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BOARDS: exam 3 questions > exam 3 > Flashcards

exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: A submax GXT can be administered before hospital discharge for a post-acute MI.

A

true, as long as it’s 4-6 days post MI and doesn’t go above 70% instensity

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2
Q

At what times are APGAR tests taken?

A

1, 5, 10 minutes

  • scored 2 points for each section (5 sections)
  • HR. respiration, muscle tone, reflex irritability, color
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3
Q

What trunk motion will stress a pars defect and should be avoided?

A

extension and rotation

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4
Q

What compensations might you see from a forefoot varus when it hits the ground?

A

PF’ed first ray
pronation
excessive tibia/hip/pelvic IR

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5
Q

What exudate would be expected through use of panafil for a wound?

A

green/yellow exudate is expected

- foul smell is NOT to be expected

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6
Q

What is the most common cause of falls in the elderly?

A

turning around and sitting into a chair

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7
Q

What is a typical early clinical manifestation of CF?

A

excessive appetite and weight loss

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8
Q

What exocrine glands does CF affect?

A

glands of the hepatic, digestive, and respiratory systems
- hence the appetite/weight loss early clinical symptoms

NOT REALLY AN ENDOCRINE DISEASE

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9
Q

T/F: For patients with CF, it’s typical to see both obstructive and restrictive disease components.

A

true

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10
Q

What would indicate an integrated ATNR reflex?

A

turning the head to the side and able to bring that hand to mouth on that side
- ATRN: extended arm on face side

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11
Q

What does a hypertrophic scar look like as compared to an atrophic scar?

A 
hypertrophic = thick and pink
atrophic = thin and white
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12
Q

What type of TENS provides rapid-onset, short term pain relief during painful procedures?

A

brief intense TENS

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13
Q

What does modulated TENS do?

A

prevents accomodation, does not provide relief of pain

- aka not really a setting

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14
Q

T/F: Conventional TENS is high-rate.

A

true

- not as high of intensity as brief intense tens, and it has a longer application

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15
Q

If a patient has poor posture, what should you first look to correct?

A

see if they have a stable base: fix the pelvis first, as that often corrects a lot

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16
Q

Working at 60-90% of max HR is equivalent to working at what percentage of VO2 max?

A

50-85% VO2max

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17
Q

If your patient experiences chest pain during acute cardiac rehab, what do you do?

A

angina during exercise is an indication to rest

- should improve following rest; closely monitor

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18
Q

What symptoms do patients with scleroderma incur?

A

symmetrical skin thickening and visceral involvement of GI tract, lungs, heart, and kidneys
- hypersensitivity to touch also

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19
Q

T/F: Multivitamins and calcium can increase fall risk.

A

half false

- not multivitamins, but calcium can increase fall risk

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20
Q

T/F: thyroid meds commonly cause falls in the elderly.

A

false

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21
Q

What neural tension testing position biases the tibial nerve?

A

SLR with dorsiflexion and eversion

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22
Q

What neural tension testing position biases the sural nerve?

A

SLR with DF and inversion

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23
Q

What neural tension testing position biases the fibular nerve?

A

SLR with PF and inversion

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24
Q

T/F: Muscle wasting is a common manifestation of COPD.

A

true

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25
Q

At what stage of COPD is it common to see patients with supplemental oxygen?

A

stage IV

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26
Q

T/F: Weight loss is common in patients with progressing COPD.

A

true

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27
Q

T/F: Patients with stage 3 COPD will demonstrate a decreased subcostal angle.

A

false: air trapped in so will have increased angle

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28
Q

Is the knee extended an a modified Ober or typical Ober test?

A

modified = knee extended

- to slack rectus femoris

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29
Q

What are wet to dry dressings used for?

A

to remove necrotic tissue

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30
Q

When is calcium alginate used for a dressing?

A

in the presence of heavy exudate

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31
Q

What does hydrogel do for a wound?

A

nonadherent
keeps wound moist
protects granulation buds

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32
Q

At what pressure level is considered low for wound irrigation?

A

under 15 psi

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33
Q

What is spondylosis?

A

pain d/t degeneration of the discs

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34
Q

T/F: Opioids may produce pulmonary hypertension.

A

false, produce orthostatic hypotension

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35
Q

What medication can cause Raynaud’s symptoms to occur?

A

aspirin

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36
Q

What is GBS?

A

inflammation and demyelination of the motor and sensory fibers of PNS
- so will have sensation issues, but often early on motor is the bigger problem

37
Q

T/F: Post polio syndrome is a LMN disease with no sensory paresthesias.

A

true

- no sensory paresthesias, typically asymmetrical

38
Q

T/F: MS in an LMN disease.

A

false: UMN with spasticity, hyperreflexia

39
Q

Why is the valsalva maneuver bad for pts with cardiac disease?

A

when the breath holding is released, blood rushes to the heart and this can overload the cardiac system

40
Q

What physiological responses occur with the valsalva maneuver?

A

slows pulse
decreased return of blood to heart
increased venous/intrathoracic pressure

DOES NOT affect heart rate

41
Q

What is the rubor of dependency test and what does it identify?

A

rubor of dependency = for arterial insufficiency

  • pallor when LE is elevated
  • hyperemia when leg is dependent and hanging
42
Q

What score on the functional reach test indicates a fall risk?

A

<10in

43
Q

What is the tinetti scored out of? What indicates fall risk

A

out of 28 points

  • <19 indicates high risk of falls
  • 19-24 = moderate risk for falls
44
Q

What times on a TUG test indicate fall risk?

A

<20s indicates low fall risk (yay, good)

> 30s indicates increased risk

45
Q

What is Murphy’s sign?

A

pain with percussion over costovertebral RUQ

- for acute cholecystitis

46
Q

Where would appendix pain occur?

A

RLQ

- from rebound

47
Q

What does peritoneal inflammation present like?

A

abdominal pain with coughing and light percussion; also rebound tenderness

48
Q

What is acute cholecystitis?

A

acute gallbladder inflammation

49
Q

How do you differentiate a grade II from grade III sprain?

A

grade III is so torn that there’s no pain

50
Q

When filling out an incident report, what pieces are necessary to include?

A

when/where/what occured
witnesses
names of those involved

51
Q

What type of wrap (short stretch or long stretch) are used for initial lymphedema management?

A

short stretch: have high working pressure but low resting pressure
- opposite of ace wrap, which is the long stretch

52
Q

If a patient has facial involvement in a stroke, what is save to assume about the location of the stroke?

A

it is above the brainstem

- recall that brainstem is midbrain, pons, medulla

53
Q

What is allodynia?

A

perception of an ordinarily painless stimulus as painful

54
Q

What are the 5 things that would make you terminate an exercise session for a patient in cardiac rehab?

A

1) onset of angina or other indications of exertional intolerance
2) systolic >240, diastolic >110
3) >1mm ST segment depression, horizontal or downsloping
4) increased frequency of ventricular arrhythmias
5) 2nd or 3rd degree AV block

55
Q

What should your frequency and duration prescription be for patients beginning a walking program for claudication?

A

2-3x/day, 3-5days/wk

56
Q

What does a stage-2 pressure ulcer look like?

A

intact or ruptured serum-filled blister

57
Q

If fascia, muscle, tendons, or ligaments are seen in a pressure ulcer, what stage is it?

A

stage IV

58
Q

What does a stage 3 pressure ulcer look like?

A

granulation tissue present, as well as adipose

- slough or eschar may be present

59
Q

What does a stage 1 pressure ulcer look like?

A

unblanchable redness

60
Q

T/F: Stage II pressure ulcer involves partial-thickness skin loss.

A

true

61
Q

What is a closing restriction in the spine?

A

lack of extension of one vertebrae on the other

- provide central PA force at inferior vertebrae, stabilize superiorly

62
Q

What is vestibular neuritis?

A

inflammation of vestibular nerve caused by a virus

- symptoms of dysequilibrium, nystagmus, nausea, severe vertigo

63
Q

What is meniere’s disease?

A

felling of fullness in the ears associated with abnormal fluid buildup
- tinnitus, vertigo, nausea, hearing loss are common symptoms

64
Q

What lab value might be high with polycythemia vera?

A

hematocrit
- this is when there’s proliferation of all bone marrow cells with in increase in number of RBCs and hemoglobin concentration

65
Q

What types of exercises should patients with osteoporosis avoid?

A

flexion/rotation, as that can result in compression fracture

66
Q

What are the two options of current for wound healing?

A

1) high volt pulsed current

2) low-intensity continuous low volt direct current

67
Q

When would you use the prone position for lumbar traction?

A

for herniated disc

68
Q

When would you use the hook lying position for lumbar traction?

A

for separation of the facets, elongating muscles, open up the intervertebral foramen

69
Q

What are the positions of synergy for a stroke, both flexion and extension patterns? (UE)

A

flexion: shoulder abducted, elbow flexed, forearm supinated
extension: shoulder adducted and IR, elbow extended, forearm pronated

70
Q

What CN is responsible for constriction of the pupils?

A

III

71
Q

What are signs that you should absolutely stop a GXT on a patient? (7)

A
  • drop in systolic <10mmHg with increasing workload
  • reaching levels of BP over 260/115
  • CNS signs (ataxia, vertigo, visual/gait problems, confusion)
  • serious arrhythmias
  • moderate to severe angina (some is expected but not to this level)
  • signs of exertional tolerance (clammy, severe SOB)
  • ST segment depression/elevation >2mm
72
Q

T/F: Calcium alginate dressings do NOT allow rapid evaporation.

A

true

73
Q

What dressing provides semirigid support for the limb while maintaining a sterile field?

A

unna boot

74
Q

What kind of environment should be avoided for patients on antipsychotic/depressant meds?

A

hot environment

75
Q

What is the capular pattern for TMJ?

A

limitation on opening, lateral devation greater to the uninvolved side, and deviation on opening to the involved side

76
Q

If the L lateral pterygoid was weak, what direction would deviation be with mouth protrusion?

A

deviation to the R

  • remember that lateral pterygoids assist with mouth opening (the only one of those muscles)
  • so it’ll deviate to the opposite side of weakness
77
Q

What does a capsular pattern of the c-spine look like?

A

side bend and rotation equally limited

78
Q

What are the hallmark findings of Horner’s syndrome? (3)

A

ptosis
miosis (pupillary constriction)
anhydrosis (lack of sweating)

**all on same side of face and ipsilateral to lesion

79
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

a auto immune disorder of the NM junction in which muscle weakness results, especially with repeated contractions
- ptosis is common

80
Q

What is a pneumothorax?

A

air getting into the pleural cavity and putting pressure on the lung, often resulting in lung collapse

81
Q

What is nonfluent aphasia?

A

Broca’s motor or expressive aphasia

  • slow hesitant speech with limited vocab/articulation
  • think of Danny
82
Q

Compare symptoms of L vs R ventricular heart failure.

A

Left heart failure

  • S3 heart gallop
  • dyspnea with mild activities
  • persistent spasmotic cough
  • paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, orthopnea
  • signs/symptoms of pulmonary edema (marked dyspnea, pallor, cyanosis, diaphoresis, tachy, anxiety, agitation)

R heart failure

  • dependent ankle edema, weight gain
  • fatigue, RUQ pain, anorexia, nausea
  • cyanosis of nail beds
  • decreased urin output
83
Q

What are signs of pulmonary edema?

A

**excess fluid in lungs, caused by L heart failure (back up into pulmonary veins)… results in:

marked dyspnea
pallor, cyanosis
diaphoresis
tachypnea
anxiety, agitation
84
Q

What are potential long term effects of corticosteroids?

A

atrophy, osteoporosis, joint pain, fractures

85
Q

How quickly will a partial-thickness wound heal if it doesn’t get infected?

A

3-5 wks

86
Q

T/F: Partial thickness wounds are without sensation d/t nerve endings getting fried.

A

false, full thickness are without sensation

87
Q

T/F: Risk of keloid and hypertrophic scars is high with deep partial thickness and full thickness burns.

A

true

88
Q

With a posterolateral incision for a hip replacement, what motions are contraindicated?

A

hip flexion past 90
IR
add

89
Q

What is prosopagnosia?

A

inability to recall faces

BOARDS: exam 3 questions (2 decks)

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