Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is ATP used for?

A
  1. Each ratcheting action of each HMM head
  2. Re-polarization of the sacrolemma (and T tubules)
  3. Energy for the calcium pump (to pull Ca back into the lateral sacs)
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2
Q

How much energy of muscle is actually used for contraction

A

1/4

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3
Q

What is other 3/4 of energy of muscle used for

A

Generate heat

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4
Q

What is first used if ATP is not freely available for muscle contraction

A

Creatine P

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5
Q

Why is Creatine Phosphate so important

A

Donates phosphorous to make ATP

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6
Q

What is creatine an indicator for?

A

Heart attack and muscle contraction

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7
Q

What is the second process used if ATP is not freely available and if creatine was exhausted

A

Use Kreb Cycle

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8
Q

is kreb cycle anaerobic or aerobic

A

aerobic

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9
Q

Kreb cycle uses what to make ATP

A

oxygen

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10
Q

What is the third process used if ATP is not freely available and if creatine was exhausted and if the kreb cycle was exhausted

A

Use glycolysis

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11
Q

Is glycolysis anaerobic or aerobic

A

anaerobic

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12
Q

Glycolysis creates ATP, but what does it also create

A

lactic acid

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13
Q

Is lactic acid good for the muscles

A

No

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14
Q

is lactic acid basic or acidic

A

acidic

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15
Q

What happens when you die (hint: muscles still)

A

rigor mortis

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16
Q

Why can’t your muscles contract during rigor mortis

A

Lateral sac can’t contain Ca so contractions begin until it uses all ATP once gone, cross bridging is locked into place

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17
Q

This is excessive damage to skeletal muscle

A

Rhabodomyolsis

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18
Q

What football team in 2011 got Rhabodomyolsis from an overachiever weight trainer

A

Iowa State

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19
Q

The Iowa State football team had ___X amounts of kinase, which is bad for your what

A

5, kidneys

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20
Q

Do myofibrils orient with each other

A

yes

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21
Q

Name one muscle damage with myofibrils

A

Sometimes myofibrils do not line up and have wrong arrangement

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22
Q

What is unique about the muscle fixing self

A

While fixing self, muscle is still working and contracting

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23
Q

Is smooth muscle striated or unstriated

A

nonstriated

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24
Q

Smooth muscle lacks what

A

myofibrils and sacromeres

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25
Q

In smooth muscle what is similar to the Z line in skeletal muscle

A

Dense bodies

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26
Q

the dense body attaches to what in smooth muscle cells

A

outer membranes

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27
Q

Thin filaments in Smooth muscle anchor to what

A

thin filaments

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28
Q

Are smooth muscles involuntary

A

yes

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29
Q

Do smooth muscles have T-tubules

A

no

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30
Q

Smooth muscle has a loose network of _______ compared to skeletal muscle

A

sacroplasmic reticulum

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31
Q

Why is smooth muscle the slowest muscle

A

Ca is extracellular instead of intracellular

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32
Q

In smooth muscle thick filament is scattered with more what

A

cross bridges

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33
Q

in smooth muscle actin: myosin =

compared to skeletal’s 2:1

A

10:1

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34
Q

In smooth muscle cells adjacent cells are bound where

A

dense bodies

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35
Q

In smooth muscle do they have many gap junctions between cells

A

yes

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36
Q

Do smooth muscle cells touch each other

A

yes

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37
Q

What is not present in SM (use different Ca binding system than skeltal)

A

troponin

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38
Q

Cardiac muscle has what compared to skeletal muscle

A

T tubules

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39
Q

CM has _____ but it is not as large as skeletal muscle

A

sacroplasmic reticulum

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40
Q

Belly button in utero goes where

A

liver

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41
Q

is your belly button functional after birth

A

no

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42
Q

What allows AP to pass in cardiac muscle

A

intercalated discs

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43
Q

What does cardiac muscle have many of

A

mitochondria

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44
Q

Mitochondria make up what percent of a cardiac cell

A

25-30

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45
Q

the mitochondria in heart muscle cells is what

A

unique

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46
Q

what is cardolite

A

lights up mitochondria in cardiac cell

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47
Q

what doubles cardiovascular mortality

A

for each 20/10 mmHg increase in BP

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48
Q

If BP increases the heart needs to work more which as a result does what

A

enlarges the heart

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49
Q

Do valves increase in size as the heart increases in size

A

no

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50
Q

What happens if valves do not increase in size

A

Get a gap in valves and will regurgitate. Blood tends to clot and block capillary beds

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51
Q

Define atrophy

A

muscles will diminish and bone density decreases

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52
Q

1/3 of skeletal system is made up of what

A

osteoid part

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53
Q

2/3 of skeletal system is made up of what

A

minerals

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54
Q

The skeletal system is made up of what

A

mass

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55
Q

Extracellular matrix sticking out of cells is the what

A

osteoid part of bone

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56
Q

What two molecules precipitate on the matrix and make up mineral part of bone

A

Calcium and phosphorous

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57
Q

Lateral part of skeletal system =

A

appendicular

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58
Q

Medial part of skeletal system=

A

axial skeletal

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59
Q

Name all the different names of vertebraes in spine

A

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal,

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60
Q

Birds have smaller total of what compared to mammals

A

bones

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61
Q

The eye socket in birds is called what

A

orbital

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62
Q

Orbitals are so large that they almost what

A

touch each other

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63
Q

What bone forms the beaks in birds

A

upper and lower jaw

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64
Q

How many cervical vertebraes do birds have

A

13-25

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65
Q

Why do birds have so many cervical vertebraes

A

need more flexible neck

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66
Q

this secretes lots of oil and is used to oil up feather

A

uropygial gland

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67
Q

This is the fusion of thoracic vertebrae

A

notarium

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68
Q

What do birds and dinosaurs have in common

A

both have notarium

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69
Q

what is a pectoral girdle in birds

A

furcula/wish bone, coracoid, and scapula fuse together

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70
Q

What does the criss crossing of ribs and the keeled sternum do to benefit the bird

A

aids in muscle attachment to breast bone

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71
Q

What is a result of the criss crossing of ribs and the keeled sternum

A

lungs do not expand and chest cavity doesn’t move as much

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72
Q

birds do not have a consistency of what

A

phalaynx and digits

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73
Q

What do birds have an open pelvis

A

ovipostion

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74
Q

The pelvis of a bird is not attached where

A

ventrally

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75
Q

What hormone relaxes the pelvis and makes pelvis open up in mammals

A

relaxin

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76
Q

Birds have what in their bones

A

air spaces (sinuses)

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77
Q

Marine birds have what type of bones

A

buoyant

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78
Q

Name the function of bones in mammals

A
  1. Support
  2. Protection
  3. Movement
  4. Mineral reservoir
  5. Hemopoiesis
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79
Q

Females when pregnant and don’t consume enough Ca get Ca from where

A

Ca reservoir in bones

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80
Q

70% of total minerals in the body are what

A

Calcium and phosphorous

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81
Q

99% of Ca and 80% of P in body are present where

A

bones and teeth

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82
Q

What age group of animals are most efficient with Ca reservoir

A

young animals

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83
Q

___ % of Ca will be removed from Ca reservoir in older animals, ____ % in younger animals

A

18, 100

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84
Q

This is making of RBS inside the bone

A

hemopoiesis

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85
Q

What are the 2 methods to describe bone

A

morphology/ shape or compact/ cancellous

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86
Q

Cancellous bone =

A

medullary, spongy

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87
Q

what type of bone compact or cancellous has trabecula

A

cancellous

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88
Q

With age of animal they lose what

A

trabecula

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89
Q

What is in between trabecula and what is made there

A

fatty tissue, makes RBC

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90
Q

this when a needle punctures medullary cavity in cancellous bone

A

intraosseous infusion

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91
Q

Compact bones have a line in it called what

A

conversion

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92
Q

circles in compact bone are called waht

A

osteon

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93
Q

osteons are a solid what

A

tube

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94
Q

the compact bone wall is made up of what

A

osteons

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95
Q

blood vessels run up and down in compact bone in what

A

haversian central canal

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96
Q

conversion canal =

A

central canal

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97
Q

each ring in compact bone is called what

A

lamellae

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98
Q

In the lamina of compact bone it has small spaces called what

A

lacunae

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99
Q

osteocyte sits inside what and needs capillaries

A

lacunae

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100
Q

a small ___, capillaries/ interstitial fluid extend to the lacuae

A

candicule

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101
Q

connective tissue on the outside of bone =

A

periosteum

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102
Q

connective tissue on the inside of the bone=

A

endosteum

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103
Q

Periosteum does not cover what

A

where the bones articulate

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104
Q

Bones grow how?

A

in length and diameter

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105
Q

When bones grow in diameter they grow where

A

shaft

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106
Q

What bone cell is found in both the periosteum and endosteum

A

osteoblast

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107
Q

osteoblast in periosteum makes what

A

new bone

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108
Q

the osteoblast in endosteum do what

A

stay dormant until fracture

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109
Q

As bone grow it captures osteoblast and then becomes what

A

osteocyte

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110
Q

Osteocytes are found where

A

in lacunae

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111
Q

this bone cell sits under the endosteum

A

osteoclast

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112
Q

what is the function of osteoclast

A

digest bone (break down bone)

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113
Q

Osteoclasts are what type of cell

A

multinuclear

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114
Q

Ostoclasts are a fusion of what

A

fused macrophages

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115
Q

Osteoclasts tend to be classified as what

A

immune cells

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116
Q

Osteocytes sit in where and what surrounds it

A

lacunae, extracellular fluid

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117
Q

what protein sticks out of bone cells

A

glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)

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118
Q

GAGs is a protein with a lot of what

A

sugar

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119
Q

GAGs extends through what

A

extracellular fluid and hardness of bone

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120
Q

Ca and P _____ on matrix and make up mineral part of bone

A

precipitate

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121
Q

Extracellular matrix sticking out of cells makes what part of bone

A

osteoid part

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122
Q

Name of rounded end of long bone

A

epiphysis

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123
Q

Metaphysis is what

A

flare ends of shaft

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124
Q

The shaft in a long bone is called what

A

diaphysis

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125
Q

this is the joint end of a long bone

A

articular

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126
Q

Growth of long bone is out of what

A

growth plate

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127
Q

the growth plate in long bones is known as what

A

epiphyseal plate

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128
Q

What cells are found in cartilage

A

chondrocytes

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129
Q

What is the function of chondrocytes

A

produce and maintain cartilangineous matrix

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130
Q

cartilangineous matrix consists of what

A

collagen and proteoglycans

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131
Q

Name an example of a long bone

A

femur

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132
Q

what are the functions of long bones

A

motion and movement

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133
Q

Short bones are _____ in shape

A

cuboidal

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134
Q

an example of a short bone is what

A

carpus

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135
Q

functions of short bones

A

cushion complex joints

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136
Q

flat bones are what in dimension

A

2-D

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137
Q

an example of a flat bone is

A

parietal bone

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138
Q

functions of a flat bone

A

protection and hemopoiesis

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139
Q

name of cancellous bone in short bones is what

A

diploe

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140
Q

What will you find in short bones

A

red bone marrow

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141
Q

Seasmoid bones are ___ in shape

A

seasmed seed shaped

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142
Q

and example of a seasmoid bone is

A

patella

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143
Q

functions of a seasmoid bone are

A

change or alter ligaments

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144
Q

these bones have air spaces

A

pneumatic bones

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145
Q

an example of a pneumatic bone is

A

frontal bone

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146
Q

function of pneumatic bone is

A

phonation and keeps skull light

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147
Q

sinuses in skull extend to what

A

pneumatic bones

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148
Q

an example of irregular bones

A

vertebrae

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149
Q

function of irregular bones

A

muscle attachment and protection

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150
Q

what hormone increases Ca in blood and increases bone break down

A

PTH (parathyroid hormone)

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151
Q

PTH uses what 2 bone cells

A

osteocytes and osteoclast

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152
Q

what hormone decreases Ca in blood so among other things it increases bone formation

A

calcitonin

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153
Q

calcitonin uses what 2 bone cells

A

osteocytes and osteoblasts

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154
Q

Name four hormones that form bones

A

growth hormone
calcitonin
androgens
insulin

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155
Q

Bone formation uses what bone cell

A

osteoblasts

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156
Q

name four homens that have bone reabsorption

A

PTH
cortisol
T3/T4
prostaglandins

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157
Q

bone reabsorption uses what bone cell

A

osteoclasts

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158
Q

too much of what hormone makes animals become huge and giant

A

growth hormone

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159
Q

What hormone maintains appropriate ratio between bone forming osteoblasts and bone reabsorbing osteoclasts

A

estrogen

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160
Q

how does estrogen keep ratio of osteoblasts and osteoclasts

A

through induction of osteoclast apoptosis

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161
Q

Women in menopause have an increase chance of what

A

risk of heart attack

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162
Q

What drugs were given to women to them during menopause (estrogen)

A

raloxifene and tamoxifene

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163
Q

why were the studies giving supplemental estrogen to women going through menopause stopped

A

began to form cancer

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164
Q

this is the decrease in bone mass/ microarchitecture

A

osteoporosis

165
Q

this is the decrease in bone mass in children (Rickets)and older people

A

osteomalacia

166
Q

osteomalacia is caused by what

A

vitamin D deficiency

167
Q

this type of ossification of bone is intracartilogenous

A

endochondral

168
Q

an example of endochondral ossification is what

A

growth plate

169
Q

This type of ossification is under the peristeum (no cartilage)

A

intramembraneous

170
Q

Examples of intramembraneous ossification

A

flat bones, active osteoblasts

171
Q

This type of ossification is outside of the skeleton

A

heteroplastic

172
Q

name some examples of heteroplastic ossification

A
  1. gall or kidney stones
  2. Os penis
  3. Os cordis
173
Q

What animals have an Os penis

A

dogs, raccoon, bear, whale

174
Q

what animal has Os cordis and what is an Os cordis

A

cattle, hardened stomach

175
Q

simple fracture is what

A

skin intact

176
Q

open fracture is what

A

bone breaks through skin

177
Q

This a fracture on one side and bending on other side

A

green stick fracture

178
Q

this fracture is a break along the growth plate

179
Q

What is a comminuted break

A

break in mini pieces

180
Q

a fracture bleeds then what and then callus (calcified clot) and then what happens

A

clot, trimmed down callus

181
Q

What needs to happen to repair a fracture

A

apposition and immobilization

182
Q

what cell makes new bone and makes calcified clot

A

osteoblast

183
Q

this cell trims down the bone back to shape

A

osteoclast

184
Q

pharmacology is the study of what

185
Q

Define drug

A

Not normally found in body but when given will change an animals system or change something

186
Q

in older days ____ extracts were used as drugs

187
Q

an example of a plant extract drug is

188
Q

dropsy had what drug in it

189
Q

this is the effect of drug on the body

A

pharmodynamics

190
Q

this is the effect of the body on the drug

A

pharmcokinetics

191
Q

drugs entering the body

A

absorption

192
Q

drug delivery throughout the body

A

distribution

193
Q

this the biotransformation of drugs

A

metabolism

194
Q

this is the excretion of drugs

A

elimination

195
Q

this route of administration utilizes the GI tract

196
Q

anteral route examples are

A

oral, sublingual, and rectal

197
Q

This route of administration does not utilize the GI tract

198
Q

intrademeral injection goes where

A

just into skin

199
Q

this injection is just under the tissue/skin

A

Subcutaneous

200
Q

this injection is directly into vein (immediate absorption)

A

intravenous

201
Q

an epidural injection goes where

A

epidural space around the spinal cord

202
Q

an intrathecal injection goes where

A

around cerebrospinal fluid

203
Q

This new type of injection uses pressure to vaccinate by jet ejector

204
Q

Why do some people not use a pyrofast injection

A

Don’t know if pressure changes the drug

205
Q

list the rates of absorption

A

IV>IM>SC>Oral

206
Q

list the rates of drug duration

A

Oral>SC>IM>IV

207
Q

this is the time after injection when drug appears

208
Q

C-max is what

A

concentration of blood when it reaches peak

209
Q

duration of action is what on drug disposition curve

210
Q

what does the area under the curve on the drug disposition curve show

A

gives idea on how long drug is in blood

211
Q

What does MTC stand for

A

max tolerated concentration

212
Q

what does MEC stand for on the drug disposition curve

A

Minimum effective concentration

213
Q

what is one problem with extra label drug usuage

A

resistant of the drug

214
Q

absorption enters the what

215
Q

What system distributes the drug

A

circulatory system

216
Q

name the three types of capillaries

A
  • Continous
  • fenestrated
  • discontinous
217
Q

this is the most common type of capillary

218
Q

This capillary is found in the skin, lungs, muscle, CNS

219
Q

Pericytes and astrocytes form what

A

blood brain barrier

220
Q

what makes it hard for drugs to get into brain

A

blood brain barrier

221
Q

the astrocytes form what

A

additional layer on capillaries

222
Q

why is their a BBB

A

brain is the most important and needs protection

223
Q

this capillary is found in secretory glands, and kidneys

A

fenestrated

224
Q

this capillary has gaps in the endothelial cells

A

fenestrated

225
Q

in fenestrated capillaries drug only has to pass what

A

basement lamina

226
Q

hydrophilic drugs are what

A

water soluble

227
Q

water soluble drugs are injected in what

A

water carrier

228
Q

hyprophobic drugs are what

A

fat soluble

229
Q

fat soluble drugs are injected in what

A

oil carrier

230
Q

what organ is most likely to alter structure of drugs

231
Q

estradiol goes to liver then what

A

eliminated

232
Q

Estriadiol benzoate to liver then what

233
Q

this is easy to leave body because excretions are water based

A

hydrophilic

234
Q

this drug takes longer to the leave body because must pass through liver to become water soluble via conjugation

A

hydrophobic

235
Q

this is the time it takes for concentration of drug to decrease by 1/2

236
Q

in general ____ half life of a drug is considered eliminated

237
Q

FDA is well beyond the 10 half lives and then approval over what

A

dissection of injection site for residues

238
Q

how do we determine how much of a drug we give an animal

A

through animal/people trials to establish “dose response” curves

239
Q

the more potent a drug is the ____ you need of it

240
Q

sometimes the physiology of the animals causes the dose response to curve to what

241
Q

An example of the shift of the dose response curve due to change in animal’s physiology

242
Q

this is a dose that gives an equal response

A

equipotent dose

243
Q

what two drugs do producers use to drench sheep to kill internal parasites

A

levamisole and ivermectin

244
Q

this is the percentage of the population that dies after dosage

A

lethal dose

245
Q

What are the three main functions of the urinary system

A

excretory
regulatory
endocrine

246
Q

the excretory function of the urinary system excretes what

A

water
K and other ions
Urea
Medicines/some drugs

247
Q

the regulatory function of the urinary system regulates what

A

blood volume
electrolytes
(pH) acidosis

248
Q

the endocrine function of the urinary system does what

A

vitamin D

erythropoiesis

249
Q

Kidneys are what percent of the body weight

250
Q

where do the kidneys sit in the body

A

under the vertebral/ loin area

251
Q

are the left and right kidneys symmetrical

252
Q

blood vessels going in and out of kidneys

253
Q

in the hilus it has what three things

A

renal artery, renal vein, and ureter

254
Q

blood in kidneys have a lot of what due to what

A

pressure due to closeness of aorta

255
Q

this is the tough outer covering of the kidney

256
Q

this is the tubular part of nephron

257
Q

loop part of the nephron

258
Q

inner most part; fills with urine and flows into ureter

259
Q

kidney is made up of many what

260
Q

urine goes to the ureter then to ___ then it contracts and dillate and then urine goes to ___

A

bladder, urethra

261
Q

urination =

A

micturition

262
Q

this collects urine then flows into the pelvis

A

collecting duct

263
Q

the collecting ducts collects from many what

264
Q

what makes the medulla look striated

265
Q

bowmans capsule is called what

A

glomerulus capillary

266
Q

fluid is filtered and captured in what

A

bowmans capsule

267
Q

this is a capsule that surrounds the first capillary bed

A

bowman’s capsule

268
Q

the first capillary is

269
Q

the glomerus is fed by what artery and what artery comes out of the glomerus

A

afferent; efferent

270
Q

what artery is the portal vein connecting the 2 capillaries

A

efferent artery

271
Q

the bowman’s capsule has lots of what

A

filtration

272
Q

why is there a lot of filtration in bowman’s capsule

A

plasma is leaving glomerus

273
Q

where does plasma go when it leaves the glomerus

A

into spaces of Bowman’s capsule

274
Q

what is GFR

A

much filtration over time

275
Q

endothelia line what

A

lines blood vessels

276
Q

epithelia cells line what

A

interface with inside and outside environments

277
Q

Bowman’s capsule has what two layers

A

parietal and visceral

278
Q

glomerulus is what kind of capillary

A

fenestrated capillary

279
Q

podocytes line what layer of the bowman’s capusle

280
Q

what are the finger projections on the podocytes called

281
Q

the pedicels wrap around what

282
Q

the gaps in the endothelial layer is similar to what capillary

A

fenestrated capillary

283
Q

What causes the bowman’s capsule to be one basement lamina

A

the tightness

284
Q

this is the space between pedicels

A

filtration slit

285
Q

what is only between the blood and urine

A

basal lamina

286
Q

what passes through the basal lamina in kidneys is dependent on what

A

size of molecules

287
Q

what can’t pass through kidney’s basal lamina

288
Q

what can filter through the basal lamina easily

289
Q

how much urine is produced in one day

290
Q

what causes kidney failure

A

destruction of epithelium

291
Q

what capillary sits next to the proximal tubule capillary

A

peritubular capillary

292
Q

PTC sits in what part of the kidney

293
Q

why does the PTC sit in the cortex of the kidney

A

cortex has many capillaries

294
Q

Are some molecules secreted in the PTC

295
Q

the molecules being secreted come from the blood into what

296
Q

what is an example of a molecule being secreted

297
Q

what type of cell lines the PCT

298
Q

are the epithelia cells of PCT polarized

299
Q

basal part of the PCT is near what

A

basal lamina

300
Q

PCT uses what to secrete things into the urine

301
Q

this part of the PCT has lots of surface area

302
Q

active transport of toxins directly into urine form what to the PTC

A

peritubular capillary

303
Q

what percent of water leaves the PTC and back into the blood

304
Q

what molecules go back into the blood in the PTC

A

sugar
amino acids
chlorine
bicarbonate

305
Q

what are the functions of PCT

A

active transport of toxins and foreign substances

306
Q

name the two characteristics of renal blood flow

A
  1. High blood flow. 120 mL/ min or 21 % of cardiac output. 94% of cortex
  2. Two capillary beds. High hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillary (60 mmHg) and low hydrostatci pressure in peritubular capillaries (13-10 mmHg)
307
Q

descending portion of the loop of henule is what

A

thin walled

308
Q

the ascending portion of the loop of henule is what

A

first thin walled and then thick walled

309
Q

loop of henule is immpermeable to what

310
Q

why is the medulla salty

A

Counter current and not many capillaries

311
Q

the function of the distal tubule is similar to what portion of the loop of henule

A

ascending (thick)

312
Q

how does the body’s blood volume decrease

A

through urine

313
Q

this sits close to the glomerus

A

jurtaglomerular appartus

314
Q

JGA is made up what two types of cells

A

macula densa cells and JG cells

315
Q

JG cells are around what

A

afferent and efferent arteries

316
Q

macula dense cells monitor what

A

kidney isn’t filtering enough blood and if osmolarity of blood is correct

317
Q

Name the four things that macula cells monitor

A
  1. Low Glomercular filtration rate (GFR)
  2. Low BP in afferent artery
  3. When concentration of Na gets too low is afferent artery (blood)
  4. Low osmolarity of fluid going thru distal tubule
318
Q

Macula dense stimulate what

319
Q

Rennin is released into blood by what

320
Q

Angiotensinogen is found always in what and is made where

A

blood and liver

321
Q

Cleaves by renin to what

A

angiotensinal

322
Q

where is angiotensin converting enzyme/ACE

323
Q

ACE cleaves angiotensin I to what

A

angiotensin II

324
Q

angiotensin II is a what

A

vasoconstricter

325
Q

aldosterone is called what

A

mineral corticoid

326
Q

this is the steroid hormone from adrenal cortex

A

aldosterone

327
Q

what responds to angio II and produces aldosterone

A

Zona glomerulosa

328
Q

RAAS stands for what

A

renin angiotensin aldosterone system

329
Q

aldosterone works in what parts of a nephron

A

distal tubule and collecting duct

330
Q

what is the major target of aldosterone

A

distal tubule

331
Q

Na loss in urine decreases when

A

aldosterone is in stimulation

332
Q

when aldosterone increases what also increases

A

blood volume

333
Q

what causes a log of constriction in the efferent artery

A

angiotension II

334
Q

why are aldosterone levels high in cattle

A

since they need more Na

335
Q

why is an ACE inhibitor given when someone has a heart attack

A

once BP is lower kidneys work to increase blood pressure which is the opposite of what we want to happen

336
Q

What is between the left and right pituitary gland

337
Q

what is the structure of aldosterone

338
Q

where is the aldosterone made

339
Q

what is the function of aldosterone

A

turns on Na pump and sodium and water retention. Also works on DCT

340
Q

where are the receptors of Aldosterone found

341
Q

what controls aldosterone

A

angiogentension II

342
Q

ADH is what

A

nanopeptide

343
Q

the post pitutiary is called what

A

neurohyophysis

344
Q

the axons of the hypothalamus stop where in the post pit

345
Q

where is the hormone made in the nerve that extends to the pit

346
Q

what is released from the axon in the post pit

347
Q

whats causes the hormones in the post pit

A

neurons synapsing with other neurons

348
Q

what are the 2 hormones released in the post pit

A
  1. oxytocin

2. ADH

349
Q

what is the purpose of oxytocin

A

to let milk down

350
Q

this hormone causes both male and female repro tracts to contract

351
Q

ADH=

A

vasopressin

352
Q

anterior pit is called what

A

adenohypophysis

353
Q

what is the rathke’s pouch

A

outgrowth from roof of mouth

354
Q

the portal system is between what

A

hypothalamus and anterior pit

355
Q

Factors are released into what first and then it travels where

A

1st cap and then travels to 2nd cap

356
Q

The 2nd cap in portal system triggers the anterior pit to produce what

357
Q

those hormones released from the 2nd cap are then receipted where and creates what

A

endocrine cell and a new hormone that will travel around body

358
Q

why is there a portal system

A

higher concentration

359
Q

the growth hormone releasing hormone is made where

A

the soma of neuron

360
Q

the endocrine cell in anterior pit has receptors for what

361
Q

the endocrine cells that have receptors for GHRH are called what

A

somatotroph

362
Q

what does the GH act directly on

A

fat; decreases fat in body

363
Q

once GHRH is received to the endocrine cell what is then released

A

growth hormone

364
Q

GH acts on the what

365
Q

the liver once acted on by GH releases what

A

IGF 1: Insulin like Growth factor 1

366
Q

IGF 1 acts directly on what

A

muscle and bone: makes them grow

367
Q

the growth hormone=

A

somatotropin

368
Q

IGF 1=

A

somatomedin

369
Q

hGH is what

A

human growth hormone

370
Q

rhGH is what

A

recomb. human GH

371
Q

the growth hormone is what structure

A

polypeptide

372
Q

CH has how many aa

373
Q

GHRH has how many aa

374
Q

IGF 1 has how many aa

375
Q

Newborn animals have roughly 60% of hormones coming out of the anterior pit is what

A

Growth hormone

376
Q

there are 5 types of endocrine cells in the anterior pit with how many hormones

377
Q

this sits lows in the neck and wraps slightly around the trachea

378
Q

follicles in they thyroid are filled with what

379
Q

what surrounds the follicles

A

epithelial cells

380
Q

Does the thryoid easily enlarge

381
Q

what happens if the thyroid is less active

382
Q

does the thyroid have lobes

383
Q

what are additional endocrine glands in the thyroid

A

parathyroid glands

384
Q

what is the connection between left and right lobes in the thyroid

385
Q

follicles are filled with what

386
Q

what is the protein in the colloid fluid

A

thyroglobin

387
Q

what makes up the wall of follicles/thyroid

A

thyrocytes

388
Q

thryroglobin always has what sticking out

389
Q

what takes in iodine

A

thyrocytes

390
Q

What is concentrated and locialized in the thyroid

391
Q

this stores MIT, DIT, and when epithelia lining follicles get stimulated

A

thyroglobin

392
Q

TSH stands for what

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone

393
Q

this endocrine cell has TRH receptors and then releases TSH

A

thyrotroph

394
Q

Thyroxine is what

395
Q

The thyroid releases what

396
Q

TRH to TSH to T3/T4 is called what

A

hypothalamo pituitary thyroid axis

397
Q

What is negative feedback

A

when body has enough T3/T4 in blood and tells neurons in hypothalamus

398
Q

this is what the body makes

A

endogenous

399
Q

this comes from outside source/ body

400
Q

what does thyroxine do

A

metabolic hormone

401
Q

Name the functions of thyroxine

A
  1. Increases basal metabolic rate
  2. Increases heat production by cells
  3. Increases glucose uptake and utilization
  4. Increases protein synthesis
  5. Increases cholesterol synthesis
402
Q

have of the energy used for maintenance comes from what

403
Q

why does thyroxine have a long half life

404
Q

this is when one is very active, nervous, irritable

A

hyperthyroidism

405
Q

what is the condition of bulging eyes

A

eropthalamic

406
Q

graves disease is what kind of disorder

A

immune disorder

407
Q

name the symptoms of hypothyroidism

A

sleep for 14-16 hours/day
sluggish muscle activity
tend to overeat
myxedema

408
Q

What is hypothyroidism

A

low thyroid activity

409
Q

hypothyroidism is common in what species