inversely d. not
c.
inversely
The components of the nephron include the: (select all that apply) a. loop of Henle. b. renal corpuscle. c. proximal tubule. d. renal pelvis. e. convoluted tubule.
a. loop of Henle. b. renal corpuscle. c. proximal tubule. e. convoluted tubule.
Which renal structures drain directly into the calyces? (select all that apply) a. Distal tubule b. Collecting duct c. Pyramid d. Renal pelvis e. Loop of Henle
a.
Distal tubule
b.
Collecting duct
A nurse recalls the superficial cortical nephrons account for ____% of all nephrons.
85
On average, _____% of renal plasma flow (RPF) to the glomerulus is filtered into the Bowman’s capsule.
20
A nurse would chart that a patient is experiencing oliguria when a 24-hour urine output is less than ________ milliliters per day.
400
