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RUSVM bacteriology > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Mycobacterium have a longer mycolic acid chain than Nocardia?

A

True

Mycobacterium> Nocardia> Corynebacterium

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2
Q

Properties that are attributed to Mycolic Acid(4)

A

Acid fast staining,
drug, chemical, and environmental resistance
immunomodulating activities
prevents phagocytic killing

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3
Q

Mycobacterium are strictly opportunistic pathogens? T/F?

A

False; some are obligate pathogens

  • M. tuberculosis
  • M.avium subsp paratuberculosis
  • M. leprae
  • M.lepraemurium
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4
Q

What is the important cell protein antigen of Mycobacterium?

A

Tuberculin

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5
Q

Mammalian tuberculosis, avian tuberculosis, leprosy, johne’s disease are attributed to which bacteria?

A

Mycobacterium

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6
Q

Mycobacterium Bovis is responsible for which disease?

A

Zoonotic TB; more specifically bovine TB

indistinguishable from M. tuberculosis in humans

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7
Q

while cattle are the main reservoirs of M. bovis what are two other ones?

A

badger and possum

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8
Q

How is M. Bovis transmitted the most?

A

aerosol; followed by in milk and then at any site

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9
Q

enlarged lymph nodes, cachexia, chronic cough are clinical signs of what disease?

A

TB

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10
Q

What are lesions like in early stages? in late stages of TB?

A

abscess like; firm nodular lesions

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11
Q

M. Bovis bacilli are phagocytosed by macrophages and destroyed via humoral immunity reaction? T/F.

A

False, cell mediated response

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12
Q

If cell mediated response fails, then macrophages release cytotoxins and enzymes that can lead to caseous necrosis?

A

Yes.

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13
Q

Tb lesions can appear granulomatous and in severe cases may form cavities?

A

True.
center=epitheloid macrophages or caseous necrosis
surrounded by epithelia cell and multinuclear giant cell and lymphocytes

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14
Q

Diagnosis primarily via? what occurs if pops up positive?

A

PPD test; comparative cervical tuberculin skin test with double strength bovine + avium PPD.

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15
Q

Primary drugs to treat active tuberculosis?

A

isoniazid, rifamycins, ethambutol, pyrazinamide

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16
Q

M. tuberculosis caused what disease in what host

A

human Tb

but emerging zoonosis and anthropozoonosis

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17
Q

DO MYCOBACTERIUM HAVE A CELL MEMBRANE?

A

NOPE

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18
Q 
Which of the following is not an acid fast staining method?
Geimsa
kinyouns
zeihl-neelsen
auramine rhodamine
A

geimsa

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19
Q

Which of the mycobacterium is common cause of zoonotic TB?

A

M. Bovis

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20
Q

Can mycobacterium infections cause granulomatous inflammation?

A

True

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21
Q

T/F? Combination antimicrobial therapy is essential in the treatment of TB to kill multiple species of mycobacteria present in a lesion?

A

False, it is to make the treatment more effective and prevent resistance

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22
Q

Regarding virulence factors, what makes Mycobacterium ulcerans unique?

A

they use cytotoxin-mycolactone

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23
Q

Leprosy is caused by which bacteria?

A

Mycobacterium Leprae

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24
Q

What does M. Leprae cause in humans with infection?

A

anesthetic lesions, peripheral neuropathy, and nerve thickening

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25
Q

Paucibacillary:

A

tuberculoid leprosy that have few AFB

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26
Q

Multibacillary:

A

lepromatous leprosy- severe disease with many AFB and no cell mediated response

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27
Q

M. Leprae caused leprosy in humans, cats, dogs and mice?

A

False, only humans?

M. lepraemurium causes it in cats, mice and dogs

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28
Q

How dies M. lepraemurium present?

A

cutaneous granulomas

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29
Q

Johne’s disease caused by what bacteria?

A

Mycobacterium avium subsp paratuberculosis

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30
Q

Johne’s disease is characterized as what? in what hosts?

A

chronic, progressive granulomatous enteritis in cattle- diarrhea and weight loss

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31
Q

What diagnostic test is used to detect M. avian subsp paratuberculosis (johne’s disease) in herds of cattle that have had confirmed cases or high infection prevalence?

A

ELISA

however false negatives result in advanced stages due to anergy

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32
Q

Lepto is a mycobacterium? T/F?

A

False, spirochete

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33
Q

Leptospira pathogenic species are maintained where in the body?

A

renal tubules

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34
Q

How does lepto manifest in humans and companion animals?

A

Flu like symptoms. complications from renal, pulmonary, hepatic and CNS disease

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35
Q

How does lepto manifest in livestock

A

disease of production and reproduction

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36
Q

Maintenance host or incidental hosts?

Recovery with short term shedding in urine OR severe disease?

A

incidental host

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37
Q

Maintenance host or incidental host?

Bacteria infect privileged sites (kidney or repro) for long term shedding?

A

Maintenance hosts

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38
Q

What is diagnostic method for lepto is considered the gold standard?

A

Microscopic agglutination test- paired sera

a four-fold increase in MAT titers is indicative of active infection

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39
Q

what samples do you want to collect for MAT?

A

Serum

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40
Q

If you choose to do PCR or FA to try to diagnose Lepto which samples would you collect to use?

A

Blood and urine

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41
Q

T/F? MAT is predictive of protection or urinary shedding?

A

False

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42
Q

T/F? Vaccines for Lepto are not necessary to be serovar specific to effectively prevent disease?

A

False, protective antibodies are serovar specific

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43
Q

Leptospira ________ Serovar _______ is host adapted in cattle resulting in reproductive failure due to early embryonic death and repeat breeding

A

borgpetersennii serovar hardjo

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44
Q

T/F? Lepto in horses is associated with abortions and systemic illness in foals?

A

True

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45
Q

Swine dysentery is caused by which bacteria?

A

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

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46
Q

T/F? Swine dysentery causes disease in all pigs.

A

False, young growing pigs( 6-12 weeks)

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47
Q

What bacteria causes intestinal spirochetosis in animal and humans

A

Brachyspira pilosicoli

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48
Q

What virulence factors do brachyspira utilize to cause clinical signs?

A

cytotoxin, hemolysin and LPS

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49
Q

what is the pathogenesis that causes a piglet to die from B. hyodysenteriae?

A

Death from dehydration due to excess mucus production, edema and hemorrhage of the lamina propria of the large intestine.

Fibrinonecrotic pseudomembranous colitis

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50
Q

What disease does swine dysentery closely resemble?

A

salmonellosis

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51
Q

Treponema causes what diseases?

A

syphilis-treponema pallidum
Papillomatous digital dermatitis
rabbit syphilis= treponema paraluis cuniculi

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52
Q

How does treponema paroles cuniculi manifest?

A

perineal and facial lesions- epidermal hyperplasia with erosion, ulcers, infiltrates of plasma cells, heterophils and macrophages.

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53
Q

Borrelia bacteria is associated with what disease?

A

Lyme disease via ticks

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54
Q

what is essential for virulence of borrelia spirochetes in mammals?

A

up regulation of expression of outer surface lipoprotein

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55
Q

The vaccines against lyme disease contains the antibodies for Osp__, which are located where in the tick?

For the vaccine to be effective where do the antibodies need to be delivered to?

A

A, hindgut

to the tick

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56
Q

T/F? Chlamydiaceae are obligate intracellular bacteria?

A

True

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57
Q

What are the zoonotic species of chlamydophila?

A

C. abortus
C. felis
C. pneumoniae
C. psittaci

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58
Q

Which chlamydia is important cause of abortions in sheep and goats?

A

C. abortus

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59
Q

Which body of chlamydia is the metabolically active form?

A

reticulate body

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60
Q

How is C. felis transmitted?

A

ocular and nasal secretions

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61
Q

how is C. abortus transmitted?

A

reproductive part secretions, ingestion, aerosol, venereal

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62
Q

What animals does C. pneumoniae affect?

A

horses, dogs, koalas, rats, iguana and frogs

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63
Q

which chlamydias do reptiles and amphibians get?

A

C. abortus, C. felis, C. pneumoniae

lethargy, suppurative pneumonia, chronic nephritis, hepatitis, increased mortality rates

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64
Q

T/F? Diagnostics for chlamydia is species specific?

A

False

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65
Q

Psittacosis aka avian chlamydiosis is caused by what bacteria?

A

Clamydophila psittaci

66
Q

What is the infectious body for chlamydia ?

A

Elementary body

67
Q

Is psittacosis reportable?

A

YES

68
Q

Mollicutes refer to which bacteria?

A

Mycoplasma

69
Q

T/F? mollicutes (mycoplasma) stain very well because of their cell wall structure?

A

False. stain poorly bc they don’t have a cell wall

70
Q

“fried egg” morphology

A

mycoplasma

71
Q

non hemotrophic mollicutes cause:

A

respiratory and urogenital tract infections

72
Q

where is the reservoir of mollicutes?

A

mucosal surfaces of the host they infect,

but can be transmitted by direct contact

73
Q

Virulence factors of non hemotrophic mollicutes:

A

peroxide-to disrupt host cell integrity
urease-increase pH
proinflammatory molecules

74
Q

Mycoplasma are reportable in what animals?

A

sheep and goats, bovines, avian

75
Q

Mycoplasma gallisepticum:

A

chronic respiratory disease, sinusitis, decreased egg production,

76
Q

Mycoplasma synoviae

A

synovitis, sternal bursitis

77
Q

Mycoplasma meleagridis

A

airsacculitis, stunted growth in turkeys

78
Q

Mycoplasma mycoids ssp mycoides causes what disease in what animal?

A

contagious bovine pleuropneumonia in cattle

mastitis, pneumonia, bursitis, arthritis in adult sheep and goats; septicemia in kids

79
Q

Mycoplasma bovis causes what disease?

A

mastitis

80
Q

Mycoplasma capricolum subsp capripneumoniae causes what disease

A

contagious caprine pleuropneumonia

81
Q

Mycoplasma agalactiae and Mycoplasma putrefaciens causes what in sheep and goats?

A

contagious agalactia

82
Q

Porcine enzootic pneumonia is caused by:

A

M. hyopneumoniae

83
Q

M. hyohinis causes

A

polyserositis

84
Q

M. felis affects cats but also…..

A

horses causing pleuritis

85
Q

culture is better option for diagnosing mycoplasmas?

A

False, serological and molecular techniques more promising

86
Q

Hemotrophic mollicutes aka red blood cell parasites cause

A

hemolytic anemia in young, immunocompromised or stressed animals.

87
Q

hemotrophic mollicutes are transmitted via…

A

blood to blood contact or ectoparasites

88
Q

M. haemofelis causes what disease

A

feline infectious anemia

usually you see the bacteria around the periphery of the RBC

89
Q

clinical signs of hemotrophic mollicutes are:

A

icterus, splenomegaly, bone marrow hyperplasia

90
Q

T/F? Ricketsia is an obligate intracellular gran negative bacteria?

A

True

91
Q

Anaplasma live within cytoplasmic vacuoles of _______, _______ and ________.

A

myeloid cells, neutrophils, and erythrocytes

92
Q

which species does anaplasma marginale infect?

A

wild and domestic ruminants

93
Q

T/F? Even though anaplasma marginale is found in all continents, it is a reportable disease.

A

True

94
Q

T/F? Anaplasma marginale is transmitted via hard ticks, especially boophilus?

A

True

95
Q

Anaplasma phagocytophilum causes what in domesticated and wild ruminants

A

tick borne fever

96
Q

infection of neutrophils and eosinophils is a pathogenesis that is associated with…?

A

tick borne fever aka anaplasma phagocytophilum

97
Q

Infectious canine cyclic thrombocytopenia is associated with which bacteria?

A

Anaplasma platys

98
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii is the causative agent of what disease?

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever

99
Q

T/F? transovarial and transtadial transmission of rickettsia rickettsii in ticks exist?

A

True

100
Q

Clinical signs of rocky mountain spotted fever aka rickettsia rickettsii?

A

petechieae mucous membranes, tender lymph nodes, joints and muscles; severe necrosis in extremities in severe fatal diseases of dogs.

101
Q

If you want to culture rickettsia, what needs to be in the culture?

A

glutamate as nutrient

102
Q

Coxiella burnetti causes Q fever in humans that handle what animals?

A

sheep, goats and cattle

103
Q

T/F? Even though the majority of Coxiella burnetti diseases are asymptomatic, is a reportable disease?

A

True

104
Q

Phase 1 antibodies of Coxiella burnetti is indicative of acute or chronic infections?

A

chronic

Phase 2 is acute infection

105
Q

What is tricky about treating Coxiella Burnetti?

A

bacteria resides in acidic phagolysosomes and antibiotics can’t reach. must add alkalinizing agents

106
Q

Where does Ehrlichiae bacteria live in hosts?

A

white blood cell obligate intracellular bacteria

107
Q

T/F? Ehrlichiae can be transmitted transtradially and transovarially?

A

False, not transovarially.

108
Q

What is the agent of canine monocytic ehrlichiosis?

A

Ehrlichia canis via the brown dog tick

109
Q

E. chaffeensis:

A

human monocytic ehrlichiosis

110
Q

E. ewingii:

A

canine granulocytic ehrliciosis

111
Q

African heartwater is caused by:

A

Ehrlichia ruminantium

112
Q

Do you want to report African Heartwater?

A

You do indeed.

113
Q

African heartwater has a peracute, acute and subclinical forms?

A

yes

the subclinical form has the hydropericardium

114
Q

This bacteria is associated with reproductive and intestinal tract disease and gull-wing shapes

A

Campylobacteriaceae

115
Q

Which bacteria are the leading causes of food borne bacterial gastroenteritis in humans? which food is most guilty?

A

Campylobacter jejuni and campylobacter coli

poulty

116
Q

Campylobacter is referred to as ________, which mean that it requires 3-10% oxygen and 3-15% carbon dioxide

A

Microaerobic

117
Q

Which campylobacter species is described as the bulls being the carriers but the cows express the clinical signs-abortions.

A

Campylobacter fetus ssp. venerealis

118
Q

C. fetus ssp fetus is associated with:

A

intestinal tract and gall bladder of ruminants

119
Q

T/F? When campylobacter species affect the reproductive tract, causing bovine genital campylobacteriosis, it is a reportable disease.

A

True

120
Q

The donut shaped necrotic lesions in the fetal liver are considered pathonomonic for:

A

ovine campylobacter infections

121
Q

When collecting sample for diagnosis of cattle reproductive disease from campylobacter, where would you collect the sample?

A

from the males- smegma or preputial scraping

122
Q

When collecting sample for diagnosis of sheep reproductive disease from campylobacter, where would you collect the sample?

A

lung, liver, fluids from aborted fetus

123
Q

when collecting sample for diagnosis of campylobacter enteric disease, where would you collect the sample?

A

feces

124
Q

disease manifestation of mastitis, diarrhea, abortions and GI are associated with

A

arcobacter

125
Q

What differentiates arcobacter from campylobacter?

A

the organisms are aerotolerant and can grow at a lower temperature - 37 degrees

126
Q

What is a hallmark virulence factor for helicobacter?

A

Urease- converts urea to ammonium to neutralize gastric acids
This causes alterations to gastric physiology

127
Q

T/F? Helicobacter can be found naturally in gastric mucus layer of many animals?

A

True

128
Q

what kind of inflammation is associated with helicobacter infections?

A

Chronic

129
Q

T/F? Lawsonia intracellularis is an obligate pathogen of enterocytes, mostly affecting porcines?

A

True

130
Q

T/F? interaction of Lawsonia with unknown natural flora is required for disease?

A

True

so recovered pigs are resistant to reinfection

131
Q

Which antibody is specific to lawsonia infections?

A

IgA

132
Q

T/F? in terms of fungal infections, immunity is mainly cell mediated and antibodies are protective?

A

False, antibodies are NOT protective

133
Q

Microsporum, trichophyton and epidermophyton are causative agents of?

A

dermatophytosis

134
Q

which macroconidia is: cylindrical or cigar shaped, smooth, thin or thick walled

A

Trichophyton

135
Q

Which macroconidia is: large, spectate, rough, thick walled, fusiform or obovate

A

microsporum

136
Q

in the parasitic state of dermatophyte only ______ and _____ are seen

A

hyphae; arthroconidia (arthrospores)

137
Q

T/F? In contrast to dermatophytosis which has a granulomatous response, candida albicans has a more suppurative response?

A

true, usually neutrophil response

138
Q

“terry toweling” and “sour crop” refer to?

A

candida albincans

139
Q

the cells of this yeast is surrounded by a large mucoid polysaccharide capsule?

A

cryptococcus

140
Q

If you get a cat that presents with rhinitis, nasal granolas, CNS involving symptoms and ocular/cutaneous infectious what yeast would you think it is?

A

cryptococcus neoformans

141
Q

if you get a dog that presents with exhibits otitis externa or seborrheic dermatitis and after taking a swab you observe under the microscope peanut shaped organisms. what do you think it is?

A

malassezia pachydermatis

142
Q

when you are trying to decide if you have cryptococus neoformans in a patient, why should you be careful when performing diagnosic test?

A

its zoonotic

143
Q

what causes deep or systemic mycosis in animals or humans?

A

dimorphic fungi

144
Q

Sporotichosis or “rose handlers disease” is caused by:

A

sporothrix schenkii

145
Q

you grow a sample on sabdex agar and wrinkld white to cream colonies with aerial hyphae grow. you look at this under the microscope and see cigar shaped organisms. what is this organism?

A

sporothrix schenkii

146
Q

infections of sporothrix schenkii causes cutaneous pyogranulomatous inflammation and possible ulcerations that follow lymph channels in the dog and horses. How does the infections present differently in cats?

A

starts off the same but disseminated disease may develop regardless of immune status

147
Q

Blastomycosis is caused by:

A

blastomyces dermatitidis

148
Q

what is the site of lesions for blastomyces dermatitis?

A

lungs, then can metastasis to skin and other organs

149
Q

what is morphologically characteristic of bastomyces dermatitidis

A

broad based buds

150
Q

“Valley fever” caused by coccidiodes immitis is found is which region?

A

southwest US

151
Q

Microscopic appearance of coccidiodes immitis is:

A

spherules filled with endospores in tissues

152
Q

how is disease pattern of “valley fever” similar and different in dog and cats?

A

Similar: disseminated disease with fever and anorexia

different: bone lesions in dogs and more visceral involvement in cats

153
Q

Epizootic lymohangitis aka “african horse farcy” aka pseudoglander is caused by:

A

histoplasma capsulatum var. farciminosum

154
Q

You get a horse patient that presents with ulcerated lesions along its neck and legs. It was just shipped in from the middle east and bought to be a racing horse. What do you think it is?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum var. farciminosum

155
Q

T/F? Histoplasma organisms have a microscopic appearance of small budding yeast cell that reside alongside phagocytes.

A

False, they are intracellular to phagocytes

156
Q

what fungus do you associate the words “swamp cancer”, “kunkers”, and “leeches” with ?

A

Oomycetes

157
Q

This is an aquatic organism that produce biflagellated, motile zoospores that produces pyogranulomatous lesions mostly in dogs or horses.

A

Oomycetes

158
Q

This fungus attacks keratinized structures that lead to osmotic and respiratory problems in amphibians.

A

Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis

159
Q

This rare fungi causes respiratory disease in dogs, late term abortion in bovines, and guttural pouch infections in equines.

A

aspergillus fumigatus

160
Q

this rare fungus causes ulcerative mucocutaneous lesions in central and south america.

A

paracoccidioides brasiliensis

161
Q

this rare fungus causes white nosed syndrome in bats.

A

geomyces destructans

162
Q

this rare fungus causes cotton mold in fish

A

saprolengnia spp

RUSVM bacteriology (1 decks)

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