Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the tubular membranes in the ER called?

A

Flattened sacks

Cisternae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the space called within the ER lumen?

A

Cisternal Space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List the two types of ER

A

Rough

Smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Is the smooth ER associated with synthesis?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where are the proteins made by the RER destined?

A

Secretion or membrane bound proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which side are the ribosomes attached to on the RER?

A

Cytosolic side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Is the rRNA charge positive or negative in the RER?

A

Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where do the proteins destined for secretion go after the RER?

A

Golgi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Proteins made by the RER ribosomes are generally imported into the RER cisternal space by a process known as…..

A

Cotranslational Import

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are the proteins made by the RER transported to the cisternal space?

A

Translocon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 3 different protein signal sequences?

A

ERSS
Internal Stop transfer sequence
Internal Start transfer Sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where does the ERSS direct import?

A

Translation of the ribosome

N-terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Once the ERSS is made where does the ribosome dock?

A

Translocon via SRP and temporarily blocks translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the job of SRP

A

Direct to translocon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which side of the ERSS protein is cleaved off?

A

N terminus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List the steps of cotranslational import

A
SRP binds to ERSS
SRP takes polypeptide to translocon
Dock
GTPs bind to SRP and unblocks translation
GTP to GDP release SRP
ERSS is cleaved off (N terminus)
C terminus leads polypeptide to ER lumen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does insulin regulate?

A

Blood glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where is n-linked

A

RER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where is o-linked?

A

Golgi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the job of the Internal Stop Transfer

A

To stop the translocation at the site. iN and C cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the job of the internal Start Transfer?

A

Signals SRP to dock with the translocon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the main job of the Smooth ER?

A

Drug detox
Cabohydrate metabolism
Calcium storage
Hormone biosynthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the Golgi involved in?

A

Processing and Packaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How many cisternae does the Golgi have?

A

3-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the two sides of the Golgi?

A

Cis- forming

Trans- maturing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the Cis Golgi closest to?

A

RER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define compartmentalization.

A

Processing enzymes in the intracisternal space of the golgi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the two models for material flow through the Golgi?

A

Stationary model and Maturation model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the most supported model of material flow in the Golgi?

A

Maturation model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the ERGIC tubulovesicular structure?

A

The space between the Golgi and the ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which way do materials move in the Golgi?

A

CGN toward TGN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

All known Golgi-specific proteins are ______ proteins many with just a single transmembrane domain.

A

Integral membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the 3 main fates for transport vesicles from the Golgi?

A

Secretory vesicles, endosomes (lysosomes) or retrograde transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the function of the lysosome?

A

digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does a lysosome form?

A

Endocytic vesicles and early endosomes
Late endosomes
Mature lysosome due to pH lowering in lumen
V pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Protein modification in the RER

A

N linked to asparagine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Protein modification in the golgi

A

O linked to serine and threonine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does protein sorting depend on?

A

Sequence tags

Transmembrane domain length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Constitutive secretion

A

continuous secretion, unregulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Regulated secretion

A

concentration of materials in the vesicle

ex insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a specific example of a protein destined for the regulated secretion pathway. Hint: glucose balance

A

GLUT 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where is GLUT 4 synthesized?

A

RER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the two main mechanisms for cell signaling?

A

Electrical and Chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which system utilizes electrical signals?

A

Nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the two main categories of cells in the nervous system?

A

Neurons and Glial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Define membrane potential

A

An unequal distribution of ions across a cellular membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Vm

inside with respect to outside of the cell

A

Quantitative electrical difference across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the three ions that membrane potential relies on?

A

Na, K, Cl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Electroneutrality

A

The charged particles can be separated

50
Q

How many of each ion does the Na/K pump out/in?

A

3 Na out 2 K in

51
Q

Equilibrium potential

A

The voltage difference across the membrane

52
Q

What is the resting membrane potential for mammals

A

~-70–80

53
Q

At rest, is the membrane polarized or depolarized?

A

Polarized

54
Q

Graded potentials

A

A signal that is of varying magnitude

55
Q

True or False. Graded potentials dissipate with distance along a membrane and time

A

TRUE

56
Q

Action potential

A

an all or nothing response. magnitude invariable

57
Q

Does action potential dissipate as it travels along the membrane?

A

No

58
Q

What causes changes in permeability of the cell membrane?

A

Opening or closing of some ion channel

59
Q

Integral membrane proteins that form ion-conducting pores across the membrane are_________

A

gated

60
Q

Ligand-gated

A

Will open in response to binding of ligand

61
Q

Voltage gated

A

Will open in response to a change in membrane potential

62
Q

What mechanism is used in the Inactivation gate?

A

Ball and Chain

63
Q

What are action potentials?

A

Large electrical depolarizations and repolarizations of the plasma membrane

64
Q

Which channels are involved in the action potentials?

A

K and Na

65
Q

AP depolarization

A

Opening of Na channels
Positive inside
Approaches E na

66
Q

AP repolarization

A

Opening of K channels
Negative inside
Towards Ek

67
Q

AP hyperpolarization

A

undershoot due to prolonged opening of K channels

68
Q

What is required in order for AP to occur?

A

Threshold must be met

69
Q

What is the resting potential for the Na/K gate?

A

-60mV

70
Q

What causes the absolute refractory period?

A

Na channel inactivation

71
Q

When can the Na diffuse into the cell for the depolarization period?

A

Once the cell is depolarized to threshold

72
Q

When does repolarization occur?

A

When K diffuses out

73
Q

Hyperpolarization

A

When K continues to flow out, overcorrection

74
Q

Subthreshold depolarization

A

Depolarization does not reach threshold

75
Q

Does the membrane potential ever reach the Ena?

A

NO!

76
Q

Why can no stimulus cause another action potential in the absolute refractory period?

A

The na channels cant be opened

77
Q

What is relative refractory period

A

Inactivation gate is opened for Na during repolarization and beginning of hyperpolarization

78
Q

What causes the gates to open and close?

A

Initial depolarization to threshold

79
Q

When is deinactivation?

A

-40 - -80 during repolarization

80
Q

During repolarization are the Na channels inactivated or closed?

A

Inactivated

81
Q

What is the period called when the Na channels are inactivated?

A

Refractory period

82
Q

Can an AP occur in the relative refractory period?

A

Yes but it is more difficult

83
Q

True or false

The refractory period prevents APs from occurring too close together in time. APs cannot summate

A

TRUE

84
Q

How do APs travel on the axon?

A

Down from the point of origin and spread passively

85
Q

What is electrotonic or passive spread?

A

The magnitude of the initial depolarization is lower at sites distant from the initial site

86
Q

What does lambda represent?

A

Space that it takes for the voltage to decay to 37%

87
Q

Is passive electrotonic spread of the depolarization AP conduction?

A

NO

88
Q

________ Spread passively to surrounding regions

A

Depolarizations

89
Q

Which direction does passive spread occur?

A

All directions

90
Q

Anatomy of myelinated axon

A

multiple intermittently spaced sheaths of membranes wrapped around the axon

91
Q

Myelinated axon

A

Sheaths that are wrapped around the axon

92
Q

What are the gaps between the sheaths called?

A

Nodes of Ranvier

93
Q

Myelination allows for more _______ conduction velocities.

A

Rapid

94
Q

Which provides faster dispersal?

A

Myelinated is faster

95
Q

How is the electrical signal transmitted from cell to cell?

A

Synapses

post and pre

96
Q

How many neurotransmitters does each presynaptic cell have?

A

One main

97
Q

Depolarization=Excitatory

A

Excitatory post synaptic potential

98
Q

Hyperpolarization=inhibitory

A

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential

99
Q

(Pre or post synaptic cell?)

AP causes voltage gated Ca channels in the membrane to open at the terminal bulb

A

Pre synaptic

100
Q

Pre or post synaptic?
Ca 2+ diffuses into the cell and causes synaptic vesicles to fuse to the presynaptic membrane
Neurotransmitter is released into the cleft

A

Pre synaptic

101
Q

Pre or post synaptic?

Neurotransmitter binds to its receptor

A

Post synaptic

102
Q

Pre or post synaptic?

Induces a change in membrane conductance (ESPS or IPSP which are graded potentials)

A

Post synaptic

103
Q

What mechanism is used to fuse the synaptic vesicles and the presynaptic membrane?

A

Ca 2+ induced exocytosis

104
Q

What are the three main vesicles present in the terminal bulb?

A

Undocked
Docked
Docked and primed

105
Q

On the vesicle there are V snares and synaptotagmin

A

Found in the vesicle

106
Q

True or false

Docking proteins are tethering proteins

A

True

107
Q

What does priming involve?

A

Interactions of v-snares and t-snares

108
Q

What are toxins that interfere with vesicle release?

A

Botox, tetanus and presynaptic blockers

109
Q

Ionotropic

A

The receptor is the channel

110
Q

Metabotropic

A

The receptor communicates with a channel indirectly

111
Q

Ionotropic receptor example

A

nachr opens the Na+ channel

112
Q

Ionotropic receptor example

A

GABAa opens the Cl- channel

113
Q

Metabotropic Receptor example

A

GABAb leads to opening of K channels, hyperpolarization

114
Q

Are postsynaptic potentials additive?

A

Yes! Time and space

115
Q

How can the activation state of the postsynaptic cell be determined?

A

Net influence of all the excitatory and inhibitory influences

116
Q

What type of potentials are the incoming electrical signals at the dendrites and soma?

A

Graded IPSP and EPSP

117
Q

Do IPSP and EPSP potentials degrade with time?

A

Yes

118
Q

Why can’t the dendrites or soma fire APs?

A

Because of the channel types that they are.

119
Q

Can neurotransmitters be removed from the synapse by transport into the cells?

A

Yes

120
Q

True or False

All neurotransmitters are simply degraded like Ach.

A

False