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OS 600 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Deep facial infections include which spaces?

A

lateral pharyngeal, retropharyngeal, danger, pretracheal

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2
Q

What characteristic of nirtrous oxide in the blood makes it easily titratable?

A

Its low solubility

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3
Q

What is the MAC of N2O?

A

104

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4
Q

How many times more soluble is N2O than nitrogen?

A

31x

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5
Q

What do you prevent by administering 100% oxygen for 5 minutes to the patient following administration of N2O?

A

Diffusion hypoxia

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6
Q

What is a contraindication of N2O?

A

Upper respiratory infection

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7
Q

Which spaces are involved in Ludwig’s angina?

A

Sublingual, submental, submandibular

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8
Q

Is N2O metabolized in the liver?

A

NO

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9
Q

What are desirable characteristics of N2O sedation?

A

Analgesia and anxiolysis, rapid and complete recovery, rapid and complete recovery, rapid onset, ability to titrate

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10
Q

Can N2O be used and work efficiently on all patients?

A

NO

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11
Q

Are nitrous oxide machines designed to deliver 100% N2O?

A

NO

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12
Q

Can a patient that was given N2O during their appointment drive home w/o an escort if fully recovered?

A

YES

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13
Q

Does the patient have to be NPO (nothing via oral) for 8 hrs. prior to receiving nitrous oxide?

A

NO

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14
Q

What type of sedation do some dental professionals consider >50% N2O to be?

A

moderate sedation

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15
Q

What is the drug induced state during which patients respond normally to verbal commands, cognitive function and coordination may be impaired, but ventilator and cardiovascular functions are not, and nitrous oxide is less than 50%?

A

Minimal sedation (anxiolysis)

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16
Q

What is the drug induced state of depression of consciousness during which the patient responds to repeated verbal commands and/or light tactile stimulation, patient airway and spontaneous ventilation is maintained, cardiovascular function is maintained, nitrous oxide is greater than 50%?

A

Moderate sedation (Analgesia)

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17
Q

What is the drug induced state of depression during which a patient cannot be easily aroused, but responds purposefully after repeated or painful stimulation, possible impairment of independently maintained ventilation, cardiac function usually maintained?

A

Deep sedation (Analgesia)

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18
Q

What are possible contraindications to nitrous oxide?

A

Upper respiratory infections, current chemical of ETOH dependence, recent eye surgery with perfluoropropane or sulfabeta fluoride gas, recent tympanic membrane

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19
Q

What is anxiety?

A

A nonspecific feeling of apprehension, worry, uneasiness or dread, the source of which may be unknown

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20
Q

What is the feeling of fright or dread related to an identifiable source?

A

fear

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21
Q

What is phobia?

A

Any persistent and irrational fear of something specific such as an object, activity, or situation that results in avoidance or desire to avoid the feared stimulus

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22
Q

What are possible signs of appropriate sedation?

A

Reduced fear and anxiety, tingling of extremities, heaviness of arms and legs, eyes become less active and glazed

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23
Q

What are the vitamin K dependent factors?

A

II, VII, IX, X

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24
Q

Diseases of the kidney and diseases that affect kidney function have what affect on urea levels?

A

They produce elevated levels of urea

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25
Q

During metabolic acidosis, what happens to pH and CO2?

A

decreased pH, decreased CO2

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26
Q

During respiratory alkalosis, what happens to pH and CO2?

A

increased pH, decreased CO2

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27
Q

When can high levels of chloride occur?

A

Dehydration and conditions that reduce renal blood flow

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28
Q

What is commonly associated with an increase in the percentage of neutrophils?

A

bacterial infection

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29
Q

Are T lymphocytes associated with the cell mediated response or the humoral response?

A

cell mediated response

30
Q

What is glycopyrrolate (Robinul)?

A

A sympathomimetic drug which increases heart rate and decreases secretions for general anesthesia

31
Q

What is the reversal agent for versed and other benzodiazepines?

A

Flumazenil

32
Q

Are IV drugs delivered into veins or arteries?

A

veins

33
Q

Which veins are suitable vessels for IV sedation?

A

Basilic and Cephalic

34
Q

T/F: Monitoring is required for IV sedation and general anesthesia

A

True

35
Q

Which ASA classes of outpatients can ultra-short acting barbituates be safely used on?

A

ASA I and II

36
Q

What must an anesthesia machine provide in order to be of use in deep sedation general anesthesia?

A

positive pressure ventilation function

37
Q

What do pulse oximeters do?

A

monitor the saturation of peripheral blood by oxygen

38
Q

Why is versed preferred to valium?

A

b/c it causes less venous irritation on injection, has a shorter elimination half-life, causes a greater amnestic effect

39
Q

what is a classic cause of metabolic alkalosis?

A

vomiting

40
Q

What is a rapidly swelling cellulitis called?

A

Ludwig’s angina (crosses the midline and includes the sub-lingual, -mandibular, -mental glands)

41
Q

T/F: OSHA requires that a scavenging system is essential for occasional nitrous oxide use in the dental office

A

True

42
Q

Which muscle determines whether a lower molar abscess that perforates the mandible lingually ends up in the submandibular or sublingual space?

A

mylohyoid muscle

43
Q

What does a cellulitis typically feel like?

A

doughy to indurated

44
Q

What do moderate severity spaces include?

A

submandibular space

45
Q

What is the first cranial nerve effected in cavernous sinus thrombosis?

A

CN VI

46
Q

T/F: Actinomycosis follows fascial planes as it spreads

A

FALSE, it does NOT follow fascial planes as it spreads

47
Q

What is the hallmark of osteomyelitis?

A

necrotic bone w/ no blood supply

48
Q

What are the criteria for admission?

A

threat to airway, inability to swallow, rapid onset, temperature greater than 100 degreesF

49
Q

What are the principles of antibiotic use?

A

use one with the narrowest spectrum, use one with lowest incidence of toxicity and side effects, use one that is bactericidal, use proper dosage and interval

50
Q

Does the cellulitis phase of infection include a soft center?

A

NO

51
Q

Should bactericidal or -static antibiotics be used with immunocompromised patients?

A

bactericidal antibiotics

52
Q

What does the abscess phase of infection include?

A

4-10 days, localized, presence of pus, primarily anaerobic bacteria, high degree of seriousness but not as high as cellulitis

53
Q

What does the edema phase of infection include?

A

0-3 days, aerobic bacteria, low rate of seriousness, variable size

54
Q

Which organism is primarily responsible for invading soft tissue in the initial spread of most oral infections?

A

Facultative Streptococcus milleri

55
Q

T/F: Nitrous oxide in the cylinder is a liquid

A

True

56
Q

What is the most definite clinical sign of a masticatory space infection?

A

Trismus

57
Q

What is the average amount of time that a drain is left in place before removal?

A

2-5 days

58
Q

Can surgical anesthesia be achieved under normal circumstance using N2O as a single agent?

A

NO

59
Q

Serious liver disease can result in reduction of all coagulation factors except which one?

A

factor VIII

60
Q

How will bleeding respond in liver disease and leukemia?

A

bleeding time will increase

61
Q

How may iron deficient anemia appear?

A

microcytic and hypochromic

62
Q

What amount of protein in urine is considered pathologic?

A

a minute amount

63
Q

which is shorter: the half life of flumenazil or valium?

A

flumenazil

64
Q

If after venipuncture w/ continuous IV, if the IV will not run, what may the problem be?

A

The IV may have infiltrated

65
Q

What can intra-arterial injection of valium cause?

A

spasm of the artery and loss of circulation to the extremity

66
Q

can ultra-short acting barbiturates be safely used on outpatients that are ASA I or II?

A

YES

67
Q

T/F: monitoring should include periodic assessment of vital signs

A

TRUE

68
Q

Which technique is indicated for a lengthy procedure?

A

Jorgensen technique

69
Q

What does the decision to redose a patient depend on?

A

the length of the procedure

70
Q

Are PS I and PS II patients usually safe risks for outpatient care without consultation?

A

Yes (although ideally, all patients should have a consult)

OS 600 (3 decks)

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