Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Term? An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential damage

A

pain

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2
Q

three causes of acute pain?

A

disease, injury, or inflammation

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3
Q

onset of acute pain?

A

comes on suddenly

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4
Q

what two things often accompany acute pain?

A

anxiety or emotional distress

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5
Q

what is chronic pain believed to represent?

A

disease itself

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6
Q

what two types of factors greatly worsen chronic pain?

A

environmental and psychological factors

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7
Q

term? Persists over a long period of time and is resistant to most medical treatments

A

chronic pain

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8
Q

examples of acute pain?

A

MVA; broken bone

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9
Q

what is one of the most prevalent public health epidemics?

A

death involving prescription drug abuse

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10
Q

what type of opioids are most problematic re: death?

A

synthetic opioids

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11
Q

lack of knowledge among prescribers (re: opioids) involve what three topics?

A

addiction, dependence, and misuse

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12
Q

current pain management guidelines, risk management practices, research in pain management- these are what?

A

contributing factors to opioid misuse/issues

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13
Q

non-low back, musculoskeletal injuries- start with what?

A

topical NSAIDs with or without menthol gel

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14
Q

non-low back, musculoskeletal injuries- second recommendation?

A

oral NSAIDs +/- acetaminophen

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15
Q

non-low back, musculoskeletal injuries- third recommendation?

A

opioids including tramadol

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16
Q

whether or not to prescribe opioids for pain- which guidelines?

A

CDC

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17
Q

selecting opioids and determining dosages- which guidelines?

A

CDC

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18
Q

deciding duration of initial opioid prescription and determining follow up- which guidelines?

A

CDC

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19
Q

assessing risk and addressing potential harms of opioid use- which guidelines?

A

CDC

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20
Q

what methodology do CDC guidelines use?

A

GRADES framework

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21
Q

what is the most common source of chronic pain?

A

lower extremity pain

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22
Q

what is the second most common source of chronic pain?

A

back pain

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23
Q

2023 opioid guidelines- what are the four 1st line recommended classes of agents?

A

NSAIDs, anticonvulsants, acetaminophen, muscle relaxants

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24
Q

what are the three 1st line opioids for mild pain?

A

tramadol, codeine, hydrocodone

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25
Q

opioids used for mild to moderate pain?

A

hydrocodone or oxycodone

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26
Q

three opioids used for mild pain? 1st line

A

tramadol, codeine, hydrocodone

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27
Q

three opioids used for severe pain?

A

hydrocodone, oxycodone, morphine

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28
Q

three fundamental tenets of responsible opioid prescribing?

A

1- patient eval and selection 2- period review and monitoring 3- treatment plans

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29
Q

1- patient eval and selection 2- periodic review and monitoring 3- treatment plans (what are these?

A

fundamental tenets of responsible opioid prescribing

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30
Q

what are the seven components of comprehensive pain assessment?

A

1- pain condition; 2-general medical history; 3-previous treatments; 4- psychosocial history and eval; 5- substance use history and addiction screening; 6-sleep patterns; 7- functional assessment

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31
Q

two examples of opioid prescribing risk stratification tools?

A

opioid risk tool; SOAPP Version 1.0-14Q

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32
Q

a self-report screening tool designed for adult patients in primary care settings to assess risk for opioid abuse among pts with chronic pain

A

opioid risk tool

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33
Q

a tool for clinicians designed to determine how much monitoring a patient on long-term opioid therapy might need

A

SOAPP

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34
Q

urine drug testing- component of what?

A

responsible opioid prescribing

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35
Q

pain management agreement- component of what?

A

responsible opioid prescribing

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36
Q

establishing treatment goals- component of what?

A

responsible opioid prescribing

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37
Q

setting realistic treatment goals- component of what?

A

responsible opioid prescribing

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38
Q

WHAT is needed to prescribe opioids for chronic pain?

A

informed consent

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39
Q

what are the three types of opioids?

A

natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic

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40
Q

absence of pain?

A

analgesia

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41
Q

what do opioid analgesics provide?

A

absence of pain without resulting in loss of consciousness/sleep

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42
Q

what are the two natural opioids?

A

morphine and codeine

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43
Q

what are the three semisynthetic opioid derivatives?

A

oxycodone, hydromorphone, and oxymorphone

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44
Q

what are the two categories of synthetic opioids?

A

phenylpiperidines and pseudopiperidine

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45
Q

what are the two phenylpiperidines?

A

meperidine and fentanyl

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46
Q

what is the example of the pseudopiperidine?

A

methadone

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47
Q

methadone- drug class?

A

pseudopiperidine (synthetic)

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48
Q

fentanyl- drug class?

A

phenylpiperidines (synthetic)

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49
Q

meperidine- drug class?

A

phenylpiperidines (synthetic)

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50
Q

oxycodone- type of opioid?

A

semisynthetic derivative

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51
Q

hydromorphone- type of opioid?

A

semisynthetic derivative

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52
Q

oxymorphone- type of opioid?

A

semisynthetic derivative

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53
Q

morphine- type of opioid?

A

natural

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54
Q

codeine- type of opioid?

A

natural

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55
Q

what are the three categories of opioid receptors?

A

mu, kappa, delta

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56
Q

what is the most important opioid receptor?

A

mu receptor

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57
Q

what receptor is responsible for most of the action of the opioids?

A

mu receptor

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58
Q

where is the mu 1 receptor located?

A

outside of the spinal cord

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59
Q

what receptor is responsible for central interpretation of pain?

A

mu 1

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60
Q

what is mu 1 receptor responsible for?

A

central interpretation of pain

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61
Q

where is the mu 2 receptor located?

A

throughout the CNS

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62
Q

what four things is mu 2 responsible for?

A

respiratory depression, spinal analgesia, physical dependence, euphoria

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63
Q

what receptor? Respiratory depression, spinal analgesia, physical dependence, euphoria

A

mu 2

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64
Q

what receptor is responsible for some of the side effects of opioid analgesia?

A

mu 2

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65
Q

which opioid receptors give modest analgesia?

A

kappa receptors

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66
Q

do kappa receptors affect respiratory depression? Yes/no

A

no

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67
Q

do kappa receptors pose risk of dependence? Yes/no

A

no

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68
Q

which opioid receptor causes dysphoric effects?

A

kappa receptors

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69
Q

term- sense of unease, anxiety

A

dysphoria

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70
Q

delta receptor agonists, show poor WHAT?

A

analgesia

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71
Q

do delta receptor agonists have addictive potential?

A

little addictive potential

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72
Q

delta agonists are used to minimize what?

A

some of the mu2 side effects

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73
Q

what drugs are used to minimize some of the mu 2 side effects?

A

delta agonists

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74
Q

morphine- drug class?

A

pure opioid agonist

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75
Q

codeine- drug class?

A

pure opioid agonist

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76
Q

buprenorphine- drug class?

A

mixed opioid agonist (mu)

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77
Q

nalaxone- drug class?

A

pure opioid antagonist

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78
Q

butorphanol- drug class?

A

mixed opioid agonist (kappa)

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79
Q

pentazocine- drug class?

A

mixed opioid agonist (kappa)

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80
Q

what opioid receptors decrease GI motility?

A

mu and kappa

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81
Q

by what three routes are opioid analgesics generally well-absorbed?

A

cutaneous, IM, and mucosal surfaces

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82
Q

where are the highest concentrations of opioid analgesics?

A

in the tissues

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83
Q

first pass effect of oral opioid analgesics?

A

fairly significant

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84
Q

highly lipophilic opioids concentrate where?

A

adipose tissue

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85
Q

what type of opioids are concentrated in adipose tissue?

A

highly lipophilic

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86
Q

what is a large reservoir of opioid analgesics?

A

skeletal muscle

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87
Q

what are two examples of highly lipophilic opioid analgesics?

A

fentanyl and codeine

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88
Q

what can cause prolonged analgesia in patients with compromised renal function?

A

morphine metabolites

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89
Q

renal excretion of opioid analgesics?

A

renally excreted unchanged

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90
Q

other than renal, route of excretion of opioid analgesics?

A

bile- minor amounts in enterohepatic circulation

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91
Q

what is another name for the descending aminergic pathways?

A

antinociceptive pathway

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92
Q

what class? Enhance activity in descending aminergic pathways that exert inhibitory effects on the processing of nociceptive information in the spinal cord

A

opioid analgesics

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93
Q

what pathway is affected with opioid analgesics?

A

descending aminergic pathways

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94
Q

what mechanism is closed with opioid analgesics?

A

close N-type voltage operated calcium channels

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95
Q

what type of channels are closed with opioid analgesics?

A

N-type voltage operated calcium channels

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96
Q

what type of channels are opened with opioid analgesics?

A

calcium dependent potassium channels

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97
Q

what is the results of changes to channels that happens with opioid analgesics?

A

hyperpolarization and reduction in neuronal excitability

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98
Q

what are the two components of pain?

A

affective and sensory

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99
Q

where does analgesia happen?

A

CNS

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100
Q

what component relates to pain unpleasantness?

A

affective

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101
Q

what component relates to pain intensity?

A

sensory

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102
Q

pain unpleasantness- term?

A

affective pain component

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103
Q

pain intensity- term?

A

sensory pain component

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104
Q

anxiolytic, pleasant- term?

A

euphoria

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105
Q

where does euphoria occur?

A

CNS

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106
Q

individuals not in pain may experience WHAT with opioid analgesics?

A

dysphoria

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107
Q

when might dysphoria occur in patients taking opioid analgesics?

A

if they are not in pain

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108
Q

what is a common consequence of opioid administration?

A

sedation

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109
Q

sedation with opioid use can result in what?

A

limited amnesia

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110
Q

describe sleep with opioid use?

A

patient can be easily awakened

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111
Q

describe sleep with opioid + sedative hypnotic?

A

deep sleep

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112
Q

what two opioids are likely to produce significant sleep?

A

synthetic morphine, oxycodone (less likely with fentanyl)

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113
Q

what is caused by inhibition of the brainstem respiratory center with opioids?

A

respiratory depression

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114
Q

what causes respiratory depression in opioids?

A

inhibition of the brainstem respiratory center

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115
Q

where is the respiratory center located?

A

brainstem

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116
Q

what are the two factors affecting opioid respiratory depression?

A

dose-related and influenced by sensory input

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117
Q

what patients can tolerate slight resp depression with opioids?

A

patients without prior respiratory problems

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118
Q

where is the cough center located?

A

medulla oblongata

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119
Q

what class of drugs suppresses cough center in medulla oblongata?

A

opioids

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120
Q

which specific opioid analgesic is the best at producing cough suppression?

A

codeine

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121
Q

class? Stimulate the brainstem chemoreceptor trigger zone

A

opioids

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122
Q

where is the chemoreceptor trigger zone?

A

brainstem

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123
Q

vestibular component may also be present with what?

A

opioid-related nausea and vomiting

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124
Q

effect of opioid on heart rhythm?

A

usually just mild bradycardia

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125
Q

what happens to PCO2 with opioid resp depression?

A

increased

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126
Q

what is the cerebral vascular effect of increased PCO2 with opioids?

A

cerebral vasodilation and increased blood flow

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127
Q

what effect do opioids have on ICP?

A

increased ICP

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128
Q

why do opioids have increased ICP?

A

respiratory depression and increased PCO2

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129
Q

increased or decreased PCO2 with opioids?

A

increased (resp depression)

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130
Q

what two mechanisms are involved with opioid-related constipation?

A

local and enteric CNS mechanisms

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131
Q

effects on stomach motility- opioids?

A

decreased

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132
Q

effect of opioids on stomach tone?

A

increased

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133
Q

effect of opioids on stomach acid production?

A

decreased

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134
Q

effect of opioids on tone of small intestine?

A

increased

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135
Q

effect of opioids on tone of large intestine?

A

increased

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136
Q

effect of opioids on biliary tract?

A

biliary smooth muscle contriction

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137
Q

effect of opioids on intestinal peristalsis?

A

diminished

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138
Q

effect of opioids on renal function?

A

depressed

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139
Q

effect of opioids on renal blood flow?

A

decreased

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140
Q

effect of opioids on bladder tone?

A

increased

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141
Q

effect of opioids on ureteral tone?

A

increased

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142
Q

where is the thermoregulatory center?

A

hypothalamus

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143
Q

what drugs alter the equilibrium point of the hypothalamic heat regulatory mechanisms?

A

opioids

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144
Q

what do opioids do to the hypothalamic heat regulatory mechanisms?

A

alter the equilibrium point

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145
Q

renal blood flow increased/decreased with opioids?

A

decreased

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146
Q

renal function increased/decreased with opioids?

A

decreased

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147
Q

bladder tone increased/decreased with opioids?

A

increased

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148
Q

ureteral tone increased/decreased with opioids?

A

increased

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149
Q

chills during opioid withdrawal likely related to what?

A

altered equilibrium of hypothalamus

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150
Q

effect of opioids on blood pressure?

A

hypotension

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151
Q

effect of opioids on ability to urinate?

A

urinary retention

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152
Q

cross tolerance can be seen among what?

A

different opioid agents

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153
Q

psychological dependence seen with what class?

A

opioid analgesics

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154
Q

what three situations can lead to opioid toxicity?

A

clinical overdosage, accidental overdosage in addicts, or suicide attempts

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155
Q

coma, pinpoint pupils, depressed respiratory status suggests what?

A

opioid toxicity

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156
Q

what three things suggest opioid toxicity?

A

coma, pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression

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157
Q

pupil appearance in opioid toxicity?

A

pinpoint

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158
Q

rhinorrhea and lacrimation- seen what withdrawal of what class?

A

opioids

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159
Q

hyper/hypoventilation seen in opioid withdrawal?

A

hyperventilation

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160
Q

HR changes in opioid withdrawal?

A

tachycardia

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161
Q

GI (3) sx seen in opioid withdrawal?

A

N/V/D

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162
Q

yawning- seen in what condition?

A

opioid withdrawal

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163
Q

skin appearance in opioid withdrawal?

A

piloerection

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164
Q

respiratory changes in opioid withdrawal?

A

hyperventilation

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165
Q

what does federal government have re: controlled substances?

A

dual imperative

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166
Q

what three things does a governmental system of controls prevent?

A

abuse, trafficking, diversion

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167
Q

abuse, trafficking, diversion are prevented by what?

A

government system of control

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168
Q

what are the two components of the federal government’s dual imperative?

A

establish a system of controls; ensure medical availability

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169
Q

ensuring medical availability of controlled substances is part of the government’s WHAT?

A

dual imperative

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170
Q

term- first enacted in 1970 to regulate the manufacture, importation, possession, use, and distribution of certain substances

A

Controlled Substances Act

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171
Q

when was the Controlled Substances Act enacted?

A

1970

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172
Q

who is responsible for interpreting and enforcing the CSA?

A

DEA

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173
Q

who has supporting responsibilities for CSA?

A

DHHS

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174
Q

DEA does what re: CSA?

A

interpreting and enforcing the CSA

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175
Q

what schedule- no currently acceptable medical use, high potential for abuse?

A

schedule 1

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176
Q

schedule 1 description?

A

no currently acceptable medical use, high potential for abuse

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177
Q

what schedule- high potential for abuse?

A

schedule 2

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178
Q

schedule 2- description?

A

high potential for abuse

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179
Q

what schedule- less abuse potential than schedule 2?

A

schedule 3

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180
Q

schedule 3- description?

A

less abuse potential than schedule 2

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181
Q

schedule 4 description?

A

less abuse potential relative to schedule 3

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182
Q

schedule 5 description?

A

low abuse potential relative to schedule 4

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183
Q

cocaine- schedule?

A

schedule 1

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184
Q

heroin- schedule?

A

schedule 1

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185
Q

two examples of schedule 1 drugs?

A

cocaine and heroin

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186
Q

when is cocaine used medically?

A

intractable epistaxis

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187
Q

pseudoephedrine- schedule in some states?

A

schedule 5

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188
Q

what label does not change medical value of medications?

A

“controlled substance”

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189
Q

efforts to prevent abuse must not interfere with what two things?

A

medical practice and patient care

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190
Q

healthcare providers must comply with what two types of regulations?

A

federal and state

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191
Q

which rule applies when federal and state regulations differ?

A

the more stringent rule applies

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192
Q

where do you find the federal regulations?

A

the Controlled Substances Act

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193
Q

where do you find the state regulations?

A

the state/licensing board/governing board

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194
Q

class? Biguanides

A

antidiabetic drugs

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195
Q

class? Sulfonylureas

A

antidiabetic drugs

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196
Q

class? Thiazolidinediones

A

antidiabetic drugs

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197
Q

class? Meglitinides

A

antidiabetic drugs

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198
Q

class? Selective sodium glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors

A

antidiabetic drugs

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199
Q

class? Amylin agonists

A

antidiabetic drugs

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200
Q

class? Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

A

antidiabetic drugs

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201
Q

class? Glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonists

A

antidiabetic drugs

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202
Q

class? Dual-acting GLP1 and glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide receptor agonists

A

antidiabetic drugs

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203
Q

biguanide drug?

A

metformin

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204
Q

specific class? Metformin

A

biguanide

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205
Q

other uses for metformin/biguanides?

A

metabolic-syndrome type disorders like PCOS

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206
Q

drugs used in PCOS?

A

metformin (biguanides)

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207
Q

does metformin address major patho processes of diabetes?

A

yes

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208
Q

effect of metformin on insulin sensitivity?

A

improved

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209
Q

effect of metformin on hepatic gluconeogenesis?

A

decreased

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210
Q

effect of metformin on absorption of glucose by intestines?

A

decreased

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211
Q

effect of metformin on weight?

A

weight-neutral or weight loss

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212
Q

effect of metformin on platelets?

A

inhibition of platelet aggregation

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213
Q

effect of metformin on triglycerides?

A

decreased

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214
Q

effect of metformin on HDL?

A

increased

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215
Q

effect of metformin on LDL?

A

decreased

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216
Q

what generally improves triglyceride levels in DM?

A

better glycemic control

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217
Q

when is metformin primarily used?

A

first line for DM

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218
Q

what are most prominent side effects with metformin?

A

GI

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219
Q

examples of GI side effects with Metformin?

A

bloating, nausea, and diarrhea

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220
Q

how should metformin be dosed?

A

start low and titrate slow

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221
Q

how to reduce side effects with metformin?

A

start low and titrate slow

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222
Q

deficiency of what can be caused by metformin?

A

vitamin B12

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223
Q

patients on metformin should be monitored for deficiency of what?

A

vitamin B12

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224
Q

rare but serious side effect with metformin?

A

lactic acidosis

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225
Q

what increases the risk for lactic acidosis with metformin?

A

comorbid conditions (renal dysfunction)

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226
Q

hypoglycemia with metformin?

A

rare (not an insulin secretagogue)

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227
Q

side effect of metformin re: liver?

A

hepatitis (Rare)

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228
Q

effect of metformin on TSH?

A

decreased TSH levels

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229
Q

when is thyroid function most likely to be altered with metformin?

A

first 6 months

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230
Q

what patients are at risk for decreased TSH with metformin?

A

those with abnormal thyroid function

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231
Q

possible life threatening side effect of metformin?

A

lactic acidosis

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232
Q

does metformin cause more insulin to be released from the pancreatic beta cells?

A

no

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233
Q

strategy to avoid adverse effects of metformin?

A

start low and titrate slow

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234
Q

why should metformin be used cautiously in older adult population?

A

liver and kidney dysfunction due to aging

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235
Q

why is severe renal dysfunction a contraindication for metformin?

A

increased risk for lactic acidosis

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236
Q

acute or chronic metabolic acidosis is a contraindication for what drug?

A

metformin (biguanides)

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237
Q

hypoperfusion of the kidneys increases risk of what with metformin?

A

lactic acidosis

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238
Q

patients with hypoxia are at increased risk for what with metformin?

A

lactic acidosis

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239
Q

alcoholics with severe liver dysfunction are at increased risk for what with metformin?

A

lactic acidosis

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240
Q

patients with liver dysfunction are at risk for what with metformin?

A

lactic acidosis

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241
Q

what may happen when IV contrast given with metformin?

A

renal dysfunction

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242
Q

can you give metformin if DKA?

A

no

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243
Q

two example drugs of sulfonylureas?

A

glyburide and glipizide

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244
Q

glyburide and glipizide drug class?

A

sulfonylurea

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245
Q

glyburide drug class?

A

sulfonylurea

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246
Q

glipizide drug class?

A

sulfonylurea

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247
Q

are sulfonylureas insulin secretagogues?

A

yes

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248
Q

can hypoglycemia occur with sulfonylureas?

A

yes

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249
Q

when is hypoglycemia most likely to occur with sulfonylureas?

A

especially with older generation drugs

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250
Q

hypoglycemia can be WHAT with sulfonylureas?

A

life-threatening

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251
Q

weight gain with sulfonylureas?

A

yes

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252
Q

how to minimize GI upset with sulfonylureas?

A

divide up the dose

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253
Q

what drug class may produce disulfram-like reaction with alcohol?

A

sulfonylureas

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254
Q

what causes disulfram like reaction with sulfonylureas?

A

alcohol

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255
Q

what is increased in disulfram reaction with sulfonylureas?

A

increased serum acetaldehyde

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256
Q

signs of disulfram reaction?

A

sweating, palpitations, flushing, N/V, vertigo, hypotension, tachycardia

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257
Q

signs of what? Sweating, palpitations, flusing, N/V, vertigo, hypotension, tachycardia

A

disulfram-like reaction (sulfonylureas + alcohol)

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258
Q

blood cell dyscrasias- what antidiabetic class?

A

sulfonylureas

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259
Q

what are signs of blood cell dyscrasias?

A

evidence of infections (WBCs), easy bruising/bleeding (platelets), fatigue/pallor (RBCs)

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260
Q

sulfonylureas- antidiuretic effects?

A

yes

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261
Q

why should patients report edema, weight gain, SOB with sulfonylureas?

A

antidiruetic effects

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262
Q

what is the exception to antidiuretic effects with sulfonylureas?

A

glyburide

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263
Q

glyburide does what to fluid balance?

A

mild diuresis

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264
Q

are sulfonylureas usually first line drugs?

A

no

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265
Q

what is an insulin secretagogue?

A

increases amount of insulin being released from the pancreas

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266
Q

why should we use newer generation sulfonylureas?

A

less risk of hypoglycemia

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267
Q

how should we divide doses of sulfonylureas?

A

divide into two doses

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268
Q

use of sulfonylureas with what may mask hypoglycemia?

A

alcohol

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269
Q

what type of risk is posed with long-term use of sulfonylureas?

A

cardiovascular risk

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5
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270
Q

what drug should not be used in older patients as may mask hypoglycemia?

A

glyburide

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271
Q

what happens when sulfonylureas used in pregnancy?

A

risk for severe neonatal hypoglycemia

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272
Q

sulfonylureas in lactation?

273
Q

sulfonylureas in pediatrics?

A

cautious use

274
Q

sulfonylureas in type 1 DM?

275
Q

oral drugs in DKA?

276
Q

sulfonyulreas in severe hepatic dysfunction?

277
Q

sulfonylureas in severe renal dysfunction?

278
Q

sulfonyulreas in uncontrolled infection, burns, trauma?

279
Q

sulfonylureas in patients that are unstable?

A

no- increased risk for hypoglycemia

280
Q

what antidiabetic agent is preferred in pregnancy?

281
Q

when are thiazolidinediones used?

A

type 2 diabetes

282
Q

can TZDs be used alone?

283
Q

specific class? Pioglitzaone

A

thiazolidinediones

284
Q

specific class? Rosiglitazone

A

thiazolidinediones

285
Q

what effect do TZDs have in insulin resistance?

286
Q

does insulin have to be present to decrease insulin resistance?

287
Q

how to TZDs decrease insulin resistance?

A

activation of the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma

288
Q

peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma- involved in what class?

A

thiazolidinediones

289
Q

gene transcription is regulated so that proteins are produced in the cell that help insulin to act in the cell- what class?

A

thiazolidinediones

290
Q

what is regulated in TZDs to help proteins be produced to allow insulin to act in the cell?

A

gene transcription

291
Q

weight gain with TZDs?

292
Q

edema with TZDs?

A

yes (fluid volume expansion)

293
Q

fluid volume expansion can be significant and progress to what with TZDs?

A

heart failure

294
Q

why is there edema and potential HF with TZDs?

A

decreased urinary excretion of sodium and water

296
Q

fluid volume expansion can be significant and progress to what with TZDs?

A

heart failure

297
Q

why is there edema and potential HF with TZDs?

A

decreased urinary excretion of sodium and water

298
Q

what causes plasma volume expansion with TZDs?

A

decreased urinary excretion of sodium and water

299
Q

what happens to vascular permeability with TZDs?

A

increased vascular permeability

300
Q

what does increased vascular permeability cause with TZDs?

301
Q

heart failure exacerbation- possible with what antidiabetic class?

A

thiazolidinediones

302
Q

hypertension can be caused by what antidiabetic class?

A

thiazolidinediones

303
Q

cholestatic hepatitis- adverse effect of what antidiabetic class?

A

thiazolidinediones

304
Q

cholestatic hepatitis in TZDs- prevalence?

305
Q

hepatotoxicity in TZDs- prevalence?

306
Q

macular edema- what antidiabetic class?

A

thiazolidinediones

307
Q

what causes decrease in hemoglobin with TZDs?

A

increase in plasma volume

308
Q

what is a marker for increased plasma volume with TZDs?

A

decreased hemoglobin

309
Q

decreased hemoglobin- what antidiabetic class?

A

thiazolidinediones

310
Q

effect of TZDs on liver function?

A

elevated LFTs; hepatotoxicity possible but is rare

311
Q

patients taking what antidiabetics should monitor for edema and weight gain?

A

thiazolidinediones

312
Q

what antidiabetic agent should be used cautiously in HIV?

A

thiazolidinediones

313
Q

what can happen if TZD taken on HAART?

A

increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels

314
Q

increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels increase the risk for what? (antidiabetic context)

A

pancreatitis

315
Q

macular edema is also a contraindication for what class?

A

thiazolidinediones

316
Q

what antidiabetic class can cause ovulation?

A

thiazolidinediones

317
Q

TZDs in pregnancy?

A

only if benefits clearly outweigh risks

318
Q

TZDs in lactation?

319
Q

NYHA class III or class IV- contraindication for what antidiabetic class?

A

thiazolidinediones

320
Q

any volume overload situation- contraindication for what antidiabetic class?

A

thiazolidinediones

321
Q

what antidiabetic class is contraindicated during an acute coronary event?

A

thiazolidinediones

322
Q

what is the rule for ALT contraindications in TZDs?

A

ALT > 2.5x upper limit of normal

323
Q

development of jaundice signals what?

A

hepatic injury

324
Q

active bladder cancer or risk for bladder neoplasm- contraindication for what drug?

A

pioglitazone

325
Q

class? Acarbose

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

326
Q

class? Miglitol

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

327
Q

two example drugs of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?

A

acarbose and miglitol

328
Q

acarbose and miglitol- class?

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

329
Q

where do alpha-glucosidase inhibitors act?

A

small bowel

330
Q

what do AGIs compete with in the small bowel?

A

complex carbohydrates

331
Q

class? Act in small bowel to compete with complex carbohydrates for digestion?

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

332
Q

where does induction of digestive enzyme occur with AGIs?

A

large intestine

333
Q

what may patient experience over weeks to months when starting AGIs?

A

excessive flatus and abdominal bloating

334
Q

when do AGIs lower blood glucose relative to meals?

A

postprandial lowering of blood glucose

335
Q

effect of AGIs on A1c?

A

reduction over time

336
Q

are AGIs insulin secretagogues?

337
Q

what benefit can AGIs have if given with sulfonylureas?

A

mitigate the weight gain that tends to happen with sulfonylureas

338
Q

what antidiabetic class can worsen underlying bowel disease?

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

339
Q

Chron disease or ulcerative colitis can be worsened by what antidiabetic class?

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

340
Q

why do patients often discontinue AGIs?

A

Gi side effects (diarrhea, abdominal pain, excessive gas, bloating)

341
Q

what can minimize adverse effects of AGIs?

A

slow titration

342
Q

when can hypoglycemia occur with AGIs?

A

if combined with other medications that cause hypoglycemia

343
Q

are AGIs used for monotherapy?

344
Q

when may adverse effects dissipate with AGIs?

A

first two weeks at same dose

345
Q

when can adverse effects return with AGIs?

A

when a dose is increased

346
Q

AGIs in pregnancy?

A

safety not established- avoid use

347
Q

AGIs in lactation?

348
Q

AGIs in children?

A

safety not established

349
Q

AGIs in severe renal impairment?

350
Q

what should be monitored with AGIs? (acarbose)

A

AST, ALT, renal function

351
Q

AGIs in bowel disorders?

352
Q

what antidiabetic class is contraindicated with use of any intestinal absorbents?

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

353
Q

what antidiabetic class is contraindicated with use of prescribed digestive enzymes?

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

354
Q

when should AGIs be taken?

A

first bite of a meal

355
Q

what antidiabetic class should be taken with the first bite of a meal?

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

356
Q

what antidiabetic class is contraindicated with charcoal?

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

357
Q

intestinal adsorbents are contraindicated with what antidiabetic class?

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

358
Q

are meglitinides monotherapy?

A

usually not

359
Q

indication for meglitinides?

A

type 2 diabetes

360
Q

nateglinide- class?

A

meglitinides

361
Q

repaglinide- class?

A

meglitinides

362
Q

are meglitinides insulin secretagogues?

363
Q

can meglitinides cause hypoglycemia?

364
Q

meglitinides effect on postprandial glucose?

365
Q

describe meglitinides effect on postprandial glucose?

A

proportional to the level of postprandial hyperglycemia

366
Q

two examples of meglitinides?

A

nateglinide, repaglinide

367
Q

nateglinide and repaglinide- class?

A

meglitinides

368
Q

when should repaglinide be given?

A

30 minutes before meals

369
Q

when should nateglinide be given?

A

1-30 minutes before meals

370
Q

do insulin secretagogues work with minimal beta cell function?

371
Q

severe hepatic impairment with meglitinides?

A

cautious use and adjustment

372
Q

severe renal impairment with meglitinides?

A

cause use and adjustment

373
Q

repaglinide should not be combined with what drug?

A

gemfibrozil

374
Q

gemfibrozil should not be combined with what antidiabetic drug?

A

repaglinide

375
Q

meglitinides- pregnancy?

A

safety not established- avoid use

376
Q

meglitinides- lactation?

A

safety not established- avoid use

377
Q

meglitinides- pediatrics?

A

safety not established- avoid use

378
Q

combination of what two antidiabetic drugs has caused myocardial ischemia?

A

repaglinide and NPH insulin

379
Q

SGLT2 inhibitors- stands for what?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

380
Q

SGLT2 inhibitors- indications?

A

type 2 diabetes as monotherapy or combination therapy

381
Q

can SGLT2 inhibitors be used as monotherapy?

382
Q

canagliflozin- class?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

383
Q

empagliflozin- class?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

384
Q

dapagliflozin- class?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

385
Q

ertugliflozin- class?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

386
Q

what antidiabetic class inhibits reabsorption of glucose in kidney proximal tubule?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

387
Q

what antidiabetic class causes increased excretion of glucose in the urine?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

388
Q

where to SGLT2s work?

A

renal proximal tubule

389
Q

how to SGLT2s lower blood glucose?

A

increased glucose excretion in the urine

390
Q

what antidiabetic class can cause hypovolemia?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

391
Q

what causes hypovolemia with SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

osmotic diuresis

392
Q

what antidiabetic class can cause genital fungal infections?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

393
Q

what antidiabetic class can cause UTI?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

394
Q

what antidiabetic class can cause intravascular volume depletion?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

395
Q

what antidiabetic class can cause increased LDL cholesterol?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

396
Q

what antidiabetic class can cause increased hemoglobin?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

397
Q

what is SGLT2 effect on hemoglobin?

398
Q

why can SLGT2 inhibitors increase hemoglobin?

A

intravascular volume contraction

399
Q

what antidiabetic class poses a risk for DKA?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

400
Q

what two conditions may experience DKA with SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

type 1 and type 2 DM

401
Q

what antidiabetic class can cause bone loss and fracture?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

402
Q

what antidiabetic class can cause lower extremity infection?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

403
Q

what antidiabetic class is associated with risk for amputation?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

404
Q

when can hypoglycemia happen with SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

when combined with insulin or insulin secretagogues

405
Q

what class of drugs is used in HFrEF and diabetes?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

406
Q

what antidiabetic class should be used cautiously with osteoporosis?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

407
Q

what antidiabetic drug has a black box warning for risk for amputation?

A

canagliflozin

408
Q

what antidiabetic drug should not be used with a history of amputation?

A

canagliflozin

409
Q

SGLT2s- use in severe renal dysfunction?

A

contraindication

410
Q

can SGLT2 inhibitors be used in DKA or type 1?

411
Q

can SGLT2 inhibitors be used in DKA?

412
Q

can SGLT2 inhibitors be used in T1DM?

413
Q

what are the risks with intravascular volume depletion in SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

syncope and falls

414
Q

what should be monitored with SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

renal function, electrolytes, volume status

415
Q

what antidiabetic drug is associated with increased risk for fractures?

A

canagliflozin

416
Q

what electrolyte imbalance may occur with SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

hyperkalemia

417
Q

what antidiabetic class may cause hyperkalemia?

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

418
Q

antidiuretics and antihypertensives may worsen intravascular volume depletion with what drug class? (antidiabetics)

A

selective sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

419
Q

peripheral vascular disease is a contraindication for what antidiabetic drug?

A

canagliflozin

420
Q

neuropathy is a contraindication for what antidiabetic drug?

A

canagliflozin

421
Q

history of leg ulcers is a contraindication for what antidiabetic drug?

A

canagliflozin

422
Q

history of leg infection is a contraindication for what antidiabetic drug?

A

canagliflozin

423
Q

current leg ulcer or infection are contraindications for what antidiabetic drug?

A

canagliflozin

424
Q

amylin agonists use in type 2 dm?

425
Q

amylin agonists use in type 1 dm?

426
Q

are amylin agonists first line therapy?

427
Q

pramlintide- class?

A

amylin agonists

428
Q

example drug of amylin agonists?

A

pramlintide

429
Q

what effect does pramlintide have on gastric emptying?

430
Q

how do amylin agonists affect weight?

A

possible weight loss

431
Q

what does weight loss in DM accomplish?

A

improve insulin sensitivity

432
Q

what is the black box warning with pramlintide?

A

severe hypoglycemia (esp in type 1 dm)

433
Q

what effect do amylin agonists have on glucagon?

A

decreased glucagon secretion

434
Q

what effect do amylin agonists have on appetite?

A

central inhibition of appetite

435
Q

who is most at risk for severe hypoglycemia with amylin agonists?

A

type 1 diabetics

436
Q

what are the GI adverse effects of amylin agonists?

A

nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, decreased appetite

437
Q

how to minimize GI adverse effects with amylin agonists?

A

gradually titrate to desired dosing

438
Q

amylin synthetic analogue that acts like endogenous amylin- class?

A

amylin agonists

439
Q

what antidiabetic class is contraindicated with gastroparesis?

A

amylin agonists

440
Q

why are amylin agonists contraindicated with gastroparesis?

A

might worsen it due to delayed gastric emptying effects

441
Q

what antidiabetic class is contraindicated in hx of severe hypoglycemia?

A

amylin agonists

442
Q

what antidiabetic class should be avoided in noncompliance?

A

amylin agonists

443
Q

why should amylin agonists be used cautiously in older adults?

A

may not be aware of hypoglycemia

444
Q

amylin agonists- pregnancy?

A

safety not established- avoid use

445
Q

amylin agonists- lactation?

A

safety not established- avoid use

446
Q

what does DPP4 stand for?

A

dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

447
Q

another name for DPP4 inhibitors?

448
Q

when are DPP4 inhibitors used?

A

type 2 diabetes

449
Q

sitagliptin- class?

A

dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

450
Q

saxagliptin- class?

A

dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

451
Q

linagliptin- class?

A

dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

452
Q

alogliptin- class?

A

dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

453
Q

what antidiabetic class slows the breakdown of GLP-1?

A

dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

454
Q

how do DPP4 inhibitors work?

A

slow the breakdown of GLP1

455
Q

what is the benefit of slowing the breakdown of GLP1 with DPP4 inhibitors?

A

allow it to exert its effects longer

456
Q

what does GLP1 do to gastric emptying?

457
Q

what does GLP1 do to glucagon secretion?

458
Q

what does GLP1 do to beta cell mass?

459
Q

what does GLP1 do to insulin synthesis?

460
Q

what does GLP1 do to appetite?

461
Q

joint pain- adverse effect of what antidiabetic class?

A

dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

462
Q

hypoglycemia with DPP4 inhibitors?

463
Q

urinary and respiratory tract infection- what antidiabetic class?

A

dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

464
Q

can you see weight loss with DPP4 inhibitors?

465
Q

can renal dysfunction occur with DPP4 inhibitors?

466
Q

what antidiabetic class can cause bulbous phemphgoid?

A

dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

467
Q

what antidiabetic class can cause SJS?

A

dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

468
Q

what antidiabetic class can cause heart failure?

A

dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

469
Q

what antidiabetic class can cause rhabdomyolysis?

A

dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

470
Q

lab monitoring with DPP4 inhibitors?

A

renal function, electrolytes, volume status

471
Q

teach patients to monitor for signs of what with DPP4 inhibitors?

A

heart failure

472
Q

DPP4 inhibitors- pregnancy?

A

safety not established- avoid use

473
Q

DPP4 inhibitors- lactation?

A

safety not established- avoid use

474
Q

DPP4 inhibitors- pediatrics?

A

safety not established- avoid use

475
Q

can GLP1 agonists be used in type 1?

476
Q

can GLP1 agonists be monotherapy?

477
Q

can GLP1 agonists be combination therapy?

478
Q

exenatide- class?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

479
Q

liraglutide- class?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

480
Q

lixisenatide- class?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

481
Q

dulaglutide- class?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

482
Q

semaglutide- class?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

483
Q

what class acts like endogenous GLP1?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

484
Q

effect of GLP1 agonists on insulin synthesis?

485
Q

effect of GLP1 agonists on beta cell mass?

486
Q

effect of GLP1 agonists on gastric emptying?

487
Q

effect of GLP1 agonists on appetite?

488
Q

effect of GLP1 agonists on triglycerides?

489
Q

effect of GLP1 agonists on systolic blood pressure?

490
Q

which antidiabetic class can reduce SBP?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

491
Q

effect of GLP1 agonists on glucagon secretion?

A

suppressed

492
Q

GI adverse effects of GLP1 agonists?

A

nausea vomiting

493
Q

GI adverse effects of GLP1 agonists? Improve or not

A

tend to resolve over time

494
Q

diarrhea or constipation with GLP1 agonists?

495
Q

gallbladder disease associated with which antidiabetic class?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

496
Q

biliary disease associated with which antidiabetic class?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

497
Q

pancreatic duct metaplasia associated with which antidiabetic class?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

498
Q

potential thyroid dysfunction and nodules- which antidiabetic class?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

499
Q

pancreatitis associated with which antidiabetic class?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

500
Q

elevated calcitonin levels associated with which antidiabetic class?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

501
Q

which antidiabetic class associated with acute kidney dysfunction/failure/injury?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

502
Q

immune thrombocytopenia associated with which antidiabetic drug?

503
Q

risk for hypoglycemia with GLP1 agonists?

A

small when used alone but only when combined with other drugs that cause hypoglycemia

504
Q

exenatide has been associated with what?

A

immune thrombocytopenia

505
Q

what antidiabetic class has been associated with thyroid cancer?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

506
Q

GLP1 agonist- route?

507
Q

how often to give GLP1 agonists?

A

once weekly

508
Q

when might GLP1 agonists not be effective?

A

if not adequate GLP1 receptors in the gut (lost in DM)

509
Q

when should GLP1 agonists be used?

A

in severe forms of GI disease- chrons or UC

510
Q

history of pancreatitis is a contraindication for what antidiabetic drug class?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

511
Q

endocrine neoplasia is a contraindication for what antidiabetic drug class?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

512
Q

what antidiabetic class is associated with neuroendocrine tumor precautions?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

513
Q

lab monitoring with GLP1 agonists?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

514
Q

GLP1 agonist- pregnancy?

A

safety not established- avoid use

515
Q

GLP1 agonist- lactation?

A

safety not established- avoid use

516
Q

GLP1 agonists should not be used alongside what other antidiabetic drug class?

A

dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

517
Q

medullary thyroid dysfunction- contraindication for what antidiabetic drug class?

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

518
Q

when should we monitor liver function with GLP1 agonists?

A

history of gallbladder or liver disease

519
Q

can GLP1 agonists be used with metformin?

A

yes- consider clinical siguation

520
Q

can you use GLP1 agonists with basal insulin?

A

yes- depending on clinical situation

521
Q

tirzepatide- class?

A

dual acting GLP1 and glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide receptor agonists

522
Q

tirzepatide indications? 2

A

diabetes type 2 and weight management

523
Q

tirzepatide, actions?

A

same as the GLP1 agonists alone

524
Q

what must be present for GLP1 agonists and GIP dual agonists to work?

525
Q

another name for HMG CoA reductase inhibitors?

526
Q

class- HMG CoA reductase inhibitors?

A

antilipidemics

527
Q

class- cholesterol absorption inhibitors?

A

antilipidemics

528
Q

class- bile acid sequestrants?

A

antilipidemics

529
Q

class- fibric acid derivatives?

A

antilipidemics

530
Q

class- niacin?

A

antilipidemics

531
Q

class- proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 9?

A

antilipidemics

532
Q

class- bempedoic acid?

A

antilipidemics

533
Q

what does PCSK9 stand for?

A

proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 9

534
Q

rosuvastatin- class?

535
Q

atorvastatin- class?

536
Q

two examples of statins?

A

rosuvastatin and atorvastatin

537
Q

class? Competitively block HMG CoA reductase

538
Q

what is HMG CoA reductase?

A

an enzyme required in cholesterol synthesis in the liver

539
Q

clinical uses of statins?

A

to decreases LDL and treat hyperlipidemia; includig hypertriglyceridemia

540
Q

what three levels do statins lower?

A

total cholesterol, LDL, apo B lipoprotein

541
Q

what other use do statins have?

A

prevention of atherosclerosis

542
Q

what is the FDA warning with statins?

A

concerns re: statins causing DM and cognitive dysfunction (memory and concentration)

543
Q

what are the manifestations of cognitive dysfunction caused by statins?

A

memory and concentration

544
Q

GI side effects of statins?

A

nausea, vomiting, pain/dyspepsis, constipation/diarrhea, flatulence

545
Q

what is the common muscular side effect of statins?

546
Q

what are the three muscular side effects of statins?

A

myalgia (common), myositis, rhabdomyolysis

547
Q

what is the potentially life-threatening side effect of statins?

A

rhabdomyolysis (can injure the kidneys and be life-threatening)

548
Q

characterize the risk of liver dysfunction with statins?

A

small- routine LFT testing not advised

549
Q

fatigue and flu-like symptoms seen with which antilipidemics?

550
Q

statins in active liver disease?

A

contraindication

551
Q

statins with heavy alcohol intake?

552
Q

statins with history of liver disease?

553
Q

statins in pregnancy?

A

most cases- absolutely contraindicated

554
Q

statins in women planning to become pregnant?

A

do not prescribe

555
Q

statins in lactation?

A

do not prescribe

556
Q

ezetimibe- specific class?

A

cholesterol absorption inhibitor

557
Q

can ezetimibe be used as monotherapy?

A

yes (for patients intolerant to statins)

558
Q

can ezetimibe be used as an adjunct to statins?

559
Q

what cholesterol metrics does ezetimibe affect?

A

LDL (reduction)

560
Q

what drug- inhibits the absorption of cholesterol at the brush border of the small intestine?

A

ezetimibe (cholesterol absorption inhibitor)

561
Q

what sources of cholesterol are inhibited by ezetimibe?

A

dietary and biliary sources

562
Q

where does ezetimibe inhibit cholesterol absorption?

A

brush border of the small intestine

563
Q

what drug? Decreased delivery of intestinal cholesterol to the liver?

A

ezetimibe (cholesterol absorption inhibitor)

564
Q

two significant adverse effects with ezetimibe?

A

acute liver injury; muscular- myalga, myopathy, rhabdomyolysis

565
Q

ezetimibe in active liver disease?

A

contraindication

566
Q

colestipol- specific class?

A

bile acid sequestrants

567
Q

cholestyramine- specific class?

A

bile acid sequestrants

568
Q

colestipol- broad class?

A

antilipidemics

569
Q

cholestyramine- broad class?

A

antilipidemics

570
Q

effect of bile acid sequestrants on LDL?

571
Q

effect of bile acid sequestrants on HDL?

A

some increase

572
Q

class? Chloride ions are exchanged with bile acids (negatively charged)

A

bile acid sequestrants

573
Q

what effect do bile acid sequestrants have on bile acid?

A

more bile acid is excreted

574
Q

class? Liver converts more cholesterol to bile acids along with an upregulation of LDL recptors on cell membranes

A

bile acid sequestrants

575
Q

constipation that can lead to impaction- antilipidemic class?

A

bile acid sequestrants

576
Q

folate deficiency seen in which antilipidemic class?

A

bile acid sequestrants

577
Q

(rare) urine has an odor of something being burned? Antilipidemic class?

A

bile acid sequestrants

578
Q

down or upregulation of LDL receptors on cell membranes with bile acid sequestrants?

A

upregulation

579
Q

gemfibrozil- specific class?

A

fibric acid derivatives

580
Q

fenofibrate- specific class?

A

fibric acid derivatives

581
Q

gemfibrozil- general class?

A

antilipidemics

582
Q

fenofibrate- general class?

A

antilipidemics

583
Q

class? Act by causing an increase in lipolysis of triglycerides by using lipoprotein lipases

A

fibric acid derivatives

584
Q

class? Decreases VLDL synthesis by the liver

A

fibric acid derivatives

585
Q

what antilipidemic class is linked to gallstones?

A

fibric acid derivatives

586
Q

what antilipidemic class is linked to decreased hemoglobin, HCT, WBC?

A

fibric acid derivatives

587
Q

fibric acid derivatives- pregnancy?

588
Q

class? Reduce hypertriglyceridemia with indirect elevation of HDL cholesterol d/t lowering of triglyceride levels

A

fibric acid derivatives

589
Q

class? Assists to avoid pancreatitis in hypertriglyceridemia?

A

fibric acid derivatives

590
Q

what antilipidemic drug is not longer favored?

591
Q

what antilipidemic drug has been removed from guidelines for therapy?

592
Q

what antilipidemic drug? No efficacy in decreasing cardiovascular endpoints and all-cause mortality

593
Q

why has niacin been removed from guidelines?

A

no efficacy in decreasing cardiovascular endpoints and all-cause mortality

594
Q

monoclonal antibodies- specific class?

A

PCSK9 inhibitors

595
Q

monoclonal antibodies- broad class?

A

PCSK9 inhibitors

596
Q

class? Reduction in LDL cholesterol usually in those with atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease or familial hypercholesterolemia

A

PCSK9 inhibitors

597
Q

class? Alteration of an LDL transporter protein so that it transports more LDL to the liver to be used again

A

PCSK9 inhibitors

598
Q

what is the overall effect of PCSK9 inhibitors?

A

more LDL removed from circulation

599
Q

what do PCSK9 inhibitors do in the liver?

A

upregulation of LDL receptors in the liver

600
Q

PCSK9 inhibitors- adverse effects?

A

usually well-tolerated

601
Q

class? Mild injection site reactions- erythema, redness, mild swelling

A

PCSK9 inhibitors

602
Q

reduction in LDL cholesterol in those with ASCVD (secondary prevention)?

A

bempedoic acid

603
Q

class? Those with heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia

A

bempedoic acid

604
Q

class? An adenosine triphosphate-citrate lyase inhibitor that inhibits cholesterol production by the liver

A

bempedoic acid

605
Q

adenosine triphosphate citrate lyase is involved in synthesis of what?

A

cholesterol

606
Q

where does bempedoic acid work relative to statins?

A

before the HMG CoA reductase step that the statins inhibit

607
Q

why does bempedoic acid lower LDL cholesterol?

A

because more LDL receptors are expressed

608
Q

what antilipidemic class? Hyperuricemia and gout can occur

A

bempedoic acid

609
Q

what antilipidemic class? Tendon rupture

A

bempedoic acid

610
Q

is bempedoic acid first line therapy?

611
Q

contraindications for bempedoic acid?

A

no known contraindications except precautions re: using in the setting of hyperuricemia and/or gout

612
Q

what is preferred over natural pork-derived thyroid hormone?

A

synthetic levothyroxine

613
Q

synthetic levothyroxine is preferred over what?

A

pork-derived thyroid hormone

614
Q

synthetic levothyroxine acts like what?

A

body’s endogenous thyroid hormone

615
Q

what results in increased metabolic rate in all tissues with concomitent increased O2 consumption?

A

thyroid hormone

616
Q

effect of thyroid hormone on protein metabolism?

617
Q

effect of thyroid hormone on enzyme activity?

618
Q

effect of thyroid hormone on fat metabolism?

619
Q

effect of thyroid hormone on temperature?

620
Q

effect of thyroid hormone on HR?

621
Q

effect of thyroid hormone on respiratory rate?

622
Q

effective of thyroid hormone on growth, differentiation, and tissue maturation?

623
Q

what is the cause of adverse effects with thyroid hormone therapy?

A

those of hyperthyroidism

624
Q

HR with hyperthyroidism?

625
Q

respiratory rate with hyperthyroidism?

626
Q

gastrointestinal motility with hyperthyroidism?

627
Q

weight with hyperthyroidism?

A

weight loss

628
Q

heat tolerance with hyperthyroidism?

A

heat intolerance

629
Q

cardiac effects with hyperthyroidism?

A

chest pain, acute coronary syndromes, cardiac dysrhythmias

630
Q

menstrual effects with hyperthyroidism?

A

menstrual alterations

631
Q

what are the symptoms associated with increased GI motility with hyperthyroidism?

A

diarrhea and vomiting

632
Q

what should patients be cautioned about with thyroid hormone?

A

signs and symptoms of both hypo/hyper thyroidism

633
Q

what should patients be taught to monitor with thyroid hormone?

A

heart rate

634
Q

what thyroid dysfunction is very important to treat in pregnancy?

A

hypothyroidism

635
Q

what state may require higher doses of thyroid hormone?

636
Q

why might there be an increased dosage need for thyroid hormone in pregnancy?

A

higher metabolic demand in pregnancy

637
Q

thyroid hormone may exacerbate symptoms of what two conditions?

A

diabetes insipidus and adrenal insufficiency

638
Q

what medication may precipitate adrenal crisis? (endocrine med)

A

thyroid hormone

639
Q

how is adrenal crisis treated?

A

adrenocorticosteroids

640
Q

what is the TSH goal for patients with osteoporosis?

A

upper limits of normal

641
Q

what may happen to bone density with thyroid hormone therapy?

A

may decrease

642
Q

what usually causes the bone density decrease with thyroid hormone therapy?

A

use of levothyroxine that causes subclinical hyperthyroidism

643
Q

cautious use of thyroid hormone in what disease process?

A

cardiovascular disease, especially older adults

644
Q

thyroid hormone should be avoided in acute WHAT?

A

acute coronary syndromes if possible

645
Q

use of levothyroxine to treat what three things is inappropriate in absence of a diagnosis?

A

obesity, infertility, and depression

646
Q

what effect does lithium have on the thyroid?

A

antithyroid

647
Q

what two things can lithium do re: thyroid?

A

may cause a goiter and hypothyroidism

648
Q

thyroid hormone replacement alongside what med may cause a goiter?

649
Q

concern for hypo/hyperthyroidism with lithium + thyroid hormone?

A

hypothyroidism

650
Q

in what three conditions may we try to suppress TSH?

A

thyroid cancer, nodules, euthyroid goiter

651
Q

dosing of thyroid hormone for thyroid suppression therapy?

A

2.5 mcg/kg daily for 7 to 10 days

652
Q

start at a lower/higher dose of levothyroxine than you would for hypothyroidism replacement?

653
Q

another name for for thionamides?

A

antithyroid drugs

654
Q

when are thionamides used?

A

hyperthyroidism

655
Q

two examples of antithyroid drugs?

A

propylthiouracil (PTU) and methimazole

656
Q

what type of drugs are propylthiouracil and methimazole?

A

thionamides

657
Q

what do thionamides do?

A

prevent the synthesis of thyroid hormones

658
Q

what two drugs are used to prevent the synthesis of thyroid hormone?

A

propylthiouracil (PTU) and methimazole

659
Q

effect of thionamides on preexisting thyroxine or triiodothyronine stored in thyroid gland?

A

not affected

660
Q

effect of thionamides on exogenously administered levothyroxine levels?

A

not affected

661
Q

how does propylthiouracil affect peripheral conversion of T4 to T3?

A

partial inhibition

662
Q

agranulocytosis and possible aplastic anemia- can occur with what endocrine drugs?

A

thionamides

663
Q

agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia with thionamides should prompt what?

A

discontinuation of the drug

664
Q

liver abnormality possible with thionamides?

665
Q

effect of thionamides on hair growth?

A

abnormal hair loss

666
Q

does abnormal hair loss from thionamides resolve with d/c of the drug?

667
Q

what is the black box warning for propylthiouracil?

A

liver failure

668
Q

what should I consult if pregnant patient requires thionamide?

A

nationally-recognized guidelines

669
Q

what thionamide is preferrred in children?

A

methimazole

670
Q

what three thyroid levels should be monitored with thionamides?

A

T4, T3, and TSH

671
Q

why should we monitor a CBC after initiating a thionamide?

A

to monitor for agranulocytosis

672
Q

under what circumstances should we monitor LFTs after starting a thionamide?

A

after initiation of therapy if there is evidence of s/s of liver disease and in those with hx of liver dysfunction

673
Q

what type of foods should be avoided with thionamides?

A

iodine-containing foods

674
Q

class? Replacement of pancreatic enzymes

A

exocrine pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy

675
Q

what drugs act like the body’s endogenous pancreatic exocrine enzymes?

A

exocrine pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy

676
Q

what is the purpose of exocrine pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy?

A

assistance with digestion of nutrients to maintain health

677
Q

cystic fibrosis can result in what?

A

pancreatic exocrine enzyme deficiency

678
Q

pancreatitis can result in deficiency of what?

A

exocrine pancreatic enzymes