Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

D2 Summer - Microbio > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which is NOT a property of the keystone pathogen for periodontitis?

A

> C: becomes the main species present in disease sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which bacterium is considered the keystone pathogen for periodontitis?

A

> E: Porphyromonas gingivalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which disease has oral manifestations that include gummas?

A

> A: syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which Streptococcal virulence factor is correlated with the progression of infective endocarditis?

A

PAAF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5 Which of the following is characteristic of Ludwig’s angina?

A

> D: infection is polymicrobial (multiple species)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

6 How do mucins act as antibacterial agents? 1/1

A

> E: mucins aggregate and clear oral bacteria via lectin-like interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

8 Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans is very typically associated with which oral disease? 1/1

A

> D: aggressive periodontitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is one of the types of oral bacteria strongly associated with acute necrotizing ulceratize gingivitis? Answer:

A

Answer 1: Fusobacterium nucleatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a property characteristic of cariogenic bacteria (versus noncariogenic bacteria)?

A

> C: presence of acid stress response proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name a bacterium that is a common late colonizer of dental plaque when oxygen is depleted, especially between teeth?

A

Prevotella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is true of dental plaque?

A

Sugar consumption causes increased levels of streptococcus mutans in plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What bacterial gene is used in current methods for classifying bacteria, including identifying new species?

A

16s RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which property of bacteria in a dental biofilm is associated with decreasing the risk of dental caries?

A

> E: upregulation of ammonia production from arginine and urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What bacterium lacks peptidoglycan and is the agent of the most sexually transmitted infections, characterized by mucopurulent discharges?

A

> C: Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which organism is an obligate intracellular pathogen?

A

> A: Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

17 Which form of Chlamydia replicates within a host cell?

A

Answer 1: reticulate body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

: 18 Bacteria of which genus are transmitted to humans by bites of infected ticks? 1/1

A

Rickettsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a symptom of late stage, chronic disease associate with Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

20 What is uniquely associated with congenital syphilis?

A

> E: mulberry molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name a bacterium that may be detectable by an acid-fast staining test of a sputum smear. Answer: __1__

A

Answer 1: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is true for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

> C: the bacterium exhibits a very slow growth rate (doubling time of 1 day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

23 What is a property of the bacterial agent of Legionnaires’ disease?

A

> D: lives in amoeba in water sources within ventilation systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name a bacterium that survives in alveolar macrophages. Answer: __1__

A

Answer 1: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What type of virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is specifically correlated with the ability of these bacteria to cause systemic infections?

A

Capsule B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes, producing characteristic swellings called “bubos.”

A

Answer 1: Yersenia pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

27 Which of the following is true about Bacillus anthracis?

A

> B: produces a metallo-protease called lethal factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which Clostridium species is part of the normal human bacterial flora? Answer: __1__

A

C. difficle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

29 Botulism results in 1/1

A

> E: flaccid muscle paralysis due to blocking release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

These gram positive rods establish themselves in the throat and kill cells by expressing a toxin that ADP- ribosylates elongation factor 2, causing inhibition of cellular translation.

A

> C: Corynebacterium diphtheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a property of the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan that is the tracheal cytotoxin of Bordetella pertussis?

A

> B: it is shed from bacterial cells instead of being absorbed and recycled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

32 The ability of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to produce a biofilm is dependent on 1/1

A

> B: alginate production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

33 What pathogen resides in the stomach and induces the host to secrete urea through the mucosal epithelium?

A

Answer 1: Helicobacter pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which enteric bacterium is acquired as a zoonotic infection, often from undercooked chicken, and causes a mild, self-limiting gastroenteritis?

A

> E: Campylobacter jejune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a property of cholera toxin and the system for spreading the genes encoding it?

A

> D: the toxin genes are encoded in a phage genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is true about cholera?

A

> B: supportive rehydration therapy is the main method used for treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which enteric bacterium can invade M cells in the gut, survive in macrophages, and eventually infect many different organs in the body?

A

> A: Salmonella enterica serovar typhi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

L I 38 Most cases of cytitis (bladder infections) are caused by which bacterial genus? 1/1

A

> A: Escherichia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

L I 39 What is the effect of shiga toxin on the host? 1/1

A

> C: removal of a specific adenine base from 28S rRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication of infection by which organism?

A

> B: Escherichia coli O157:H7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which programmed alteration of bacterial cell-surface protein expression is due to recombination of silent gene loci into the expressed gene locus for the protein?

A

> A: antigenic variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following is the mostly likely characteristic of Campylobacter jejune?

A

> C: acquired as a zoonotic infection, often from undercooked chicken, and causes a mild, self-limiting gastroenteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

To what surface feature of enteric bacteria does the term H-antigen refer?

A

flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is not a property associated with Salmonella enterica serovar typhi?

A

> C: produces a cholera-like toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which bacterium produces the vast majority (70-90%) of urinary tract infections (bladder infections, for example)?

A

> B: Escherichia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Bacteroides fragilis is the most frequently isolated bacterium from abscesses caused by intestinal bacteria. This is partly because

A

> D: its ability to resist phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following is not a virulence factor for Helicobacter pylori?

A

> D: Shiga-like toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Shiga toxin

A

> C: removes a specific adenine base from 28S rRNA, stopping translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which of the following is not a property of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

> E: obligate intracellular pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

These gram positive pleiomorphic rods produce a pseudomembrane in the throat that can block the airway.

A

> C: Corynebacterium diphtheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Clostridium botulinum produces an A-B exotoxin that blocks the release of which neurotransmitter from axon endings at neuromuscular junctions?

A

> A: acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which Clostridial species is part of the normal human bacterial flora?

A

> B: Clostridium difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which organism produces alpha toxin (a lecithinase-phospholipase C) and theta toxin (a hemolytic toxin), that partially account for the organism’s tissue-destructiveness that often requires amputation to save the patient’s life?

A

> C: Clostridium perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following best describes tetanospasmin, a virulence factor for Clostridium tetani?

A

> D: A-B exotoxin that blocks release of the neurotransmitter glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically mainly from contact with wild animals such as birds, rabbits, or tick bites. The bacteria are able to grow in macrophages, resulting in systemic spread that can lead to ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, and pulmonary infections. A vaccine is available for high-risk individuals.

A

> B: Francisella tularensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What virulence property does Haemophilus influenzae capsule b confer on these bacteria?

A

> A: allows the bacteria to cause systemic infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What bacterium lives inside amoeba in the environment and is typically transmitted by an aerosol route to humans through ventilation systems in buildings?

A

> A: Legionella pneumophila

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes, where it can cause a purulent infection. In some individuals the bacteria can subsequently spread to the lungs and be
transmitted by aerosol from human to human.

A

> A: Yersinia pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of the following is true for cord factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

> B: is a glycolipid that adheres to cell surface mycolic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which of the following is true for leprosy?

A

> A: individuals normally clear the bacterial agent via cell-mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Bacteria of which genus are Gram positive filamentous rods that are opportunistic pathogens, causing bronchopulmonary infections and brain abscesses?

A

> C: Nocardia

61
Q

A zoonotic disease is associated with which of the following bacteria?

A

> B: Borrelia burgdorferi

62
Q

Which form of Chlamydia replicates within a host cell?

A

> D: reticulate body

63
Q

What is true about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

> D: immune protection fades after recovery from infection

64
Q

Bacteria of which genus cause Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

> A: Rickettsia

65
Q

Which of the following is best associated with the viridans Streptococci?

A

> C: dental caries

66
Q

What role does catalase have for those pathogenic bacteria that express it?

A

> C: Removes hydrogen peroxide produced by phagocytes

67
Q

Scarlet fever is a caused by what organism?

A

> A: Streptococcus pyogenes

68
Q

What symptoms are uniquely associated with tertiary syphilis?

A

> A: gummas

69
Q

What is true about antigenic variation involving the pilin protein of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

> C: involves recombination between silent and expressed copies of the pilin gene

70
Q

Which of the following virulence factors is the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan?

A

> B: tracheal cytotoxin of Bordetella pertussis

71
Q

Which of the following describes Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

> D: can grow at temperatures up to 43oC

72
Q

Blockage of acetylcholine release from host cells is caused by a virulence factor of which bacterium?

A

> D: Clostridium botulinum

73
Q

What spore forming bacterium produces an A-B exotoxin that blocks GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) release from axon endings of interneurons that control motor neurons within muscles?

A

> B: Clostridium tetani

74
Q

What bacterium grows at tempertures from 1oC to 45oC, is resistant to salt and acid conditions, and is a food-borne pathogen that causes systemic disease in immune-compromised individuals?

A

> B: Listeria monocytogenes

75
Q

What is true about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

> D: cells pass through filter that traps most other bacteria

76
Q

What is uniquely associated with congenital syphilis?

A

> E: Hutchinson’s incisors

77
Q

A pregnant 22-year-old woman was seen at an urgent care clinic and presented with fever, malaise, headache and a macular rash (flat, red) over much of her body. Upon questioning, she reported that about 1 year earlier she had a painless ulcer on her vagina that healed spontaneously after a few weeks. A diagnostic test revealed the pathogen and the likely connection between her previous and current symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis made following her urgent care visit?

A

> C: she has secondary syphilis

78
Q

Which bacteria are initial colonizers of the dental biofilm, binding to the salivary pellicle?

A

> C: Streptococcus gordonii

79
Q

Dental caries correlates with

A

> C: gingival recession that occurs with age

80
Q

Which oral bacteria are strongly associated with acute necrotizing ulceratize gingivitis?

A

> A: spirochetes plus Fusobacterium nucleatum

81
Q

Which genus is specifically associated with aggressive periodontitis?

A

> B: Aggregatibacter

82
Q

Which genus of bacteria are typicaly associated with salivary gland infections?

A

> D: Staphylococcus

83
Q

What enzymes create an extracellular network of branched sugar polymers within dental plaque?

A

> A: glucosyltransferases

84
Q

How does lysozyme act as an antibacterial agent?

A

> A: lysozyme cleaves the bond between N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid

85
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of periodontal abscesses?

A

> D: infection contains multiple anaerobic species

86
Q

Which Streptococcal virulence factor is correlated with the progression of infective endocarditis?

A

> D: platelet associated aggregation factor

87
Q

What is an enveloped virus composed of?

A

> E: nucleocapsid plus membrane plus glycoproteins

88
Q

Which class of virus always brings its own RNA polymerase into a cell during infection?

A

> C: negative-sense, single stranded RNA viruses

89
Q

What virus is responsible for about 30% of cases of the “common cold,” has an RNA genome that can be directly translated into protein, but also requires a second phase of translation to produce several smaller mRNAs transcribed from a negative sense copy of the RNA genome?

A

> C: coronavirus

90
Q

What is the receptor for SARS-CoV-2, the agent of COVID-19?

A

ACE2

91
Q

Nonpolio enteroviruses such as EV-D68 are associated with increased cases of what disease as a possible emerging epidemic?

A

> B: acute flaccid myelitis

92
Q

What virus has an RNA genome that can be directly translated into protein, and transcribes more mRNAs, all of which are the size of the full viral genome, from a negative sense copy of the viral RNA genome?

A

> A: rhinovirus

93
Q

What flavivirus is transmitted by mosquitos from person-to-person, can cause jaundice, and was the first virus proven to be spread by an insect vector?

A

> B: yellow fever virus

94
Q

Which virus genome is directly translated into proteins upon entry into a cell?

A

> B: poliovirus

95
Q

Antigenic shifts in influenza viruses are caused by

A

> D: random packaging of single stranded RNA genome segments during a coinfection with two types of influenza viruses

96
Q

What are Koplik’s spots?

A

> A: lesions of the oral cavity associated with measles

97
Q

What paramyxovirus initially infects cells of the respiratory tract but characteristically replicates in the parotid gland after viremia?

A

> D: mumps virus

98
Q

Members of what minus-stranded RNA virus family are characterized by a helical nucleocapsid and their ability to induce syncytia during infection?

A

paramyxoviruses

99
Q

What virus is characterized by cytoplasmic masses of nucleocapsids in brain tissue during the late stages of an infection?

A

> E: rabies virus

100
Q

What paramyxovirus is limited to replication in the region of initial contact and does not demonstrate significant spread to other sites by viremia?

A

> A: respiratory syncytial virus

101
Q

Cholera toxin has the effect of raising the level of what intracellular signalling molecule? __1__

A

cAMP

102
Q

What is the “enterobacterial common antigen”?

A

> B: core sugars within lipopolysaccharides (LPS)

103
Q

What is the effect of shiga toxin within a host cell during an infection?

A

> A: inactivate 60S ribosomal subunit

104
Q

What is not a property associated with Salmonella enterica serovar typhi?

A

> C: presence in the oropharynx in asymptomatic carriers

105
Q

6 What is a property associated with Helicobacter pylori? 1/1

A

> C: metabolizes urea to make the local environment more basic (increase pH)

106
Q

What non-invasive bacterium adheres to respiratory tract surfaces where it causes massive mucus production and a characterisitic cough that is severe enough to crack ribs and burst blood vessels?

A

> A: Bordetella pertussis

107
Q

8 What is a property of Corynebacterium diphtheriae? 1/1

A

> C: produces an ADP-ribosylase that targets host elongation factor 2

108
Q

The ability of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to produce a biofilm is dependent on

A

> B: alginate production

109
Q

What is associated with Clostridium difficile?

A

> E: pseudomembranous colitis

110
Q

Which Clostridial species is the only one that invades tissue during an infection?

A

> A: Clostridium perfringens

111
Q

A vaccine against capsule b polysaccharides is effective for preventing systemic diseases caused by what gram negative cocco-bacilli that are often part of the normal flora of the oropharynx?

A

> B: Haemophilus influenzae

112
Q

What bacterium normally lives inside amoeba in the environment and causes a severe pneumonia in elderly individuals?

A

Answer 1: Legionella

113
Q

17 Which of the following is true about tuberculosis? 1/1

A

> D: most individuals exposed to the bacterial agent do not develop disease

114
Q

18 The Mantoux reaction is the result of a diagnostic test for exposure to what bacterium? __1__ 1/1

A

Answer 1: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

115
Q

Which of the following is true for leprosy?

A

> E: A strong TH1-response by infected individuals results in a good prognosis for recovery

116
Q

Which organism often produces a characteristic erythema migrans rash in the early stage of infection?

A

> B: Borrelia burgdorferi

117
Q

What is true about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

> D: immune protection fades after recovery from infection

118
Q

Bacteria of which genus is are obligate intracellular pathogens?

A

> A: Rickettsia

119
Q

Name a dental abnormality uniquely associated with congenital syphilis. __1__

A

Answer 1: mulberry molars

120
Q

28 Which is a property of bacteria in a dental biofilm is associated with increasing the risk of dental caries? 1/1

A

> D: increased activity of proton pumps

121
Q

Dental caries correlates with

A

> D: high numbers of Streptococcus mutans

122
Q

What role does ammonia production from arginine and urea play for oral bacteria?

A

> C: creation of a more basic (pH) local environment

123
Q

Spirochetes plus Fusobacterium nucleatum are strongly associated with which oral disease?

A

> E: acute necrotizing ulceratize gingivitis

124
Q

34 What is an example of a role of a toll-like receptor in oral defense? 1/1

A

> D: bind to lipopolysaccharide and signal bacterial presence

125
Q

35 Bacterial aggregates called “sulphur granules” are characteristic of what oral disease? 0/1

A

> E: cervicofacial actinomycosis

126
Q

What is a naked capsid virus composed of?

A

> A: only nucleocapsid

127
Q

What is true about negative sense, single-stranded RNA viruses?

A

> A: require a viral RNA polymerase to be packaged into viral particles

128
Q

What is true about some small positive sense, single-stranded RNA viruses, like hepatitis A virus?

A

> D: can directly translate viral RNA upon entry into a new host cell

129
Q

What is an example of a host cell trait supplied by an viral genome integrated into the host cell genome?

A

> A: diphtheria toxin for Corynebacterium diphtheria

130
Q

What group of viruses is responsible for about 30% of cases of the “common cold” and has the largest genome of the RNA viruses (up to 30,000 nt)?

A

Answer 1: coronavirus

131
Q

What virus has an RNA genome that can be directly translated into protein, and transcribes more mRNAs, all of which are the size of the full viral genome, from a negative sense copy of the viral RNA genome?

A

> A: poliovirus

132
Q

What virus is transmitted by mosquitos from person-to-person and causes more severe disease in individuals that have partial immunity from a prior exposure to the virus?

A

> A: Dengue fever virus

133
Q

What naked capsid viruses can cause an aseptic meningitis OR vesicles/ulcers on the tonsils and palate OR pleurodynia, depending on the subtype?

A

> B: coxsackievirus

134
Q

[FULL CREDIT GIVEN] Which virus is not spread by respiratory transmission?

A

> A: poliovirus

135
Q

Which paramyxovirus has an incubation period of over 2 weeks and results in complications that include meningitis and orchitis?

A

> C: mumps virus

136
Q

49 Antigenic drift in influenza viruses is caused by 1/1

A

> B: point mutations that occur during viral genome replication

137
Q

50 What is true about respiratory syncytial virus? 1/1

A

> D: can cause bronchiole obstruction

138
Q

Which of the following is true about Bacillus anthracis?

A

> A: produces an adenylate cyclase called edema factor

139
Q

What is the treatment for a child born with congenital syphilis to clear the infection?

A

Penicillin

140
Q

What is an example of a host cell trait supplied by an viral genome integrated into the host cell genome?

A

> A: botulinum toxin for Clostridium botulinum

141
Q

In addition to multiple drug resistance mechanisms, what is another reason that lung infections with Pseudomonas aeruginosa are so resistant to antibiotic therapy?

A

> B: the bacterium’s ability to form a biofilm

142
Q

What is a possible role for the gut bacteriophage community, as presented in lecture?

A

> D: bacteriophage may limit bacteria in the gut, killing off cells when they reach a high concentration

143
Q

Members of what enveloped, plus stranded RNA virus family can cause an acute respiratory syndrome that is an atypical pneumonia, but more often cause milder disease, generically referred to as the common cold?

A

> C: coronavirus

144
Q

What virus is responsible for about 50% of cases of the common cold, has an RNA genome that can be directly translated into protein, and transcribes more mRNAs that are the size of the full viral genome from a negative sense copy of the viral RNA genome?

A

> A: rhinovirus

145
Q

What is true about Zika virus?

A

> E: It causes congenital infections

146
Q

Which influenza virus protein mediates adsorption of the virus onto a host epithelial cell surface?

A

> C: hemagglutinin

147
Q

What virus is characterized by “negri bodies” in brain tissue?

A

> E: rabies virus

148
Q

What is NOT a property associate with the following 3 speicies of bacteria in the oral cavity: Porphyromonas gingivalis, Treponema denticola, and Tannerella forsythia?

A

> C: they are associated with healthy sites in the mouth

D2 Summer - Microbio (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions