Exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

3 producers of histamine

A
  1. Mast cells, stored in basophils
  2. Certain cells in gastric mucosa
  3. Certain CNS neurons (neurotransmitter)
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2
Q

How many receptors does histamine have, and what is the clinical use of each?

A

Histamine has 4 receptors:
H1: used clinically
H2: used clinically to reduced acid
H3: used clinically for narcolepsy
H4: not used clinically

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3
Q

3 places H1 is found in periphery

A

In periphery, H1 found primarily on:
1. Smooth muscle
2. Vascular endothelium
3. Sensory nerves

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4
Q

3 effects of peripheral H1 stimulation

A
  1. Smooth muscle contractions in intestine, bronchi, uterus
  2. Vasodilation and edema at small blood vessels
  3. Sensory nerve stimulation
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5
Q

2 effects of H1 receptors on CNS neurons

A
  1. Increase wakefulness
  2. Regulate emesis

Likely other functions as well

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6
Q

What are Type I hypersensitivity reactions, and what happens in the body?

A

Allergic reaction in which the stimulus is not in itself noxious but still promotes an immune response.
- Evokes the production of IgE antibody by cells of the immune system
- Subsequent exposure to allergen causes mast cell activation and histamine release

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7
Q

Describe the IgE mediated allergen response (initial and subsequent allergen exposure)

A

Initial allergen exposure:
1. Allergen enters the capillary
2. IgE antibodies are created
3. IgE antibodies create a mast cell that can fend off the allergen in future encounters

Subsequent allergen exposure:
1. Antibodies on the mast cell recognize the allergen, activating the mast cell and forming a crosslinked IgE
2. Mast cell releases histamine and becomes degranulated

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8
Q

Where in the body are mast cells found?

A

Connective tissues, especially in skin, lungs, intestines; also near blood vessels and peripheral nerves

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9
Q

Do H1 receptor antagonists (H1 antihistamines) act at other receptors (1st gen vs. 2nd gen)?

A

1st generation H1 antihistamines tend to have more effects at other non-histamine NT receptors than 2nd generation.

They can:
1. Act at muscarinic receptors
2. Block sodium channels in sensory neurons

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10
Q

Do H1 antihistamines cross the blood-brain barrier (1st gen vs. 2nd gen)?

A

1st generation H1 antihistamines tend to be more lipid soluble and therefore cross the BBB into CNS better than 2nd generation.

2nd generation tend to be substrates for P-glycoprotein transporter in the BBB, so they still cross.

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11
Q

Which generation of H1 antihistamines is cheaper?

A

1st generation tend to cost less because 2nd generation drugs are newer

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12
Q

2 prominent 1st generation H1 antihistamines

A
  1. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
  2. Doxylamine (Unisom)
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13
Q

2 prominent 2nd generation H1 antihistamines

A
  1. Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
  2. Loratadine (Claritin)
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14
Q

5 uses of H1 antagonists (H1 antihistamines)

A
  1. Allergies (both generations)
  2. Sedation (1st generation)
  3. Anti-emetic/anti-motion sickness (1st generation)
  4. Anti-muscarinic (1st generation)
  5. Local anesthesia (1st generation)
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15
Q

Are 1st or 2nd generation H1 antihistamines more efficacious?

A

Studies have found about equal efficacy in allergic diseases of 1st vs. 2nd generation H1 antihistamines

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16
Q

What is the first line of treatment for anaphylaxis?

A

epinephrine

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17
Q

What are the first 2 lines of treatment for hay fever?

A
  1. Intranasal glucocorticoids
  2. H1 antihistamines
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18
Q

Describe sedation as an effect of H1 antihistamines

A

In CNS, histamine actions at H1 receptors promote wakefulness, so H1 antihistamines naturally can cause sedation.

Sedation is most common with 1st generation H1 antihistamines (e.g., Benadryl used as OTC sleep aid).

Can cause tolerance.

Sedation does not always occur, as children and sometimes adults can occasionally experience excitation.

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19
Q

Describe H1 antihistamines as anti-emetics

A

1st generation H1 antihistamines can act as anti-emetic drugs for chemotherapy/radiation or for motion sickness prophylaxis.

H1 and muscarinic signals from the cerebellum, chemo-receptor trigger zone, solitary tract nucleus, and higher centers are transmitted to the emetic center, so naturally, blocking these signals via antihistamines has an anti-emetic effect.

Doxylamine + vitamin B6 (Diclegis) is an H1 antihistamine that can be used for severe morning sickness.

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20
Q

What is doxylamine + vitamin B6 (Diclegis)?

A

Doxylamine is an H1 antihistamine, and combining it with vitamin B6 can be used to treat severe morning sickness.

Makes sense given the anti-emetic properties of H1 antihistamines.

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21
Q

Describe the anti-muscarinic effects of H1 antihistamines

A

Several 1st generation antihistamines can be used as anti-muscarinics, which potentially contributes to the anti-emetic effects.

Anti-muscarinic effects can have clinical utility (e.g., treating acute dystonia caused by antipsychotics).

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22
Q

Describe the sodium channel blocking effects of H1 antihistamines

A

Several 1st generation H1 antihistamines block sodium channels.

This can be clinically used for local anesthetic effects.

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23
Q

Describe the pharmacokinetics of H1 antihistamines (duration, distribution, metabolism)

A

Duration: many are 4-6 hours, some 12-24 hours, peak concentrations in 1-3 hours after oral administration.

(Mostly) widely distributed throughout the body, some cross the placenta, others not specifically studied.

Some are extensively metabolized, mostly by CYP450, and some drugs have active metabolites.

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24
Q

Virus vs. Virion

A

A virus is a non-living infectious agent that replicates only inside living cells. It consists of genetic material (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat.

A virion is a complete, infectious virus particle outside a host cell. It is the form of a virus that can spread and infect other cells.

The virion is essentially the vehicle that allows the virus to move from one host cell to another.

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25
Q

Endemic vs. Epidemic vs. Pandemic

A

Endemic - disease is constantly present in a certain geographic area or amongst a certain group of people

Epidemic - an unexpected increase in the number of disease cases in a specific geographical area

Pandemic - when disease spreads over a wide geographical area, usually affecting a large number of people

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26
Q

Are virus genomes DNA or RNA?

A

Virus genomes can be either DNA or RNA, allowing viruses to make copies of themselves once they enter a susceptible cell

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27
Q

How many viruses are there?

A

> 400 different viruses known to infect humans
200 known to cause disease in humans

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28
Q

What was the first successful vaccination?

A

Smallpox vaccine by Edward Jenner in 1798

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29
Q

Are vaccines available for all viruses?

A

Vaccines available for some (but not all) disease-causing viruses

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30
Q

Describe the 3 types of antiviral drugs

A
  1. Virus targeted: these drugs directly target specific viral components or processes, such as viral enzymes, proteins, or genetic material
  2. Broad-spectrum virus targeted: these drugs have activity against a wider range of viruses, often by interfering with essential viral functions like replication or assembly
  3. Broad-spectrum host targeted: these drugs target cellular processes or pathways that are essential for viral replication but not for normal host cell function
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31
Q

Describe the characteristics of influenza A virus

A
  • wild waterfowl are natural reservoir for virus
  • can infect humans, pigs, birds, horses, cats, dogs
  • multiple subtypes (e.g., H1N1, H5N1 - current “bird flu”)
  • can cause pandemic (widespread, affecting large number of people) flu
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32
Q

Describe the characteristics of influenza B virus

A
  • primarily a human disease
  • generally milder than A
  • no subtypes, but 2 lineages: B/Yamagata and B/Victoria
  • though tsequence of viral genoe changes more slowly than influenza A
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33
Q

Describe the characteristics of influenza C virus

A
  • human major host
  • causes mild or even no symptoms in healthy adults
  • rather different from A and B
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34
Q

Describe the characteristics of influenza D virus

A

primarily infects cattle

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35
Q

What type of genome do influenza viruses A and B have?

A

RNA genome, but segmented!

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36
Q

2 major virion surface proteins of influenza viruses A and B

A
  1. Hemagglutinin
  2. Neuraminidase
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37
Q

What is influenza reassortment?

A

Process where two or more different influenza viruses co-infect a single host cell and exchange RNA segments.

This leads to new virus strains with novel gene combinations, potentially resulting in significant changes in the virus’s behavior and immune system recognition.

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38
Q

What is unique about the origin of swine-origin H1N1 influenza viruses?

A

They were created from a quadruple reassortment, meaning 4 different influenza viruses co-infected a single host cell and exchanged RNA segments, yielding H1N1

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39
Q

Can influenza A reassort with influenza B?

A

Influenza reassortment has never been observed between influenza A and influenza B, but both viruses can reassort within their own types

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40
Q

What is the efficacy of the influenza vaccine?

A

Vaccine effectiveness can vary year to year, but when “well matched” it can reduce illness by about 40-60%

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41
Q

When are influenza antivirals used?

A

CDC recommends treatment begin ASAP (best efficacy) for hopsitalized people, people with severe, complicated, or progressive illness, and people at risk for complications from influenza.

More or less used in those that or more susceptible.

In certain circumstances, can even be used for chemoprophylaxis.

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42
Q

4 effects of influenza antivirals

A

When taken as early as possible is best:
1. Can lessen symptoms
2. Can shorten illness duration
3. May reduce risk of complications
4. Some studies have found benefit in hospitalized patients

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43
Q

Describe the influenza life cycle

A
  1. Entry into host cell and disassembly of the infectious virus particle (virion)
  2. Replication of the viral genome/transcription of viral mRNA
  3. Synthesis of the viral proteins by the host cell translation machinery
  4. Reassembly of these components into progeny virus particles and exit from host cell
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44
Q

What are the functions of hemagglutinin and neuraminidase?

A

Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are the two major virion surface proteins of influenza viruses A and B.

Hemagglutinin promotes binding and entry of influenza at sialic acid receptors, which hold the virus particles to the host cell.

Neuraminidase allows budding and release of influenza from the cell. It acts as a sialidase enzyme, breaking down sialic acid molecules that hold the virus particles to host cells.

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45
Q

What are neuraminidase inhibitors (+ 3 common drugs)?

A

Neuraminidase allows budding and spread of influenza progeny from the host cell, so neuraminidase inhibitors are antivirals that prevent this process and are active against influenza A and influenza B.

3 common neuraminidase inhibitors:
1. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
2. Zanamivir (Relenza)
3. Peramivir (Rapivab)

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46
Q

What is oseltamivir (Tamiflu) (mechanism, who should take, route of administration, duration, side effects, efficacy)?

A

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) is an antiviral neuraminidase inhibitor that is recommended by CDC for hospitalized patients, those with complicated/progressive illness, and pregnant women with influenza A or B.
-Orally bioavailable
-Usually taken for 5 days (can be more)
-Side effects: nausea, vomiting

Only 2 of 2800+ viral samples tested this year had reduced susceptibility to oseltamivir (but both were susceptible to zanamivir, an inhaled powder).

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47
Q

How is zanamivir (Relenza) administered?

A

Zanamivir (Relenza) is an antiviral neuraminidase inhibitor antiviral used to treat influenza, and it is taken as an inhaled powder (major limitation)

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48
Q

What is baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza) (mechanism, who should take, administration, side effects, efficacy, main issue)?

A

Baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza) is an antiviral that acts as an inhibitor of one of the subunits of the influenza RNA polymerase complex in influenza viruses A and B, blocking RNA synthesis.
- taken by those 5+, within 48 hours of symptoms
- Not studied in pregnant/nursing, hospitalized, those with complicated/progressing illness
- Given as single oral dose (very long half life)
- Side effects: diarrhea, bronchitis

Effects on symptoms similar to oseltamivir (Tamiflu), but reduces viral load more quickly than oseltamivir.

1 of 2700+ viral samples tested had reduced susceptibility to baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza).

Main issue: it chelates with polyvalent cations (like calcium), decreasing the amount of drug that gets absorbed; shouldn’t be taken with products like milk

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49
Q

What is recombinant DNA (rDNA)?

A

artificial DNA created by joining two or more pieces of DNA that are normally not found together in nature (e.g., typical plasmid used for research)

Recombinant DNA technology allows new types of drugs to be manufactured (field of Biotechnology).

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50
Q

4 types of rDNA-based drugs

A
  1. rDNA-based versions of human proteins like insulin or erthyropoietin (EPO)
  2. Synthetic proteins that combine pieces of human proteins with other sequences (as in the anti-cancer drug Herceptin)
  3. rDNA-based micro-organism proteins that act as vaccines (like Gardasil for HPV)
  4. rDNA-based vectors for gene therapy
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51
Q

How is insulin produced?

A

The human pancreas contains ~1 million islets of Langerhans (total mass ~1 gram) that produce insulin

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52
Q

Why do endocrine hormones make good drugs?

A

Endocrine hormones make good drugs because they function normally if they are delivered into the bloodstream

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53
Q

What is the role of insulin?

A

Insulin is one part of the system that maintains glucose in a normal range:
1. After a meal, blood glucose increases
2. Insulin level increases in response to increased blood glucose
3. Insulin causes cells of the body to take-up glucose, reducing the blood glucose level
4. Blood glucose levels are maintained in a normal range in healthy individuals due to this process

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54
Q

What is the mechanism of action of insulin?

A
  1. Insulin binds to cell surface receptors on target cells when blood glucose is high (after meal)
  2. Insulin increases expression of glucose transporters, especially GLUT4 on muscle and fat cells
  3. Glucose uptake then increases, and glucose is used to build and store glycogen and fatty acids

Without insulin, glucose builds up outside cells (in bloodstream) and can cause hyperglycemia

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55
Q

What is hyperglycemia, and what are its 5 consequences?

A

Failure to produce or respond to insulin leads to hyperglycemia, or high blood glucose

Consequences of hyperglycemia:
1. Ketoacidosis (can be fatal)
2. Decreased consciousness or confusion
3. Dehyration due to glycosuria and osmotic diuresis
4. Acute hunger/thirst
5. Long term health problems such as heart disease, kidney disease, eye damage, nerve damage, etc.

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56
Q

What is diabetes mellitus type 1?

A

Diabetes mellitus type 1 is an autoimmune disease that destroys islet beta cells (cells that produce insulin). This causes an inability of the body to produce insulin and causes chronic hyperglycemia.

Sometimes called juvenile diabetes but can also arise later in life.

Cause(s) are uncertain but are likely a combination of environmental exposures and genetic susceptibility.

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57
Q

Describe the progression of diabetes type 1

A

Destruction of iselts of Langerhans (producers of insulin) in diabetes type 1 may take months to years.

As insulin production drops, blood glucose will increase from normal value of 70-120 mg/dL, and the disease is largely asymptomatic until blood glucose surpasses ability of the kidneys to clear the ~200 mg/dL threshold (renal threshold).
- Once blood glucose is above the renal threshold, symptoms can come on rapidly and severely, typically in younger children but can occur in adulthood

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58
Q

Describe the history of insulin procurement (+ 4 concerns)

A

From 1920s-1980s all insulin was isolated from animal sources (cow, pig, horse, fish etc.), but there are concerns for animal-derived (or human-derived) drugs:
1. May contain pathogens
2. Treatment to kill pathogens often not possible because it would damage the drug
3. Difficult to control health status of donors and other aspects of supply chain
4. Finite supply of raw materials available

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59
Q

What is the solution to the risks of human and animal-derived drugs?

A

recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology

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60
Q

What are the benefits of using recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology to produce biomolecule-based drugs, like insulin?

A

Uses naturally occurring proteins or synthetic designs, and manufacturing typically occurs in a factory setting where it is straightforward to achieve FDA-mandated Good nufacturing Practices.

Contamination risks for rDNA drugs are very low compared to human or animal-derived products.

Human proteins used as drugs often have very high specificity for their targets, so they can produce a very specific medical outcome with few side effects (as compared to small molecule drugs that often have many potential targets and side effects).

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61
Q

Describe the 5 enzymes that make rDNA technology possible

A

endonuclease: enzyme that cleaves NA in the middle of the polymer

exonuclease: enzyme that cleaves nucleotides from the end of the polymer

terminal transferase: enzyme that adds nucleotides randomly to the end of the polymer (no template needed)

DNA polymerase: enzyme that synthesizes complementary sequence DNA using a template strand

DNA ligase: enzyme that covalently joins two pieces of DNA

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62
Q

Describe the work of Paul Berg

A

Paul Berg’s laboratory made the first rDNA in the early 1970s.

SV40 genome was manipulated to carry foreign DNA segments (initially from a bacterial virus, later from mammalian genes).
- Refinements of this approach allowed expression of proteins from the hybrid genome

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63
Q

What are plasmids?

A

Plasmids are small circular pieces of extra-chromosomal DNA that replicate in bacteria. They are easy to manipulate in vitro, and are easy to re-introduce into bacteria like E. coli.

The use of plasmids was a refinement that made rDNA technology easier.

64
Q

What is Genentech?

A

Company founded in 1976 by Robert Swanson (money) and Dr. Herbert Boyer (science) that aimed to use rDNA to make drugs.

The first Genentech product to market was rDNA-based insulin, using artificial genes for human insulin A and B peptide chains.

Widely recognized as the first biotechnology company.

65
Q

How does drug production proceed following the creation of rDNA constructs (3 processes)?

A

Once rDNA constructs are made, drug production is an industrial process:
- Bacteria harboring the rDNA plasmids are grown in large quantities using a bioreactor or similar large-scale growth process
- Proteins of interest are purified and chemically modified as required for specific drugs
- In the case of rDNA-based insulin, bacterial protein sequences are cleaved away and the A and B peptide chains are chemically linked by disulfide bonds

66
Q

What was the first FDA approved rDNA-based drug?

A

rDNA based insulin (marketed as Humulin) was the first FDA approved rDNA-based drug (1982).

Genentech partnered with Eli Lilly and Company for the clinical trials needed to prove rDNA-based insulin could be used in place of natural insulin.

67
Q

How does rDNA allow for modified insulin drugs?

A

rDNA allows insulin drugs with modified peptide sequences and altered pharmacokinetics, such as fast acting, intermediate acting, and long acting insulin

68
Q

3 fast acting rDNA-based insulin drugs

A
  1. Insulin lispro
  2. Insulin aspart
  3. Insulin glulisine
69
Q

What is the intermediate acting rDNA-based insulin drug?

A

regular insulin (unmodified sequence)

70
Q

2 long acting rDNA-based insulin drugs

A
  1. Insulin detemir
  2. Insulin glargine
71
Q

What is epoetin (Procrit, Epogen, EPO)?

A

Epoetin (Procrit, Epogen, EPO) is an rDNA-derived version of the human hormone erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates the formation of red blood cells, which are specialized for oxygen transport. It is used to treat certain types of anemia.

72
Q

What are the characteristics of red blood cells (function, organelles, composition, lifespan)?

A
  • Function: transport oxygen
  • RBCs have lost most specialized organelles, including the nucleus
  • Contain a special oxygen binding protein called hemoglobin, which makes up 97% of the dry weight of an RBC (35% of net weight)
  • Lifespan: ~120 days
73
Q

What is anemia (+5 symptoms)?

A

Anemia is a diseased state caused by reduced blood hemoglobin concentraton.

Symptoms:
1. Fatigue
2. Breathlessness
3. Paleness (skin, mucosal linings, nail beds)
4. Increaed cardiac output (sweatiness, palpitations)
5. Others, specific to type of anemia

74
Q

7 causes of anemia (GAPIVCR)

A
  1. Genetic disorders, like sickle cell anemia
  2. Autoimmunity
  3. Premature birth (associated with low erythropoietin)
  4. Iron deficiency
  5. Vitamin B12 deficiency
  6. Chemotherapy
  7. Renal disease
75
Q

Where do RBCs come from?

A

All cell types in the blood come from a common stem cell present in the bone marrow.

The RBC (erythrocyte) lineage is one offshoot from this common stem cell.

76
Q

What is the role of erythropoietin?

A

Signaling by the erythropoietin receptor (EpoR) stimulates cell proliferation and differentiation in the erythroblast lineage.

In other words, EpoR activity stimulates development along the lineage of the common stem cell that makes all cell types in the blood, including RBCs.

77
Q

What is the erythropoietin receptor (EpoR) mechanism of action?

A

EpoR activates the JAK/STAT signal transduction pathway:
1. JAK kinases activate, forming an EpoR dimer
2. EpoR dimer activates STAT, forming a STAT dimer
2. STAT dimers activate transcription of key genes in the erythroblast lineage

78
Q

Describe the production and regulation of erythropoietin (EPO), and how this relates to anemia

A

Erythropoietin (EPO) is produced by special O2-sensing cells in the kidney. Specifically, it is increased within hours of low blood O2 levels.
- Trigger can be low atmospheric O2 levels (e.g., move from sea level to high altitude)
- Trigger can be blood loss that reduces blood O2 density

EPO circulates as an endocrine hormone, and reduced EPO production by diseased kidneys is one cause of anemia. Therefore, exogenous EPO can treat certain types of anemia.

79
Q

2 types of anemia that can be treated with exogenous erythropoietin (EPO)

A
  1. Chemotherapy-induced anemia, which is caused by poisoning of blood cell lineages
  2. Renal disease-induced anemia, which results in decrease in endogenous EPO production
80
Q

How is the manufacture of rDNA-based erythropoietin different than insulin?

A

EPO is a glycoprotein (protein + carbohydrate modifications), and bacteria do not add the required carbohydrate modifications, as they do with insulin.
- Manufacture must instead use mammalian cell culture for production, where carbohydrate modifications are added as EPO moves through the ER and Golgi apparatus

81
Q

What is the benefit of biosimilar erythropoietin-stimulating drugs?

A

A faster path to approval is possible for follow-on biologic drugs that are similar to approved biologic drugs.

Can also be made by same drug company that makes a variant (e.g., for altered pharmacokinetics) or a generic form of an off-patent biologic.

82
Q

What is darbepoetin alpha (Aranesp)?

A

Erythropoietic-stimulating rDNA drug used for the treatment of anemia that is a sequence modified, highly glycosylated erythropoietin (EPO) with increased half-life

83
Q

What is peginesatide (Omontys)?

A

Erythropoietic-stimulating rDNA drug used for the treatment of anemia that is a chemically modified peptide that mimic erythropoietin (EPO)

84
Q

What is the goal of blood doping?

A

Blood doping seeks to improve VO2max by increasing the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

85
Q

What is a problem of the availability of rDNA erythropoietin (EPO)?

A

Beginning with the availability of recombinant EPO, drug-based doping became a major problem in endurance sports, for these drugs improve VO2max by increasing the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

86
Q

What are the performance enhancing effects of recombinant erythropoietin (EPO) on healthy athletes?

A

Recombinant EPO increased VO2max by ~12%

Time to exhaustion at 80% VO2max increased ~50%

87
Q

What is the impact of increased hematocrit from recombinant erythropoietin (EPO)?

A

Blood viscosity increases with hematocrit in a non-linear fashion, and this increased blood viscosity greatly increases the risk of clotting, heart attack, stroke, and pulmonary embolism.

Many untimely deaths of endurance athletes are suspected to be the result of blood doping with EPO.

88
Q

How is blood doping with recombinant erythropoietin (EPO) identified (2 direct testing methods)?

A
  1. Recombinant EPO (epoetin alpha) is present in the blood and urine of users:
    - Recombinant EPO is manufactured in Hamster cells that give it a slightly different glycosylation pattern than human EPO, and there are tests that can identify recombinant EPO (as opposed to endogenous EPO) based on this difference in carbohydrate modifications.
  2. Using blood doping to alter the hematocrit also affects normal developmental processes for the blood, and parameters like the ratio of reticulyte hematocrit to total hematocrit can be used to identify users.
89
Q

What are anabolic steroids?

A

A group of small cholesterol-based drugs related related to endogenous androgenic endocrine hormones including the male sex steroid testosterone

90
Q

2 actions of anabolic steroids

A

Androgenic: promote male characteristics

Anabolic: promote protein synthesis/build lean muscle mass

91
Q

What are endogenous steroid hormones? What are the 3 types and their roles?

A

Endogenous steroid hormones are small lipophilic hormones based on choesterol. They activate intracellular receptors that act as hormone-regulated transcription factors.

Glucocorticoids: regulate inflammation and metabolism

Mineralocorticoids: regulate fluid and salt balance

Sex steroids: regulate reproductive physiology, bone density, muscle mass, etc.; includes testosterone, etc.

92
Q

What is testosterone, and what are its 3 main roles?

A

Testosterone is the major male sex hormone produced by the testis (levels 10-20x the circulating levels in females).

Roles:
1. Triggers male development
2. Stimulates spermatogenesis in adult males
3. Triggers secondary male sex characteristics in many tissues (muscle, hair, bone, brain, vocal cords, etc.)

93
Q

What is the site of testosterone synthesis?

A

Leydig cells in the testis

94
Q

What controls the functions of the testis?

A

The functions of the testis are controlled by endocrine signals from the hypothalamus/anterior pituitary

95
Q

What is the androgen receptor?

A

An intracellular receptor that, when bound by androgens, enters the nucleus and acts as a transcription factor.

Present in many cell types in both males and females.

96
Q

4 reasons for medical antagonism of androgen receptors

A
  1. Treatment of prostate cancer
  2. Treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
  3. Treatment of male pattern baldness
  4. Certain conditions in women that cause excess androgen production (anabolic steroids are always contraindicated in women)
97
Q

What are gonadotropin hormone-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists (example, mechanism, clinical uses)?

A

GnRH agonists suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, reducing luteinizing hormone (LH) and, consequently, testosterone.

These drugs cause continuous administration of gonadotropins, as opposed to the natural pulses of the pituitary, which desensitizes the gland and causes it to stop producing sex hormones

GnRH agonists are used to treat prostate cancer and some breast cancers.

Drug class includes lueprorelin (Lupron).

98
Q

What are gonadotropin hormone-releasing hormone (GnRH) antagonists (example, mechanism, clinical use)?

A

GnRH antagonists suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, reducing luteinizing hormone (LH), and consequently, testosterone.

GnRH antagonists are used to treat prostate cancer.

Drug class includes degarelix (Firmagon).

99
Q

How do 5-alpha reductase inhibitors affect the prostate?

A

They reduce prostate size by ~25%, and for many men they are an attractive alternative to transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP).

100
Q

What are androgen receptor antagonists (mechanism, what do they treat, 3 prominent drugs)?

A

Androgen receptor antagonists completely inhibit the binding of endogenous androgens to the androgen receptor.

They are approved for the treatment of metastatic prostate cancer.

3 examples:
1. Flutamide
2. Enzalutamide
3. Bicalutamide

101
Q

What is abiraterone (Zytiga)?

A

Abiraterone (Zytiga) is an FDA approved drug for the treatment of castration-resistant prostate cancer that acts as an inhibitor of the CYP17 enzyme.

CYP17 is needed for the synthesis of androgens, including testosterone.

102
Q

5 medical uses of anabolic steroids

A
  1. Hormone supplementation in cases of deficiency
  2. Treat muscle loss associated with trauma or disease (e.g., HIV, renal dialysis, some anemias)
  3. Female-to-male gender reassignment
  4. Anti-aging therapy (controversial)
  5. Male contraception (experimental)
103
Q

Describe the administration/dosing of testosterone or other androgenic drugs as treatment for hypogonadism

A

Oral administration is not used because oral testosterone is subject to high first-pass metabolism by the liver.

Instead, injectable testosterone enanthate and testosterone cypionate are used:
- Can be administered intramuscularly
- Injected every 2-4 weeks
- Increases plasma testosterone to physiologic concentrations in hypogonadal men

Other routes of administration that avoid first-pass metabolism include:
- Transdermal testosterone patches
- Topical gel formulation
- Sub-lingual tablet

104
Q

What is the plasma testosterone level of those with hypogonadism?

A

<3.0 ng/mL

105
Q

Can aging men take androgen drugs?

A

Androgen drugs are not FDA approved for use in aging men that do not meet the definition of hypogonadism

106
Q

2 types of female birth control pills

A
  1. Estrogen-progestin combinations
  2. Progestin-only contraception
107
Q

Describe combination estrogen-progestin contraceptives (mechanism, primary and 3 secondary roles)

A

Combination estrogen-progestin contraceptives suppress GnRH, LH, and FSH secretion and follicular development.

Primary birth control mechanism: inhibit ovulation

Secondary mechanisms:
1. Alterations in tubal peristalsis needed for transport of both egg/sperm
2. Alterations in endometrial receptivity
3. Alterations in cervical mucus secretions

108
Q

Describe progestin-only contraceptives (2 mechanisms, 2 main drugs, efficacy)

A

Continuous low-dose oral progestins can be used in situations where estrogen treatment is not desirable. It prevents ovulation 70%-80% of the time by:
1. Alters the frequency of GnRH pulsing
2. Decreases anterior pituitary gland responsiveness to GnRH

This form of contraceptive is 96%-98% effective, suggesting secondary mechanisms also important.

109
Q

Describe male contraception (intended mechanism, problems, efficacy)

A

Male contraception is experimental and aims to produce azoospermia (absence of sperm in the ejaculate).
- This is difficult because even 99% reduction would still leave possibility of fertility, and want to avoid suppression of libido or ED

In clinical trials androgen + progestin was superior to androgen alone (e.g., testosterone + norgestrel), and on average, 60% of men become azoospermic but there are significant adverse effects.

110
Q

Are anabolic steroids illegal?

A

Anabolic steroids are schedule III controlled substances and illegal to use or distribute without a prescription

111
Q

What percentage of high school athletes have reported androgen drug use?

A

5%

112
Q

How are anabolic steroid users indentified (2 direct testing methods)?

A
  1. Anabolic steoids shut down normal synthesis of testosterone by feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus, causing abnormal ratios of testosterone to its precursors and metabolites.
    - A test:epitest ratio >4:1 is considered evidence of doping
  2. Synthetic steroids are typically manufactured from plant sterols, giving them a unique carbon isotope that can be detected by mass spectrometry
113
Q

What is dementia (and 2 types)?

A

Dementia is the progressive deterioration of memory and cognitive function; it is NOT a single disease.

2 types:
1. Reversible dementia: theoretically can treat underlying cause and reverse dementia
2. Irreversible dementia: caused by an incurable condition

114
Q

What is early onset Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Approximately 5-10% of all AD, defined as AD diagnosed before age 65 (can be much earlier).

Approximately half of cases are familial, from inheritance of a mutant gene: APP, PSEN1, PSEN2, but other cases have no obvious cause.

115
Q

What is the relationship between Down syndrome and Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Increased risk for early onset AD in Down syndrome

116
Q

What is late onset Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Most common type of AD, defined as AD diagnosed after age 65.

May be influenced by genetic factors (e.g., APOE4), and may also be influenced by environmental factors, lifestyle, other health factors, and even trauma.

117
Q

What are amyloid plaques?

A

Neuropathological component of Alzheimer’s disease, aggregated (fibrillary) forms of beta-amyloid extracellularly

118
Q

What are neurofibrillary tangles?

A

Neuropathological component of Alzheimer’s disease, contain primarily abnormal tau proteins in neurons

119
Q

Describe the Alzheimer’s continuum?

A

AD is proposed to be a continuum of severity, with lesser forms as MCI and higher forms consisting of increasingly severe AD

120
Q

3 types of drugs to treat Alzheimer’s disease

A
  1. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (3 drugs)
  2. Glutamate receptor partial antagonist (1 drug)
  3. Abeta targeting antibodies (immunotherapy) (2 drugs, recently approved, some controversy and limitations, 1 going to be discontinued
121
Q

What is the cholinergic hypothesis of AD?

A

Hypothesis: AD is due to a decrease in acetylcholine (ACh) levels and dysfunction of cholinergic neurons in the brain.

This is believed because neuronal death is prevalent in AD, a result of decreased ACh.

122
Q

What is donepezil (Aricept) (mechanism, efficacy)?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor FDA approved to treat Alzheimer’s disease. Prevents the breakdown of ACh.

Only modest impacts on cognition, function, and behavior in Alzheimer’s disease patients, DO NOT impact disease course. Not all patients will see benefit.

Can cause side effects some of which due to effects in periphery.

123
Q

How is glutamate activity altered in Alzheimer’s disease?

A

There is elevated glutamate activity in AD; this is why memantine (Namenda), a glutamate receptor partial antagonist, is used to treat AD

124
Q

What is memantine (Namenda) (mechanism, administration, efficacy, side effects)?

A

Glutamate NMDA-type receptor non-competitive partial antagonist that is FDA approved to treat Alzheimer’s disease. It may have actions at other receptors as well.

Usually given in combination with AChE inhibitor, called Namzaric (combination of memantine and donepezil).

Has modest effects, DOES NOT alter disease course.

Side effects (less than 7% of patients): headache, confusion , constipation

125
Q

Describe immunotherapy for Alzheimer’s disease (goal, what is an antibody, what is lecanemab-irmb)?

A

Goal: clear (or prevent worsening of) Abeta forms that are proposed to cause the disease

Antibody: a protein complex made and used by the immune system to neutralize foreign invaders. Each antibody recognizes a specific protein sequence (antigen or epitope). Can be engineered in a lab.

Lecanemab-irmb (Leqembi): antibody that binds with high affinity to Abeta oligomers/protofibrils. It was FDA approved in early 2023 in AD, and treatment is initiated in MCI with confirmed amyloid presence.

126
Q

What is lecanemab-irmb (Leqembi) (mechanism, clinical trial efficacy, 3 side effects)?

A

Antibody treatment for Alzheimer’s disease that binds with high affinity to Abeta oligomers/protofibrils.

FDA approved in 2023, and treatment is initiated in MCI or early dementia only with confirmed amyloid presence.

Mechanism:
1. Antibody binds with high affinity to Abeta oligomers/protofibrils
2. Antibody recruits macrophages and encourages the “eating” of Abeta

In 2023 clinical trial, lecanemab-irmb (Leqembi) significantly reduced amyloid plaque burden relative to those who received the placebo.

In this same trial, the drug also had modest improvements with regard to cognitive decline (slowed decline).

Side effects:
- Risk for amyloid related imaging abnormalities (ARIA) (edema, microhemorrhage) in about 20% of patients
- Rare fatal brain hemorrhage in some patients
- Infusion reactions

127
Q

4 controversies surrounding lecanemab-irmb (Leqembi)

A
  1. Not enough racial and ethnic diversity in trials
  2. Difference in cognitive decline was only 2.7% (0.45 on 18 point scale)
  3. ARIA and hemorrhage risk
  4. Does modest efficacy justify cost and patient burden?
128
Q

Infectious Disease vs. Pathogen

A

Infectious disease - a condition caused by the invasion and multiplication of pathogenic microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites, and prions, within the body

Pathogen - the specific microorganism that causes the disease

129
Q

Describe the discovery of penicillin

A

Sir Alexander Fleming went on vacation in 1928 and deduced something in mold (Penicillium rubens) was preventing Staph bacteria growth. He tried to purify penicillin, but was unstable; however, crude extract did prevent the growth of other types of bacteria

130
Q

Describe the production of penicillin

A

1939-1941 scientists in England purified enough penicillin for animal studies and to treat one human, but summer 1941 they went to the US…Dept. of Agriculture Labs in Peoria, IL made some improvements and searched for strains of Penicillium rubens that produced more penicillin.

Scientists at UW were involved in mutagenizing cantaloupe strain and screening for better producers, and they developed a strain that produced about 9x more penicillin than original cantaloupe strain.
- Decided not to patent, and before end of WWII, industry was making enough penicillin for civilian use

131
Q

What is an antibiotic?

A

A naturally derived, synthetic, or semi-synthetic substance antagonistic to the growth of other microorganisms

Antibiotic can be used to refer to drugs that target bacteria or drugs that target other microorganisms

132
Q

2 types of antibiotic resistance

A
  1. Innate resistance (insensitivity)
  2. Acquired resistance
133
Q

Why does bacterial resistance to antibiotics occur?

A

Evolution! In the hundreds of millions of years that antibiotics have been produced by some microbes to act on their neighbors, evolutionary pressure has been at work for the bacteria under attack to devise resistance mechanisms to survive.

134
Q

How does the clinical use of antibiotics lead to bacterial resistance?

A

The clinical use of antibiotics produces an intrinsic selection for heritable resistance to said antibiotics in bacteria.

I.e., some bacteria in a population are already resistant. When drugs start being used more and more, the bacteria naturally select for the traits that these resistant bacteria have.

135
Q

4 potential factors speeding up emergence of bacterial resistance

A
  1. Unnecessary/inappropriate use (over-prescribing)
    - massive problem, 709 prescriptions per 1000 people in US
  2. Not taking complete dose
  3. Using broad spectrum antibiotics when narrow spectrum ones would have killed target organism
  4. Antibiotic use in livestock
136
Q

Why do antibiotics target the cell wall of bacteria?

A
  1. Most bacteria have a cell wall while mammalian cells do not
  2. Cell wall assembly is a complex process, and there are many enzymes that can be targeted as a result
  3. Antibiotics work on the cell wall when cells are actively growing
137
Q

What are beta-lactams (e.g., penicillins and cephalosporins) (mechanism, 4 issues, spectrum)?

A

Beta-lactams are antibiotics that halt production of the cell wall by binding to the transpeptidase at the Penicillin Binding Protein (PBP) site, resulting in the inhibition of transpeptidation, thus halting peptidoglycan synthesis.
- Peptidoglycans compose the bacterial cell wall.

Issues with beta-lactams:
1. Allergies
2. Not effective against all types of bacteria (no antibiotics are, however)
3. Some side effects, but rare
4. Bacterial resistance (e.g., beta-lactamases)

Spectrum varies across beta-lactam families:
- Penicillins vary drug-to-drug
- Cephalosporins have broader spectrum of action than penicillins (overall more resistant to beta-lactamases)

138
Q

What are beta-lactamases (and ESBL bacteria)?

A

A series of enzymes in bacteria that cleave the beta-lactam ring, allowing bacteria to be resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillin.

Some newer semi-synthetic drugs in these antibiotic families are less susceptible to beta-lactamase activity, and beta-lactamase inhibitors like amoxicillin + clavulanate potassium (Augmentin) can be used with beta-lactam drugs to help circumvent this resistance mechanism.

There is also concern for extended spectrum beta lactamase (ESBL) expressing bacteria, which are resistant to a wide spectrum of antibiotics.

139
Q

What is amoxicillin + clavulanate potassium (Augmentin)?

A

Beta-lactamase inhibitor that is often used with beta-lactam antibiotics to circumvent the beta-lactamase resistance mechanism

140
Q

2 components of bacteria that antibiotics target

A
  1. Cell wall
  2. Bacterial translation
141
Q

What is azithromycin (Zithromax, “Z pak”) (mechanism, spectrum, distribution, dosing, 2 side effects)?

A

Azithromycin (Zithromax, “Z Pak”) is a semi-synthetic macrolide antibiotic that is slowly released by tissues to target bacterial translation.
- Broad spectrum
- Tissue concentration higher than serum concentrations
- Once daily dosing and shortened duration of treatment

2 problems:
1. Can cause GI side effects
2. Can prolong QT interval

142
Q

Describe the interaction between antibiotics and commensal bacteria

A

The healthy intestine contains large quantities of commensal “good” bacteria that interfere with the ability of pathogenic bacteria to colonize the gut. Broad-spectrum antibiotics kill this commensal bacteria, creating an ecological niche for other “bad” bacteria, which can lead to antibiotic-associated diarrhea (including that caused by C. difficile).

143
Q

What is the interaction of rifampin (Rifadin) and birth control pills?

A

Rifampin (Rifadin), an antibiotic, decreases the efficacy of birth control pills due to induction of enzymes in the liver that metabolize the hormones in these pills (or basically any birth control method that uses hormones).

Good news is that rifampin’s main use is in TB.

As for other antibiotics, no large studies have prove any effect on birth control efficacy, but some could be impacted.

144
Q

How is tuberculosis (TB) treated, and what are 4 reasons it is hard to treat?

A

Treating TB:
- minimum 6 months of therapy
- antibiotic combinations

Pathogen of TB is Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
1. Mycobacteria have a “waxy” cell wall that is different than other bacteria
2. Slow growing or even dormant
3. Intracellular pathogen
4. Quickly develops resistance to drugs, so drugs must be used in combination

145
Q

What is bedaquiline (Sirturo) (mechanism, who should take, 2 side effects, substrate)?

A

Bedaquiline (Sirturo) is an FDA approved drug as part of combination therapy for active pulmonary multi-drug resistant TB that works by targeting the ATP synthase.
- 5+ and only use when another effective treatment regimen cannot otherwise be provided
- One trial indicated increase in all cause mortality
- Prolongs QT interval and may have liver toxicities
- CYP3A4 substrate

146
Q

What are a tumor, benign tumor, and malignant tumor?

A

Tumor - abnormal mass of cells resulting from defects in normal control of cell survival, proliferation, and differentiation

Benign tumor - does not invade the surrounding tissues or spread to other parts of the body

Malignant tumor (= cancer) - can invade surrounding tissue and spread to other parts of the body (metastasize), will get worse

Tumors are often named after where they arise

147
Q

What are a regimen, adjuvant therapy, and neoadjuvant therapy?

A

Regimen - treatment plan (drugs, dosages, durations)

Adjuvant therapy - additional therapy given after primary treatment to decrease risk of cancer return

Neoadjuvant therapy - treatment given to shrink tumor before main therapy (i.e., surgery)

148
Q

What is cancer chemotherapy?

A

Refers to therapy in which cytotoxic (cell killing) agents are deployed, targeting rapidly dividing cells (usually small molecules)

149
Q

What are microtubules?

A

Important part of the cytoskeleton of the cell that acts as “tracks” for transport of material within the cell.
- Part of the miotic spindle
- Made of polymerized tubulin subunits
- Dynamic structures

They are often the target of chemotherapy drugs in cancer patients.

150
Q

What is paclitaxel (Taxol) (discovery, mechanism, side effects, toxicities, 3 resistances)

A

Placitaxel (Taxol) is a chemotherapy drug that was orginally discovered as natural product isolated from bark of yew tree that acts by binding to and stabilizing microtubules, which are essential components of the cell’s cytoskeleton. This stabilization prevents the normal breakdown and reassembly of microtubules during cell division, leading to cell death in a variety of solid tumors.
- Originally though to induce a “mitotic arrest” by poisoning the mitotic spindle, but now thought to cause abnormal chromosome segregation

Side effects: typical chemo, such as nausea, vomiting, etc.

Delayed toxicities: neuropathy, myelosuppresion
- Nanoparticle formulation of this drug, such as nab-paclitaxel (Abraxane) may reduce some toxicities

Resistances can arise from:
1. Increased expression of proteins that pump drug out of cell
2. Expression (increased or mutant) of proteins that promote mitosis or block cell death
3. Changes in tubulin

151
Q

What is the goal of targeted cancer therapies?

A

Goal of targeted cancer therapies is to attack tumor cells while sparing normal cells by targeting molecular pathways involved in cancer cell survival/progression

152
Q

What is unique about chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) (and kinases in cancer in general)?

A

Some kinases have abnormal activity in cancer (over-expression, mutation, etc.), so they are often targets in targeted cancer therapies by kinase inhibitors.

Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) frequently harbors a specific chromosomal abnormality called a translocation (in CML cells called Philadelphia chromosome).

The result of the Philadelphia chromosome is a fusion “oncoprotein” called BCR-ABL that harbors active ABL kinase activity.

Imatinib (Gleevec) targets ABL kinases, selectively killing CML cells.

153
Q

What is imatinib (Gleevec) (mechanism, efficacy, side effects, resistance)?

A

Imatinib (Gleevec) is a targeted cancer drug for Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) and other forms of cancer that works by inhibiting the ABL kinase and other kinases important in other tumors.

Estimated CML 5 year survival rate is now 95% due to this drug.

Side effects: fluid retention, muscle cramps, others

Resistance: common cause is due to point mutations in BCR-ABL, the “oncoprotein” formed by the Philadelphia chromosome in CML.
- Drugs have been developed to inhibit imatinib-resistant BCR-ABL.

154
Q

What is nivolumab (OPDIVO) (mechanism, side effects, combination administration, efficacy)?

A

Nivolumab (OPDIVO) is a targeted cancer drug that can be used for variety of tumors that works by as an anti-PD1 antibody, allowing cytotoxic T cells to actively remove tumor cells by blocking PD-L1 from inactivating them by binding with PD-1 on T cells. AKA “checkpoint” inhibitor.

Side effects: rash, fatigue, can more rarely see severe immune-related adverse events (irAEs)
- thought to be caused by general immunologic enhancement caused by this drug

Sometimes used in combination with an inhibitor of another “checkpoint,” a kinase inhibitor, or traditional chemotherapy.

Not all patients respond; one hypothesis as to why is that higher mutational load = better response to drug.
- For some tumor types, FDA requires screening tumor for PD-L1 expression (biomarker for response to drug).

155
Q

How are cancer mortality rates trending in the US?

A

In the US, male, female, and overall cancer death rates are steadily declining