Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MICRB 201 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

0
Q

Glutamine synthetase

A

AMP added and activity decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Peptidyltransferase

A

23S rRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Catabolite repression

A

If glucose and lactose are present in the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Phosphatase

A

Mediates feedback for Two Component Regulatory Systems

Always removes phosphate group at constant rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Riboswitches

A

A metabolite bonds mRNA on 5’ end, hiding the Shine Dalgarno sequence, preventing translation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

EF-G

A

GTP used to translocate the ribosome along the strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Catabolite Activator Protein

A

Bonds to CAP binding site

Only occurs when bound by cyclic AMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mutation frequency

A

Relatively rare

Every 10^9- 10^8 base pairs

DNA Polymerase has proofreading capabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Termination codons

A

3 codons

tRNA will not bind but a release factor will bind and cleave the peptide. Ribosomal subunits dissociate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Antisense RNA

A

40-490 bases long (avg 100)

Has its own gene and can bind to multiple different mRNA’s

Shuts down translation by targeting strand for deletion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cyclic AMP

A

Synthesized by adenylate Cyclase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Adenylate Cyclase

A

Synthesizes cyclic AMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why are mutations more common in Prok than Euk?

A

Less DNA

HAPLOID, so the DNA will be passed on indefinitely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Release factors

A

Euk=> 1

Bact=> 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hfq protein

A

Facilitates proper RNA to RNA interaction in terms of antisense RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mutant strain

A

Genotype will differ

Phenotype may or may not differ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Efficiently of translation

A

More efficient in prokaryotes because there is no nucleus, so there is no separation between transcription and translation

Multiple ribosomes can bind to one mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Regulatory proteins

A

Found in major groove

Homodimeric

Structural motifs help bind to DNA:
Helix-turn-helix, Zinc finger, Leucine zipper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DNA Polymerase III in Arch. and Euk.

A

B=> replication

A&C=> repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DNA Polymerase III in Prok.

A

A&B=> repair

C=> replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

DNA Polymerase III

A

Needs a primer

Goes 5’ to 3’

Proofreading capabilities

3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

topoisomerase

A

Relieves supercoiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

primase

A

Lays down an RNA primer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Getting ready for DNA Polymerase at

Origin of Replication

A

DnaA binds

DnaB (helicase) binds: pulls apart double helix

Single-stranded binding proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Okazaki Fragments in Prok.

A

1000-2000 bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Okazaki Fragments in Euk. and Arch.

A

100-200 bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

DNA Polymerase I

A

Removes RNA primers

Has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity

Add DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

DNA Ligase

A

Connects DNA fragments together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Theta structure

A

What allows bacteria to divide so rapidly

DNA replication can start in many “layers”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Termination Site (Ter Site)

A

Tus protein binds and physically disrupts replication forks

Topoisomerase also involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Tus protein

A

binds and disrupts replication forks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Arch. # of Origin of Replications

A

multiple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Prok. # of Origin of Replications

A

one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

RNA differences to DNA

A

Contains Uracil instead of Thymine

Single stranded

Has ribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Transcription

A

RNA polymerase

Promoters help RNA to bind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

RNA Polymerase

A

5 subunits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

σ factor

A

Recognizes the promoters exposed in major grooves

Leaves after recognition

Also involved in: endospore formation, different consensus sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Promoters

A

Always upstream of gene start site

Pribnow Box and -35 Sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pribnow Box

A

Upstream 10 base pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

-35 Sequence

A

TTGACA

Upstream 35 base pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

TATA Box

A

Upstream 30 base pairs

Only Arch and Euk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

RNA Polymerases in Arch.

A

Only one

Similar to Euk’s II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

RNA Polymerases in Prok.

A

Only one

Not similar to any others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

RNA Polymerases in Euk.

A

I, II, and III

II similar to Arch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Intrinsic terminators

A

Based on mRNA structure

Hair-pin shaped loop

Inverted repeats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hair-pin shaped loop

A

Immediately following gene is a stretch of U

Before that are sequences of a.a. in opposite order

Interacts with RNA polymerase and breaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Rho-dependent transcription termination

A

RUT Site=> Rho Utilization Site

RNA polymerase pauses when it reaches loop

Rho protein then cleaves the strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

mRNA in Euk.

A

monocistronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

mRNA in Prok and Arch

A

polycistronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Introns in Euk.

A

Do not lead to specific proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Introns in Prok.

A

NO INTRONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Exons in Euk.

A

Lead to specific proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Ribonucleoproteins

snRNP’s

A

Remove introns in Euk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

5’ Cap in Euk.

7-methyulguanosine cap

A

Initiates translation procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Poly A tail in Euk.

A

At 3’ end

200 bases long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Poly A tail in Prok.

A

Means it’s targeted for degradation

10-40 bases long

56
Q

How many different codons?

A

64

57
Q

Wobble Site

A

Third spot in the codon

58
Q

Shine Dalgarno Sequence

A

16S rRNA finds this sequence at 5’ end before start codon and it complimentary base pairs with a.a. on 3’ end of 16S rRNA

59
Q

Amino-acyl tRNA Synthetase

A

Adds in amino acid

Located on 3’ end of tRNA

60
Q

tRNA

A

90 nucleotides long

folds make it more stable

61
Q

Large subunit of rRNA in Prok

A

50S

5S and 23S rRNA

62
Q

Small subunit of rRNA in Prok

A

30S

16S rRNA

63
Q

Prok. Ribosome

A

70S

64
Q

Euk. Ribosome

A

80S

65
Q

Large subunit of rRNA in Euk

A

60S

28S, 5.8S, and 5S rRNA

66
Q

Small subunit of rRNA in Euk

A

18S rRNA

67
Q

Formyl-Methionine

A

AUG Initiator Group

Attached first in prok

68
Q

Initiation of Protein Synthesis

A

30S subunit binds

Formyl-Methionine attached

Then, 50S subunit binds

69
Q

DNA designation for proteins Euk

A

3% of DNA

70
Q

DNA designation for proteins Yeast

A

70% of DNA

71
Q

DNA designation for proteins Bacteria

A

90% of DNA

72
Q

A T

A

2 H-bonds

73
Q

C G

A

3 H-bonds

74
Q

DNA A Form

A

11 bases per turn

75
Q

DNA B Form

A

10 bases per turn

76
Q

Histones

A

Euk and Arch

Supercoiling comes form wrapping around these

77
Q

DNA Gyrase

A

Negative supercoiling

Many antibiotics target this

78
Q

Reverse DNA Gyrase

A

Positive supercoiling in hyperthermophiles

79
Q

Adenylate cyclase presence of glucose

A

adenylate cyclase synthesis inhibited

cAMP transported out of the cell

80
Q

Missense mutation

A

1st or 2nd place in codon changed

81
Q

DnaK and DnaJ

A

ATP dependent

chaperones that allow for properly folded proteins

82
Q

Negative control of transcription

A

Occurs when the DNA binding protein (repressor) inhibits initiation of transcription

Operator DOWNSTREAM

Repression or Induction

83
Q

Adenylate cyclase absence of glucose

A

active

84
Q

Nonsense mutation

A

stop codon created

usually results in an incomplete protein

85
Q

GroEL and GroES

A

ATP dependent

for more stubborn proteins

only about 100 genes in E. coli need this

86
Q

Operator

A

Where the repressor protein binds

87
Q

Diauxic growth

A

Two phases of growth because changing of glucose to lactose

lag phase in between

88
Q

Silent mutation

A

3rd or Wobble site changed

results in a normal protein

89
Q

Constitutive proteins

A

always expressed

“housekeeping genes”

90
Q

Repression

A

Anabolic pathway

91
Q

Attenuation

A

Occurs DURING transcription

Only in Prok.

92
Q

Feedback inhibition

A

Post-translational control

typically targets first enzyme

93
Q

Induction

A

Catabolic pathway

94
Q

Tryptophan plentiful

A

The ribosome will continue translation

Subunits 3 and 4 of mRNA will bind

RNA polymerase terminates and genes aren’t transcribed

95
Q

Allosteric site

A

Once bound, the conformational changes prevents the binding of substrate

96
Q

Arginine operon

A

REPRESSION (NEGATIVE CONTROL)

Excess Arginine acts as a corepressor and binds to the repressor to block RNA polymerase which blocks transcription

97
Q

Tryptophan scarce

A

The ribosome will stall

Subunits 2 and 3 of mRNA will bind

RNA polymerase continues to transcribe genes

98
Q

EF-Tu

A

Helps load tRNA’s into the A site

Active when bound to GTP

99
Q

Concerted feedback inhibition

isoenzymes

A

different enzymes that catalyze the same reaction but are under different regulatory control

100
Q

The Lac Operon

A

INDUCTION (NEGATIVE CONTROL)

Repressor binds when lactose is absent. When lactose is present, it acts as an inducer and binds repressor thus allowing transcription to proceed

101
Q

Sensor kinase protein

A

Found in cytoplasmic membrane

typically autophosphorylates at the histidine residue

Ex) EnvZ

102
Q

EF-Ts

A

Catalyzes the binding of GTP

Reactivates EF-Tu

103
Q

Covalent modification of enzymes

A

AMP used to modify enzyme

Can also add ADP, PO4, CH3

104
Q

Difference between Positive and Negative Transcriptional control

A

The binding location

Positive=> UPSTREAM

Negative=> DOWNSTREAM

105
Q

Response regulator protein

A

phosphate transferred to response regulatory protein

cytoplasmic DNA binding protein

Ex) OmpR

106
Q

Base analog

A

Is mistakenly integrated into the genome

107
Q

Example of a chemical mutating DNA

A

ethidium bromide

108
Q

Rec A protein

A

SOS Response

binds and holds gaps together

109
Q

Sfi A Protein

A

SOS Response

inhibits cell division

110
Q

DNA Polymerase IV and V

A

Used in SOS Response

111
Q

carcinogenic

A

causes mutations

112
Q

Bruce Ames

A

developed Ames Test in 1970’s

113
Q

Mutational reversion assay

A

Salmonella typhimurium used (Histidine auxotrophs)

cell wall altered so it’s more penetrable by chemicals

repair mechanisms removed

114
Q

Ames Test

A

Control Plate: Bacteria, molten agar with small amount of Histidine

Test Plate: Bacteria molten agar with small amount of Histidine, chemical to test mutagenicity

115
Q

Auxotroph

A

only grows on a medium that provides a lacking amino acid or nucleotide

116
Q

Morphological mutations

A

changes that can be seen

117
Q

Lethal mutations

A

cannot survive

118
Q

Conditional mutations

A

only seen under certain environmental conditions

119
Q

Biochemical mutations

A

a biosynthetic pathway inactivated to change the biochemistry of the cell

interrupt an amino acid or nucleotide

120
Q

Frameshift mutation

A

occurs when base pairs are deleted or inserted

alters the reading frame

121
Q

Reversion mutation

A

when an earlier mutation is reversed by a second mutation

122
Q

Same-site (true) reversion

A

converts the mutant nucleotide sequence back to the original sequence

123
Q

Second-site reversion

A

a second mutation occurs at a different site in the DNA and causes the wild type phenotype to be restored

124
Q

Induced mutations

A

results from exposure to known mutagens which are primarily physical or chemical agents that interact with DNA in a disruptive manner

125
Q

Spontaneous mutations

A

a random change in the DNA arising from errors in replication

126
Q

Ethidium bromide

A

an example of an induced mutation producing chemical

127
Q

Ionizing radiation

A

radiation ejects orbital electrons from an atom and causes ions to form DNA BREAKAGES

Gamma rays (most penetrating)

Cathode rays (least penetrating)

128
Q

Nonionizing radiation

A

Radiation that excites an atom to a higher energy state

UV radiation

absorbed by DNA and creates pyrmidine (CT) abnormal bonds in DNA

129
Q

Ultraviolet light

A

only targets the surface

130
Q

Nucleotide Excision

A

Involves UVR-ABC enzyme

removes distortion, usually 12 nucleotides

DNA Polymerase I fills in gaps

DNA Ligase fuses them back together

131
Q

Excision Repair

A

Corrections to distortions in DNA

132
Q

SOS Response

A

Works to repair problems in the absence of a template strand

ERROR PRONE LAST DITCH EFFORT

133
Q

Base Excision

A

DNA Glycolsylase severs bonds between the two bases

AP endonucleases nick DNA

DNA Polymerase I removes and replaces base

134
Q

Direct Repair Mechanism

A

Photoactivation

thymine dimers caused by non-ionizing radiation removed with photolyase

135
Q

Photolyase

A

removes Thymine dimers caused by non-ionizing radiation

136
Q

DNA Glycolsylase

A

severs bond between two bases during Base Excision

137
Q

AP endonucleases

A

nick DNA during Base Excision

MICRB 201 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions