Exam 3 Flashcards
Types of gene mutations
- Point mutations
- Insertions
- Deletions
- TNRs
With the following mutations, which require molecular analysis: a.) genome mutations, b.) chromosome mutations, c.) gene mutations
- Gene mutations require molecular analysis. Genome and chromosome mutations can be analyzed using molecular analysis, but also cytological techniques
Compare and contrast the types of DNA diagnoses
- ) Direct: when exact DNA sequence is known
a. ) Endonuclease: PCR to amplify region of interest, Digestion using appropriate endonucleases, Separation of fragments by electrophoresis
b. ) Allele-specific extension: Label DNTPs fluorescently - ) Indirect: when DNA sequence is not known, but linkage marker nearby is known (and inherited with mutated gene(s)) a.) Endonuclease, Southern Blot and probe for detection of marker
What is SKY?
- Spectral karyotyping
- Visualization of all human c/s by “painting” each pair in different fluorescent color. Used to detect rearrangements and other c/s abnormalities
What is array-based comparative genomic hybridization (array CGH)?
- Genomic DNA and a reference DNA (control) are labeled with two different fluorescent dye (one green and the other red) and hybridized to slide spotted with DNA probes spanning the human genome.
- If yellow, then equal amounts of both DNAs have hybridized
- If green or red, then amplification or deletion respectively.
Increase in methylation typically leads to what in terms of expression of a gene?
- Decreased expression, esp when methylation occurs at CpG island promoters.
Deacetylation of a gene does what to its expression?
- Associated with decrease in gene expression
A 4yo female presents with rashes on her palms and soles. Her nasal bridge looks flattened. Exam of her oral cavity shows deformed molars and incisors. Her front teeth are notched. Her shins exhibit and outward/anterior bowing. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. ) CMV infection
b. ) Herpes infection
c. ) Rubella
d. ) Syphilis
e. ) Down syndrome
- D.) Syphilis
Top 4 congenital malformations in the US
- ) Clubfoot (25/10K)
- ) PDA (17/10K)
- ) VSD (11/10K)
- ) Cleft +/- palate (9/10K)
What is congenital atresia?
- Upper GI (esophagus) or lower GI is stenosed
What is the leading cause of mental retardation is the US?
- Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
Down syndrome.
a. ) Incidence
b. ) Karyotype
c. ) Pathogenesis
d. ) Clinical presentation
e. ) Complications
a. ) Incidence: 1/700
b. ) Karyotypes: 47 X_ (+21), 46 (14, 21q +21) = Robertsonian, 46 / 47 (+21) = Mosaic
c. ) Pathogenesis: meiotic nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, Mosaic type
d. ) Clinical presentation: - Mental retardation, flattened nasal bridge/facial profile, epicanthal folds, simian crease, congenital heart defects, intestinal stenosis, umbilical hernia, hypotonia, first/second toe gap
e. ) Complications: 10-20x risk of developing leukemia (AML: acute megaloblastic leukemia), almost all over 40 develop neurodegenerative changes like Alzheimers, abnormal immune response predisposition to serious infections (lung, thyroid autoimmunity)
Describe maternal age implication in higher incidence in having a baby with DS.
- Risk starts increasing at age 35.
- 40 = > 5 x increase
- 45 = > 10 x increase
Cystic Fibrosis.
a. ) Incidence
b. ) Pathogenesis
c. ) Clinical presentation
a. ) Incidence: 1/3200
b. ) Pathogenesis: AR
- Defect in CFTR (Cl channel) d/t mutation of 3 nts coding for Phe. This is most severe mutation. Other mutations are known. - Results in high salt concentration in exocrine glands and viscous luminal fluid of resp tract, GI and repro tracts (including vas deferens) - Viscous fluid in resp tract subjects lungs to recurrent infections and therefore fibrosis
c. ) Clinical presentation - First symptom noticed by parent is salty child - Recurrent pulmonary infection, cor pulmonale (right heart failure) malabsorption, obstructed vas deferens (sterility), chronic pancreatitis, secondary biliary cirrhosis, meconium ileus (in newborn)
Of the following, what are the ages associated with each:
a.) neonate, b.) infant, c.) child
a. ) neonate = 0-28 days
b. ) infant = 28 days – 1 year
c. ) child = 1-17 years old
What is considered term, preterm and post-term gestational age?
- Term = 38-42 weeks
- Preterm/premature = <37 weeks
- Post-term = >42 weeks
Describe APGAR scoring
- Scale 0-10
- A: appearance (color): 0 = entirely cyanotic, 2 = no cyanosis
- P: pulse (HR): 0 = absent, 2 = >100
- G: grimace (reflex): 0 = absent, 1 = grimace/feeble cry, 2 = sneeze / cough or pulling away
- A: activity (muscle tone): 0 = none, 1 = some flexion, 2 = active movement
- R: respiration: 0 = absent, 2 = strong
Note: 0-1 corresponds to 50% likelihood of death, 4 = ~20% likelihood of death, 7+= 0%
What is the 2nd most common cause of neonatal mortality?
- Prematurity
- What is the most common cause?
Clinical signs of prematurity besides GA
<2.5 kg, thin skin, reduced tone/activity, extremities unflexed
Complications of prematurity
- ) Hyaline membrane disease
- ) Necrotizing enterocolitis
- ) Sepsis
- ) Intraventricular hemorrhage
- ) Developmental delay
What is prematurity vs FGR (fetal growth restriction)?
- Prematurity: <37 weeks gestation
- FGR (aka SGA, IUGR) = fetal weight below the 10th percentile
Causes of FGR
- ) Fetal: chromosomal disorder, congenital malformation, infection
- ) Placental: placental anomalies, infection, confined mosaicism
- ) Maternal: preeclampsia, chronic HTN, malnutrition, renal disease, drugs, smoking How to tell difference?
- If fetal, there is symmetric FGR and all systems involved. If placental, there is asymmetric FGR and brain is spared.
Complications of FGR
- Perinatal asphyxia
- Meconium aspiration
- Hypoglycemia
- Polycythemia
- Brain dysfunction
- Hearing/visual impairment
- Learning disability
What is the most common birth injury?
- Caput succedaneum: subQ edema over presenting part of head at delivery, typically over occipitoparietal and crosses suture lines