Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The assignment of numbers or other symbols to characteristics of objects according to certain pre-specified rules is called measurement.

A

T

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2
Q

The generation of a continuum upon which measured objects are located is called sampling.

A

F

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3
Q

When we measure the perceptions, attitudes, and preferences of consumers, we are not measuring the object but some characteristics of it.

A

T

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4
Q

A scale whose numbers serve only as labels or tags for identifying and classifying objects with a strict one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the objects is called an ordinal scale.

A

F

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5
Q

Nominal scales are recognized as the most basic or limited.

A

T

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6
Q

Preference rankings, market position, and social class are examples of interval scales.

A

F

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7
Q

According to the text, interval scales are the simplest to use.

A

F

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8
Q

The most complex of the primary scales of measurement is the ratio scale.

A

T

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9
Q

Nominal scales are used for classification and identification purposes only.

A

T

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10
Q

Mutually exclusive means that there is no overlap between classes and every object being measured falls into only one class.

A

T

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11
Q

In marketing research, ordinal scales are used to measure market share.

A

F

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12
Q

The numbers assigned in a nominal scale do not reflect relative amounts of the characteristic being measured.

A

T

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13
Q

A ranking scale in which numbers are assigned to objects to indicate the relative extent to which some characteristic is possessed is called a nominal scale.

A

F

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14
Q

A ranking scale in which numbers are assigned to objects to indicate the relative extent to which some characteristic is possessed is called an ordinal scale.

A

T

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15
Q

Common examples of ordinal scales include educational levels and social security numbers.

A

F

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16
Q

An interval scale is a scale in which the numbers are used to rate objects such that numerically equal distances on the scale represent equal distances in the characteristic being measured.

A

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17
Q

A ratio scale is the highest level of measurement and allows the researcher to identify or classify objects, rank the objects, and compare intervals or differences.

A

T

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18
Q

Temperature scales such as Celsius and Fahrenheit are examples of interval scales.

A

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19
Q

Because the zero point is fixed in interval scales, it is not meaningful to take ratios of scale values.

A

F

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20
Q

The scaling techniques commonly used in marketing research can be classified into comparative and noncomparative scales.

A

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21
Q

A non-comparative scale is one of the two types of scaling techniques in which there is direct comparison of stimulus objects with one another.

A

F

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22
Q

A non-comparative scale is one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independently of the others.

A

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23
Q

The major benefit of comparative scaling is that it is the most widely used scaling technique.

A

F

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24
Q

According to the text, noncomparative scales are also referred to as nonmetric scaling.

A

F

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25
Q

Interval scales are widely used in marketing research.

A

T

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26
Q

According to the text, semantic differential scaling is a comparative scaling technique.

A

F

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27
Q

A comparative scaling technique in which a respondent is presented with two objects at a time and asked to select one object in the pair according to some criterion is called paired comparison scaling.

A

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28
Q

Paired comparison scaling is useful when the number of brands under consideration is limited to no more than seven.

A

F

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29
Q

A comparative scaling technique in which respondents are presented with several objects simultaneously and asked to order or rank them according to some criterion is called rank order scaling.

A

T

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30
Q

The most popular comparative scaling technique is semantic differential scaling.

A

F

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31
Q

Constant sum scaling forces the respondent to discriminate among alternatives and also comes closer to resembling the shopping environment.

A

F

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32
Q

In paired comparison scaling, respondents allocate a constant sum of units, such as points, dollars, or chips, among a set of alternatives according to some specified criterion.

A

F

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33
Q

According to the text, the constant sum should be considered an ordinal scale.

A

T

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34
Q

All the primary scales and all the comparative scales that have been discussed in the book can be easily implemented in social media with the exception of ratio scales.

A

F

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35
Q

An analysis of social media content can shed light on the level of measurement that is appropriate in a given project.

A

T

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36
Q

An analysis of social media content can provide guidance on the type of scaling techniques, comparative or noncomparative, to use.

A

T

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37
Q

A noncomparative scale is one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independently of the other objects in the stimulus set.

A

T

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38
Q

An itemized rating scale describes a measurement scale in which respondents rate the objects by placing a mark at the appropriate position on a line that runs from one extreme of the criterion variable to the other.

A

F

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39
Q

A continuous rating scale allows the respondent to place a mark at any point along a line running between two extreme points rather than selecting from among a set of predetermined response categories.

A

T

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40
Q

According to the text, noncomparative scales are broadly classified as either continuous or itemized.

A

T

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41
Q

With the development of information technologies, such as computers and the Internet, continuous scales are being used less frequently.

A

F

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42
Q

A measurement scale with five response categories ranging from “strongly disagree” to “strongly agree,” which requires the respondents to indicate a degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements related to the stimulus object, is called a Stapel scale.

A

F

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42
Q

An itemized rating scale is a measurement scale having numbers and/or brief descriptions associated with the categories and the categories are ordered in terms of scale position.

A

T

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43
Q

Typically, each Likert scale item has seven response categories, ranging from “strongly disagree” to “strongly agree”

A

F

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44
Q

Likert scale analysis is generally conducted by appropriately summing the item scores.

A

T

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45
Q

When using a semantic differential, the respondent is typically asked to rate a brand, store, or some other object in terms of bipolar adjectives, such as cold and warm.

A

T

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46
Q

In semantic differential scales, the negative adjective or phrase sometimes appears at the left side of the scale and sometimes at the right. This controls the tendency of some respondents, particularly those with very positive or negative attitudes, to mark the right- or left-hand sides without reading the labels.

A

T

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47
Q

A scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the middle of an even-numbered range of values is called a Stapel scale.

A

T

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48
Q

Of the three itemized rating scales considered, the semantic differential scale is used the least.

A

F

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49
Q

Scales are only presented horizontally.

A

F

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50
Q

A scale consisting of multiple items, in which an item is a single question or statement to be evaluated is called a multi-item scale

A

T

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51
Q

Random error affects the measurement in a constant way and represents stable factors that affect the observed score in the same way each time the measurement is made.

A

F

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52
Q

Systematic error describes measurement error that arises from arbitrary changes that have a different effect each time the measurement is made.

A

F

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53
Q

The extent to which a scale produces consistent results if repeated measurements are made on the characteristic is called reliability.

A

T

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54
Q

According to the text, total measurement error is determined by multiplying systematic error with random error.

A

F

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55
Q

Reliability refers to the extent to which a scale produces valid results if repeated measurements are made.

A

F

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56
Q

Validity is the extent to which differences in observed scale scores reflect true differences among objects on the characteristic being measured, rather than systematic or random errors.

A

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57
Q

Perfect reliability implies perfect validity.

A

F

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58
Q

Perfect validity implies perfect reliability.

A

T

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59
Q

All the noncomparative scales that we have discussed in this chapter can be easily implemented in social media except the Stapel scale that has to be presented vertically.

A

F

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60
Q

Continuous scales can be used efficiently in social media.

A

T

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61
Q

An analysis of social media content can provide guidance on whether continuous or itemized rating scales should be used.

A

T

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62
Q

Given space limitations, it is not feasible to employ more than one scaling method to measure a given construct in social media.

A

F

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63
Q

The assignment of numbers or other symbols to characteristics of objects according to certain prespecified rules is called ________.

A

measurement

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64
Q

The generation of a continuum upon which measured objects are located is called ________.

A

scaling

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65
Q

Consider a scale from 1 to 100 for locating consumers according to the characteristic “attitude toward department stores.” Each respondent is assigned a number from 1 to 100 indicating the degree of (un)favorableness, with 1 = extremely unfavorable, and 100 = extremely favorable. ________ is the actual assignment of a number from 1 to 100 to each respondent. ________ is the process of placing the respondents on a continuum with respect to their attitude

A

Measurement; Scaling

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66
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the four primary scales of measurement?

A

random scales

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67
Q

A scale whose numbers serve only as labels or tags for identifying and classifying objects with a strict one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the objects is called a(n) ________.

A

nominal scale

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68
Q

Which of the following primary scales of measurement is recognized as the most basic or limited?

A

nominal scales

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69
Q

According to the text, ________ are the simplest to use.

A

nominal scales

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70
Q

The most complex of the primary scales of measurement is the ________.

A

ratio scale

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71
Q

Which of the following primary scales of measurement is used for classification purposes?

A

nominal scales

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72
Q

In a department store project, numbers 1 through 10 were assigned to the 10 stores considered in the study. Suppose store number 9 referred to Sears and store number 6 referred to Neiman Marcus. Using this information, which of the following statements is true?

A) Sears is in some way superior or inferior to Neiman Marcus.
B) It is meaningful to state that the number of the average store is 5.5.
C) Both A and B are true.
D) None of the above are true.

A

D) NONE OF THE ABOVE STATEMENTS ARE TRUE

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73
Q

According to the text, ________ means that there is no overlap between classes and every object being measured falls into only one class.

A

mutually exclusive

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74
Q

According to the text, ________ means that all the objects fall into one of the classes.

A

collectively exhaustive

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75
Q

The numbers assigned in a(n) ________ do not reflect relative amounts of the characteristic being measured.

A

nominal scale

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76
Q

A ranking scale in which numbers are assigned to objects to indicate the relative extent to which some characteristic is possessed is called a(n) ________.

A

ordinal scale

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77
Q

A(n) ________ is a scale in which the numbers are used to rate objects such that numerically equal distances on the scale represent equal distances in the characteristic being measured.

A

interval scale

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78
Q

A(n) ________ is the highest level of measurement and allows the researcher to identify or classify objects, rank the objects, and compare intervals or differences.

A

ratio scale

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79
Q

The scaling techniques commonly used in marketing research can be classified into ________ and ________.

A

comparative; noncomparative scales

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80
Q

A ________ is one of the two types of scaling techniques in which there is direct comparison of stimulus objects with one another.

A

comparative scale

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81
Q

A major disadvantage of comparative scales would be which of the following?

A

A researcher cannot generalize beyond the objects under study.

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82
Q

According to the text, comparative scaling is sometimes referred to as ________.

A

nonmetric scaling

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83
Q

A(n) ________ is one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independently of the others.

A

noncomparative scale

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84
Q

Which of the following is NOT a classification of itemized rating scales?

A

perceptual scales

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85
Q

Which of the following is NOT recognized as a comparative scaling technique?

A

semantic differential scaling

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86
Q

A comparative scaling technique in which a respondent is presented with two objects at a time and asked to select one object in the pair according to some criterion is called ________.

A

paired comparison scaling

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87
Q

A comparative scaling technique in which respondents are presented with several objects simultaneously and asked to order or rank them according to some criterion is called ________.

A

rank order scaling

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88
Q

________ forces the respondent to discriminate among alternatives and also comes closer to resembling the shopping environment.

A

Rank order scaling

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89
Q

In ________, respondents allocate a constant sum of units, such as points, dollars, or chips, among a set of alternatives according to some specified criterion.

A

constant sum scaling

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90
Q

A major disadvantage of constant sum scaling is that it ________.

A

cannot prevent respondents from allocating more or fewer units than those specified

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91
Q

According to the text, the constant sum should be considered a(n)

A

ordinal scale

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92
Q

In developing countries, which of the following scales would be best for measuring consumer preferences?

A

dichotomous scales

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93
Q

A(n) ________ is one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independently of the other objects in the stimulus set.

A

noncomparative scale

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94
Q

Which of the following describes a measurement scale in which respondents rate the objects by placing a mark at the appropriate position on a line that runs from one extreme of the criterion variable to the other?

A

a continuous rating scale

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95
Q

Scores assigned to continuous rating scales by the researcher are typically treated as ________ data.

A

interval

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96
Q

A(n) ________ allows the respondent to place a mark at any point along a line running between two extreme points rather than selecting from among a set of predetermined response categories.

A

continuous rating scale

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97
Q

Which of the following types of scales are sometimes referred to as graphic rating scales?

A

continuous rating scales

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98
Q

Which scale is NOT an itemized rating scale?

A

continuous rating scale

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99
Q

According to the text, which of the following is NOT one of the commonly used itemized rating scales?

A

random scale

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100
Q

A(n) ________ is a measurement scale having numbers and/or brief descriptions associated with each category with the categories ordered in terms of scale position.

A

itemized rating scale

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101
Q

A measurement scale with five response categories ranging from “strongly disagree” to “strongly agree” which requires the respondents to indicate a degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements related to the stimulus object is called a(n) ________.

A

Likert scale

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102
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Likert scale?

A

respondents read a short phrase rather than an entire statement

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103
Q

Which of the following types of scales is described as a seven-point rating scale with endpoints associated with bipolar labels that have semantic meaning?

A

semantic differential

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104
Q

When using a(n) ________, the respondent is typically asked to rate a brand, store, or some other object in terms of bipolar adjectives, such as cold and warm.

A

semantic differential

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105
Q

A scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the middle of an even-numbered range of values is called a ________.

A

Stapel scale

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106
Q

Which noncomparative scale is analyzed using profile analysis?

A) Likert scale
B) semantic differential scale
C) Stapel scale
D) All of the above

A

ALL OF THE ABOVE

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107
Q

What type of scale is this?
Sears is:
Powerful —:—:—:—:-X-:—:—: Weak
Unreliable —:—:—:—:—:-X-:—: Reliable

A

semantic differential scale

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108
Q

Scale categories can be ________.

A) assigned numerical values
B) presented horizontally
C) expressed by boxes
D) expressed by discrete lines
E) All of the above

A

E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

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109
Q

A scale consisting of multiple items, in which an item is a single question or statement to be evaluated, is called a ________.

A

multi-item scale

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110
Q

_________ affects the measurement in a constant way and represents stable factors that affect the observed score in the same way each time the measurement is mad.

A

Systematic error

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111
Q

Which of the following types of error describes measurement error that arises from arbitrary changes that have a different effect each time the measurement is made?

A

random error

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112
Q

The extent to which a scale produces consistent results if repeated measurements are made on the characteristic is called ________.

A

reliability

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113
Q

According to the text, which of the following formulas determines total measurement error?

A

systematic error + random error

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114
Q

________ is the extent to which differences in observed scale scores reflect true differences among objects on the characteristic being measured, rather than systematic or random errors.

A

Validity

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115
Q

A questionnaire is a structured technique for data collection that consists of a series of questions, written or verbal, which a respondent answers.

A

TRUE

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116
Q

A questionnaire is an informal set of questions for obtaining information from respondents.

A

FALSE

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117
Q

A well-designed questionnaire can motivate the respondents and increase the response rate.

A

TRUE

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118
Q

According to the text, a conversational style should be avoided when writing interviewer-administered questionnaires.

A

FALSE

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119
Q

Collecting demographic information that can be used in direct mail campaigns is mentioned in the text as a specific objective of a questionnaire.

A

FALSE

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120
Q

The last step in the questionnaire design process is to reproduce the questionnaire.

A

FALSE

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121
Q

A single question that attempts to cover two issues is called a double-barreled question.

A

TRUE

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122
Q

When respondents are unable to articulate a response to a question, this usually indicates they have no opinion on that topic.

A

FALSE

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123
Q

To increase the likelihood of obtaining sensitive information, such topics should be placed in the middle of the questionnaire.

A

FALSE

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124
Q

Open-ended is a popular form of structured question.

A

FALSE

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125
Q

Open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words are called unstructured questions.

A

TRUE

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126
Q

According to the text, unstructured questions are also referred to as free-response or free- answer questions.

A

TRUE

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127
Q

Dichotomous questions allow the respondent to express their attitudes or opinions without the bias associated with restricting responses to predefined alternatives.

A

FALSE

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128
Q

Open-ended questions are most useful in conclusive research and as opening questions.

A

FALSE

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129
Q

Questions that prespecify the set of response alternatives and the response format are called structured questions.

A

TRUE

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130
Q

In multiple-choice questions, the researcher provides a choice of answers, and respondents are asked to select one or more of the alternatives given.

A

TRUE

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131
Q

An open-ended question is a structured question with only two response alternatives, such as yes or no.

A

FALSE

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132
Q

According to the text, dichotomous questions should be used when the researcher has reason to believe that the respondent thinks of the topic in yes/no terms.

A

TRUE

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133
Q

To avoid problems in question wording, a researcher should use leading questions when designing a questionnaire.

A

FALSE

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134
Q

A researcher should use questions with positive statements only to avoid problems with question-wording.

A

FALSE

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135
Q

“Usually” “normally” and “frequently” are examples of words that are oftentimes considered confusing to respondents.

A

TRUE

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136
Q

A question that gives the respondent a clue as to what the answer should be is called a leading question.

A

TRUE

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137
Q

Problem-solving information is one of the three types of information that is obtained in a questionnaire.

A

FALSE

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138
Q

Basic information is the most important aspect of a marketing research study.

A

TRUE

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139
Q

According to the text, classification information is information that relates directly to the marketing research problem.

A

FALSE

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140
Q

Socioeconomic and demographic characteristics used to categorize respondents are referred to as basic information.

A

FALSE

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141
Q

Identification information is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name, address, and phone number.

A

TRUE

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142
Q

Classification information is considered most sensitive and, therefore, should appear at the very end of the questionnaire.

A

FALSE

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143
Q

A strategy for ordering questions in a questionnaire in which the sequence starts with the general questions, which are followed by progressively more specific questions, in order to prevent specific questions from biasing general questions, is called the funnel approach.

A

TRUE

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144
Q

According to the text, branching questions direct respondents to different places in the questionnaire based on their response to the question at hand.

A

TRUE

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145
Q

A leading question is a question used to guide an interviewer through a survey by directing the interviewer to different spots on the questionnaire depending on the answers given.

A

FALSE

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146
Q

Questions regarding identification information generally come before questions regarding demographics.

A

FALSE

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147
Q

Pretesting is the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents for the purpose of improving the questionnaire by identifying and eliminating potential problems before using it in the actual survey.

A

TRUE

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148
Q

Respondents for the pretest and for the actual survey should NOT be drawn from the same population.

A

FALSE

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149
Q

According to the text, pretests are best done by telephone interviews.

A

FALSE

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150
Q

One consistency in conducting cross-national studies is the universal definition of “household” and “household size” across countries of the world.

A

FALSE

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151
Q

Forms for recording observational data are more difficult to construct than questionnaires

A

FALSE

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152
Q

Analysis of social media can give an understanding that can be valuable in designing an appropriate questionnaire for use in social media surveys but not in traditional surveys.

A

FALSE

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153
Q

An analysis of social media content can aid in determining the content, structure, and wording of individual questions.

A

TRUE

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154
Q

For questionnaires to be used in surveys to be conducted in social media, the general principles and guidelines for questionnaire design remain the same as those for traditional media.

A

TRUE

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155
Q

A(n) ________ is a structured technique for data collection that consists of a series of questions, written or verbal, which a respondent answers.

A

questionnaire

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156
Q

Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the text as a specific objective to consider when designing a questionnaire?

A

collect demographic information that can be used in later direct mail campaigns

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157
Q

Which of the following is NOT an objective of a questionnaire?

A

Questionnaire data must be easy to analyze.

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158
Q

Which of the following is the first step in the questionnaire design process?

A

specify the information needed

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159
Q

Which of the following is the last step in the questionnaire design process?

A

eliminate bugs by pretesting

160
Q

According to the text, a single question that attempts to cover two issues is called a ________.

A

double-barreled question

161
Q

Deciding if a question is necessary or if several questions are needed rather than one are decisions involved with ________.

A

individual question content

162
Q

Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the text as a reason people typically cannot answer a survey question?

A) They may not be informed.
B) They may not remember.
C) They may not be able to articulate certain types of responses.
D) All of the selections represent a reason people typically cannot answer a survey question.

A

D) All of the selections represent a reason people typically cannot answer a survey question.

163
Q

Initial questions in questionnaires that screen potential respondents to ensure they meet the requirements of the sample are called ________.

A

screening or qualifying questions

164
Q

Which of the following is NOT a situation in which respondents are likely to refuse to answer a survey question?

A

The question is a screening question.

165
Q

Which of the following is NOT a popular form of structured question?

A

open-ended

166
Q

Open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words are called ________.

A

unstructured questions

167
Q

According to the text, ________ are also referred to as free-response or free-answer questions.

A

unstructured questions

168
Q

Which of the following types of questions allow respondents to express their attitudes or opinions without the bias associated with restricting responses to predefined alternatives?

A

open-ended questions

169
Q

All of the following are mentioned in the text as disadvantages that are related to unstructured questions EXCEPT ________.

A

respondent response limitations

170
Q

Open-ended questions are most useful in ________ and as opening questions.

A

exploratory research

171
Q

Questions that pre-specify the set of response alternatives and the response format are called ________.

A

structured questions

172
Q

In ________, the researcher provides a choice of answers, and respondents are asked to select one or more of the alternatives given.

A

multiple-choice questions

173
Q

A(n) ________ is a structured question with only two response alternatives, such as yes or no.

A

dichotomous question

174
Q

According to the text, ________ should be used when the researcher has reason to believe that the respondent thinks of the topic in yes/no terms.

A

dichotomous questions

175
Q

In wording questions, the researcher should avoid doing all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A

use positive and negative statements

176
Q

Which of the following of the 6 W’s is NOT particularly well-suited for serving as a guideline for defining the issue in a question?

177
Q

Which of the following is NOT a guideline that should be followed to avoid problems in question-wording?

A

use positive statements only

178
Q

Which of the words below, when used in a question, tend to be confusing to respondents?

179
Q

A question that gives the respondent a clue as to what the answer should be is called a(n) ________.

A

leading question

180
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of information that is obtained from a questionnaire?

A

problem-solving information

181
Q

Which of the following types of information is the most important aspect of a marketing research study?

A

basic information

182
Q

According to the text, ________ is information that relates directly to the marketing research problem.

A

basic information

183
Q

Socioeconomic and demographic characteristics used to categorize respondents are referred to as ________.

A

classification information

184
Q

________ is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name, address, e-mail address and phone number.

A

Identification information

185
Q

Which of the following types of information is considered most sensitive and, therefore, should appear at the end of the questionnaire?

A

identification information

186
Q

A strategy for ordering questions in a questionnaire in which the sequence starts with general questions, which are followed by progressively more specific questions, in order to prevent specific questions from biasing general questions, is called the ________.

A

funnel approach

187
Q

According to the text, ________ direct respondents to different places in the questionnaire based on their responses to the question at hand.

A

branching questions

188
Q

A ________ is a question used to guide an interviewer through a survey by directing the interviewer to different spots on the questionnaire depending on the answers given.

A

branching question

189
Q

According to the text, identification information is usually positioned in which place in the questionnaire?

A

at the end

190
Q

_______ is the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents for the purpose of improving the questionnaire by identifying and eliminating potential problems before using it in the actual survey.

A

Pretesting

191
Q

According to the text, pretests are best done by ________ interviews.

192
Q

Regarding international marketing research, which of the following statements is true?

A

Personal interviewing is the dominant survey method.

193
Q

According to the text, at what point are telephone interviews considered to be too long?

A

over 30 minutes

194
Q

In sampling, an incident is the object or person about which or from which the information is desired.

195
Q

Objects that possess the information the researcher seeks and about which the researcher will make inferences are called elements.

196
Q

According to the text, in survey research, the element is usually the interviewer.

197
Q

A population is the total of all the elements that share some common set of characteristics.

198
Q

The aggregate of all elements, sharing some common set of characteristics, which comprises the universe for the purpose of the marketing research problem, is called the sample.

199
Q

A census involves a complete count of each element in a population.

200
Q

A census can greatly decrease non-sampling error.

201
Q

A complete enumeration of the elements of a population or study object is called a sample.

202
Q

It is not always possible to reduce non-sampling error sufficiently to compensate for sampling error.

203
Q

An incident is a subgroup of the elements of the population selected for participation in the study.

204
Q

If a great deal of the company’s product would need to be consumed as part of the study, then a census would be appropriate.

205
Q

According to the text, the first step in the sampling design process is to determine the sample size.

206
Q

The collection of elements or objects that possess the information the researcher seeks and about which the researcher will make inferences is called the target population.

207
Q

The target population should be defined in terms of elements, sample units, extent, and time frame.

208
Q

A sampling unit is the basic unit containing the elements of the population to be sampled.

209
Q

A sampling frame is a representation of the elements of the target population, which consists of a list or set of directions for identifying the target population.

210
Q

If the sampling unit is different from the element, it is necessary to specify precisely how the elements within the sampling unit should be selected. Selecting the person within the sampling unit with the next birthday is an appropriate way to precisely specify which element to sample.

211
Q

Every potential non-probability sample needs to have the same probability of selection.

212
Q

Probability sampling relies on the personal judgment of the researcher, rather than chance, in selecting sampling elements.

213
Q

Sampling techniques that do not use chance selection procedures and rely on the personal judgment of the researcher are called non-probability sampling techniques.

214
Q

An example of nonprobability sampling is interviewing people in malls.

215
Q

According to the text, precision refers to the level of uncertainty about the characteristic being measured.

216
Q

In nonprobability sampling, sampling elements are selected by chance, that is, randomly.

217
Q

A sampling procedure in which each element of the population has a fixed probabilistic chance of being selected for the sample is called probability sampling.

218
Q

The number of units to be included in a study is called the sample size.

219
Q

The typical range for sample size in problem-solving research, product tests, and test marketing studies is 300-500 respondents.

220
Q

Cluster sampling is a commonly used nonprobability sampling technique.

221
Q

Quota sampling is an example of a commonly used probability sampling technique.

222
Q

Convenience sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique that attempts to obtain a sample of convenient elements and leaves the selection of sampling units primarily to the interviewer.

223
Q

Interviewing students, church groups, and members of social organizations are examples of convenience sampling.

224
Q

Convenience samples are appropriate to use with exploratory research.

225
Q

A form of convenience sampling in which the population elements are selected based on the researcher’s discretion is called judgmental sampling.

226
Q

Judgmental sampling is a probability sampling technique in which each element in the population has a known and equal probability of selection.

227
Q

Quota sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique that is a two-stage restricted judgmental sampling. The first stage consists of developing control categories of population elements. In the second stage, sample elements are selected based on convenience or judgment.

228
Q

A nonprobability sampling technique in which an initial group of respondents is selected randomly and subsequent respondents are selected based on the referrals or information provided by the initial respondents is called snowball sampling.

229
Q

The major advantage of snowball sampling is that it substantially increases the likelihood of locating respondents in the population with the desired characteristic(s).

230
Q

Sampling efficiency refers to the trade-off between sampling cost and precision

231
Q

A probability sampling technique in which the sample is chosen by selecting a random starting point and then picking every with element in succession from the sampling frame is called systematic sampling.

232
Q

Area sampling relies on clustering based on geographic areas such as counties, housing tracts, or blocks.

233
Q

The social media sampling frame is unbiased and appropriate for use in marketing research.

234
Q

Social media content available in the public domain is representative and appropriate for use in marketing research.

235
Q

The representativeness of information from general social media can be improved by screening resulting in a more targeted and representative sample.

236
Q

Projecting findings based on nonprobability sampling to the population is misleading and therefore unethical.

237
Q

The results of business-to-business research should be presented in such a way that respondents can be identified and linked to specific comments and findings.

238
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic questions that is addressed in the sample design phase?

A

“How much should the sample cost?”

239
Q

In sampling, a(n) ________ is the object or person about which or from which the information is desired.

240
Q

Objects that possess the information the researcher seeks and about which the researcher will make inferences is called a(n) ________.

241
Q

According to the text, in survey research, the element is usually the ________.

A

respondent

242
Q

A(n) ________ is the total of all the elements that share some common set of characteristics.

A

population

243
Q

A(n) ________ involves a complete count of each element in a population.

244
Q

A complete enumeration of the elements of a population or study objects is called a(n) ________.

245
Q

A(n) ________ is a subgroup of the elements of the population selected for participation in the study.

246
Q

Which of the following conditions does NOT favor the choice of using a sample over a census?

A

Cost of sampling error is high.

247
Q

According to the text, which of the following is the first step in the sampling design process?

A

define the population

248
Q

The collection of elements or objects that possess the information the researcher seeks and about which the researcher will make inferences is called the ________.

A

target population

249
Q

The target population should be defined in terms of all of the following EXCEPT in terms of ________.

250
Q

A(n) ________ is the basic unit containing the elements of the population to be sampled.

A

sampling unit

251
Q

A(n) ________ is a representation of the elements of the target population, which consists of a list or set of directions for identifying the target population.

A

sampling frame

252
Q

________ relies on the personal judgment of the researcher, rather than chance, in selecting sampling elements.

A

Nonprobability sampling

253
Q

Sampling techniques that do not use chance selection procedures and rely on the personal judgment of the researcher are called ________.

A

nonprobability sampling techniques

254
Q

Examples of nonprobability sampling include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A

All of the above selections are examples of nonprobability sampling.

255
Q

According to the text, ________ refers to the level of uncertainty about the characteristic being measured.

256
Q

In ________, sampling elements are selected by chance, that is, randomly.

A

probability sampling

257
Q

A sampling procedure in which each element of the population has a fixed probabilistic chance of being selected for the sample is called ________.

A

probability sampling

258
Q

The number of units to be included in a study is called the ________.

A

sample size

259
Q

All of the following are examples of commonly used nonprobability sampling techniques EXCEPT ________.

A

cluster sampling

260
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a commonly used probability sampling technique?

A

quota sampling

261
Q

________ is a nonprobability sampling technique that attempts to obtain a sample of convenient elements and leaves the selection of sampling units primarily to the interviewer.

A

Convenience sampling

262
Q

All of the following are examples of convenience sampling EXCEPT ________.

A

expert witnesses used in court

263
Q

In which of the following types of research are convenience samples appropriate to use?

A

exploratory research

264
Q

A form of convenience sampling in which the population elements are selected based on the researcher’s discretion is called ________.

A

judgmental sampling

265
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common example of judgmental sampling?

A

mall intercept interviews conducted without qualifying the respondents

266
Q

________ is a nonprobability sampling technique that is a two-stage restricted judgmental sampling. The first stage consists of developing control categories of population elements. In the second stage, sample elements are selected based on convenience or judgment.

A

Quota sampling

267
Q

A nonprobability sampling technique in which an initial group of respondents is selected randomly and subsequent respondents are selected based on the referrals or information provided by the initial respondents is called ________.

A

snowball sampling

268
Q

________ is a probability sampling technique in which each element in the population has a known and equal probability of selection.

A

Simple random sampling

269
Q

________ is a technique used to overcome the bias of unpublished and recent telephone numbers by selecting all telephone number digits at random.

A

Random-digit dialing

270
Q

Which of the following is NOT a weakness of simple random sampling?

A

not easily understood

271
Q

Which of the following is NOT a weakness of stratified sampling?

A) difficult to select relevant stratification variables
B) not feasible to stratify on many variables
C) expensive
D) ALL are weaknesses of stratified sampling.

A

D) ALL are weaknesses of stratified sampling.

272
Q

A probability sampling technique in which the sample is chosen by selecting a random starting point and then picking every ith element in succession from the sampling frame is called _______.

A

systematic sampling

273
Q

According to the text, all of the following are challenges faced in implementing a sampling design in international research EXCEPT ________.

A

non-governmental organizations are needed to implement the sampling design in some countries of the world

274
Q

According to the text, fieldwork is the first step in the marketing research process.

275
Q

Fieldwork is the step in the research process immediately after developing an approach to the problem.

276
Q

Fieldwork is the fifth step in the marketing research process.

277
Q

All fieldwork involves the selection, training, and supervision of persons who collect data.

278
Q

An observer counting customers in a particular section of a store is an example of a field worker.

279
Q

The first step in the fieldwork process is the selection of field workers.

280
Q

Researchers have one choice for collecting their data: hire a data collection agency.

281
Q

Field workers who collect data typically have research backgrounds and extensive training.

282
Q

A researcher should decide what characteristics the field workers should have when selecting field workers.

283
Q

To the extent possible, interviewers should be selected to emphasize a higher income class than respondents, since this increases the probability of a successful interview.

284
Q

According to the text, the typical interviewer is a single woman aged 18 to 34, with an above-average education and an above-average household income.

285
Q

Field workers are generally paid an hourly rate or on a per-interview basis.

286
Q

Training ensures that all interviewers administer the questionnaire in the same manner so that the data can be collected uniformly.

287
Q

Interviewers should record responses after the interview.

288
Q

Validating the interview is recognized as a phase of the interviewing process.

289
Q

A motivational technique used when asking survey questions to induce the respondents to enlarge on, clarify, or explain their answers and to help the respondents focus on the specific content of the interview is called probing.

290
Q

All interviewers should use the same format and conventions to record the interviews, but should alter their way of editing completed interviews to ensure variety and coverage.

291
Q

The general rule for recording answers to unstructured questions is to record the responses verbatim.

292
Q

Sampling control helps respondents focus on the specific content of the interview and provide only relevant information.

293
Q

Supervision of field workers involves coding of questionnaires.

294
Q

To understand the interviewer’s problems, the supervisors should do some interviewing.

295
Q

An important aspect of supervision is sampling control, which attempts to ensure that the interviewers are strictly following the sampling plan rather than selecting sampling units based on convenience or accessibility.

296
Q

To validate the study, the supervisors called 30 to 40 percent of the respondents to inquire whether the field workers actually conducted the interviews.

297
Q

According to the text, interviewer cheating can be minimized through pretesting of the questionnaires.

298
Q

Central office control involves tabulating the responses to important demographic characteristics and key questions.

299
Q

Coding of fieldwork means verifying that field workers are submitting authentic interviews.

300
Q

To validate the study, the supervisors call 1 percent to 10 percent of the respondents to inquire whether the field workers actually conducted the interviews.

301
Q

The supervisor should ask a complex and sensitive survey question when validating an interview with a respondent.

302
Q

When evaluating field workers, the interviewer's time should be broken down into actual interviewing, travel, and administration.

303
Q

To evaluate interviewers on the quality of interviewing, the supervisor must directly observe the interviewing process.

304
Q

For structured questions, the frequent occurrence of nonresponse items is an indicator that should be used to evaluate an interviewer on the quality of interview.

305
Q

Research staff collecting and analyzing data from social media are normally part-time employees of the research firm.

306
Q

A limited number of operational staff or field workers, as few as two or three, may be assigned to a social media project.

307
Q

The selection, training, supervision, validation, and evaluation of field-workers is much more streamlined in social media fieldwork than in traditional fieldwork.

308
Q

According to the text, the data preparation process begins with checking the questionnaires for completeness.

309
Q

The data preparation process begins after the fieldwork is done.

310
Q

The final data analysis plan should never differ from the preliminary plan for data analysis.

311
Q

Data preparation should only begin once all batches of questionnaires are received from the field. In this way, processing uniformity is boosted.

312
Q

Data cleaning is the last stage of the data preparation process.

313
Q

At the editing stage, the researcher makes a preliminary check for consistency.

314
Q

A review of the questionnaires with the objective of increasing accuracy and precision is called editing.

315
Q

Deleting the question from the survey is an alternative for the treatment of unsatisfactory responses.

316
Q

Unsatisfactory responses from collected data may be discarded when the proportion of unsatisfactory respondents is 20 percent to 30 percent.

317
Q

Coding consists of screening questionnaires to identify illegible, incomplete, inconsistent, or ambiguous responses.

318
Q

The assignment of a symbol to represent a specific response to a specific question, along with the data record and column position that the symbol will occupy, is called coding.

319
Q

According to the text, the symbols used in the assignment of codes to each possible response to each question is usually a number.

320
Q

A book containing coding instructions and the necessary information about variables in the data set is called a codebook.

321
Q

Only software programs developed for the research industry should be used to enter data, not programs such as Microsoft EXCEL.

322
Q

Coding unstructured questions is relatively simple, since the response options are predetermined.

323
Q

According to the text, category codes should be collectively exhaustive and mutually exclusive.

324
Q

Data should be coded in a lean way in order to avoid retaining much detail

325
Q

Categories are collectively exhaustive if each response fits into one of the assigned category codes.

326
Q

If possible, standard codes should be used for missing data.

327
Q

According to the text, categories are mutually exclusive if every response fits into one and only one of the assigned category codes.

328
Q

When entering respondent data into a spreadsheet, each column contains the data for one respondent.

329
Q

Transcribing data involves transferring the coded data from the questionnaires or coding sheets onto disks or directly into computers by key punching or other means.

330
Q

Optical scanning involves direct machine reading of the codes and simultaneous transcription.

331
Q

The thorough and extensive check for consistency and treatment of missing responses is called validating.

332
Q

Data cleaning includes consistency checks and treatment of missing responses. The checks at this stage are less extensive than the checks made during editing.

333
Q

A part of the data cleaning process that identifies data that are out of range or logically inconsistent, or that have extreme values, is called consistency checks.

334
Q

Missing responses represent values of a variable that are unknown, either because respondents provided ambiguous answers or their answers were not properly recorded

335
Q

Treatment of missing responses poses problems, particularly if the proportion of missing responses is between 5 percent and 10 percent.

336
Q

Casewise deletion is an option available for the treatment of missing responses.

337
Q

A method for handling missing responses in which respondents with any missing responses are discarded from the analysis is called pairwise deletion.

338
Q

Casewise deletion is a method of handling missing values in which for each calculation or analysis, only the respondents with complete responses are considered.

339
Q

Pairwise deletion may be appropriate when the sample size is large

340
Q

Considering the known characteristics of the data is a stage in selecting a data analysis strategy.

341
Q

Unlike traditional data collection, in social media respondents do not merely respond to questions or stimuli. Rather, they generate the data and edit it by their communal participation.

342
Q

The data preparation process for social media is exactly similar to that for data collected by traditional means.

343
Q

A good rule of thumb about the discarding of respondents is that such decisions should be made before conducting any analysis.

344
Q

According to the text, fieldwork is the ________ in the marketing research process.

A

fourth step

345
Q

Which of the following individuals is NOT recognized as a field worker?

A

a project director conducting a check on the data analysis

346
Q

All of the following are mentioned in the text as elements related to the fieldwork process EXCEPT the ________.

A

All of the mentioned elements are related to the fieldwork process.

347
Q

The first step in the fieldwork process is the ________.

A

selection of field workers

348
Q

A researcher should implement all of the following steps when selecting field workers EXCEPT ________.

A

All of the mentioned steps should be followed when selecting field workers.

349
Q

To the extent possible, interviewers should be selected ________ since this increases the probability of a successful interview.

A

to match respondent’s characteristics

350
Q

According to the text, the typical interviewer is a ________, with an above-average education and an above-average household income.

A

married woman aged 35 to 54

351
Q

Which of the following is NOT recognized as a phase of the interviewing process?

A

validating the interview

352
Q

A motivational technique used when asking survey questions to induce the respondents to enlarge on, clarify, or explain their answers and to help the respondents focus on the specific content of the interview is called ________.

353
Q

________ helps respondents focus on the specific content of the interview and provide only relevant information.

354
Q

The general rule for recording answers to unstructured questions is to ________.

A

record the responses verbatim

355
Q

Supervision of field workers involves all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A

coding of questionnaires

356
Q

To understand the interviewers problems, the supervisors should ________.

A

do some interviewing

357
Q

An important aspect of supervision is ________, which attempts to insure that the interviewers are strictly following the sampling plan rather than selecting sampling units based on convenience or accessibility.

A

sampling control

358
Q

To control the problems of interviewers not strictly following the sampling plan, supervisors should keep daily records of all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A

Supervisors should keep daily records of all of the selections to control interviewers.

359
Q

According to the text, interviewer cheating can be minimized through all of the following EXCEPT through ________.

A

pretesting of questionnaires

360
Q

________ involves tabulating the responses to important demographic characteristics and key questions.

A

Central office control

361
Q

________ of fieldwork means verifying that field workers are submitting authentic interviews.

A

Validation

362
Q

To validate the study, the supervisors call ________ of the respondents to inquire whether the field workers actually conducted the interviews.

A

10 percent to 25 percent

363
Q

Which of the following types of questions should the supervisor NOT ask when validating an interview with a respondent?

A

a complex and sensitive survey question

364
Q

When evaluating field workers, which category is relevant for assessing how effectively the interviewer’s time was spent?

A) actual interviewing
B) travel
C) administrative record-keeping
D) reviewing responses
E) None of the above

A

E) NONE OF THE ABOVE

365
Q

To evaluate interviewers on the quality of interviewing, the supervisor ________.

A

must directly observe the interviewing process

366
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indicator that should be used to evaluate an interviewer on the quality of interviewing?

A

For structured questions, the data seem reasonable.

367
Q

Which of the following indicators should NOT be used to evaluate interviewers on the quality of interviewing?

A

Qualitative answers are summarized.

368
Q

When supervising field workers, supervisors should be concerned with all of the following EXCEPT _______

A

pay levels

369
Q

Conditions of conducting fieldwork in international marketing research include which of the following?

A

Local fieldwork agencies are unavailable in many countries.

370
Q

When collecting qualitative data from social media, which of the following is a decision that has to be made?

A) determining the type and specification of the social media channels to be monitored
B) developing a standardization of terms, conversation types, and content types
C) establishing a standardized coding scheme
D) setting benchmarks
E) All of these decisions have to be made

A

E) ALL OF THESE DECISIONS HAVE TO BE MADE

371
Q

Researchers and field workers can make respondents feel comfortable by ________.

A

addressing questions of respondents

372
Q

In the marketing research process, data preparation and analysis comes immediately after _______ and before ________.

A

fieldwork; report preparation and presentation

373
Q

According to the text, the data preparation process begins with ________.

A

preliminary plan of data analysis

374
Q

Which of the following is the last stage of the data preparation process?

A

selecting a data analysis strategy

375
Q

A review of the questionnaires with the objective of increasing accuracy and precision is called ________.

376
Q

________ consists of screening questionnaires to identify illegible, incomplete, inconsistent, or ambiguous responses.

377
Q

Which of the following is NOT an alternative for the treatment of unsatisfactory responses?

A

delete the question from the survey

378
Q

Which of the following is NOT a stage of the data preparation process?

A

questionnaire design

379
Q

Respondents with unsatisfactory responses may be simply discarded when the proportion of unsatisfactory respondents is ________.

A

less than 10 percent

380
Q

The assignment of a symbol to represent a specific response to a specific question, along with the data record and column position that symbol will occupy, is called ________.

381
Q

According to the text, the symbol used in the assignment of codes to each possible response to each question is usually a(n) ________.

382
Q

A book containing coding instructions and the necessary information about variables in the data set is called a(n) ________.

383
Q

Coding ________ questions is relatively simple since the response options are predetermined.

A

structured

384
Q

According to the text, category codes should be ________ and ________.

A

collectively exhaustive; mutually exclusive

385
Q

Categories are ________ if each response fits into one and only one category code.

A

mutually exclusive

386
Q

According to the text, categories are ________ if every response fits into one of the assigned category codes.

A

collectively exhaustive

387
Q

________ data involves transferring the coded data from the questionnaires or coding sheets onto disks or directly into computers by key punching or other means.

A

Transcribing

388
Q

________ involves direct machine reading of the codes and simultaneous transcription.

A

Optical scanning

389
Q

The thorough and extensive check for consistency and treatment of missing responses is called ________.

A

data cleaning

390
Q

A part of the data cleaning process that identifies data that are out of range or logically inconsistent, or that have extreme values, is called ________.

A

consistency checks

391
Q

________ represent values of a variable that are unknown, either because respondents provided ambiguous answers or their answers were not properly recorded.

A

Missing responses

392
Q

Treatment of missing responses poses problems, particularly if the proportion of missing responses is ________.

A

more than 10 percent

393
Q

A method for handling missing responses in which respondents with any missing responses are discarded from the analysis is called ________.

A

casewise deletion

394
Q

________ is a method of handling missing values in which for each calculation or analysis, only the respondents with complete responses are considered.

A

Pairwise deletion

395
Q

Pairwise deletion may be appropriate when all of the following conditions are present EXCEPT when ________.

A

the sample size is small

396
Q

________ involves the transformation of data to create new variables or modify existing ones.

A

Variable respecification

397
Q

If there are too few respondents in the lowest income category, this category may be combined or merged with the next lowest category. This is known as ________.

398
Q

According to the text, a survey discloses that 31 percent of the respondents preferred the client’s brand, while 30.8 percent preferred the closest competing brand. In such a case, it is announced that the client’s brand is the dominant brand. Such a situation would be ________.

A

unacceptable because it is misleading; the brands have virtual parity