Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Intro to Nursing Practice > Exam #3 > Flashcards

Exam #3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

Hypokalemia

A

diarrhea, repeated vomiting, use of potassium-wasting diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hyperkalemia

A

decreased urine output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hypocalcemia

A

acute pancreatitis and neuromuscular excitability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hypercalcemia

A

cancer patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hypomagnesmia

A

increases neuromuscular excitability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

hypermagnesmia

A

ESRD, neuromuscular excitability, lethargy, and decreased DTR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Normal value of Potassium

A

3.5-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Normal value of Calcium

A

8.5-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Normal value of Sodium

A

135-145

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Normal value of Magnesium

A

1.8-4.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Normal value for Phosphate

A

2.8-4.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Metabolic Acidosis

A

arises from increase in metabolic acid or a decrease in base (bicarb).

Kidneys are unable to excrete enough metabolic acids, which accumulate in the blood

Results in a decreased LOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Metabolic Alkalosis

A

arises from direct increase in base (bicarb) or decrease in metabolic acid

results in increased blood bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Respiratory acidosis

A

-arises from alveolar hypoventilation

-lungs are unable to excrete enough CO2

-excess carbonic acid in the blood decreases pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Respiratory alkalosis

A

-arises from alveolar hyperventilation

-lungs excrete too much CO2

-deficit of carbonic acid in the blood increases pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who are the most susceptible to fluid imbalances?

A

the very young and very old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the #1 indicator of fluid status?

A

daily weights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the possible IV complications?

A

fluid overload, infiltration, extravasation, phlebitis, local infection, bleeding at insertion site, and bruising.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Infiltration or Extravasation

A

when IVF is infusing into tissues outside of the vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the treatment for infiltration and extravasation?

A

stop IVF, remove IVF catheter, elevate extremity, encourage active ROM, apply warm or cold compress depending on the type of solution, restart IV and IVF proximal to infusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How can you prevent infiltration and extravasation?

A

monitor IV often for light swelling or pain, secure IV well, carefully select site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is phlebitis?

A

inflammation of the walls of the vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Thrombophlebitis?

A

blood clot formation at the site of the inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the treatment for phlebitis?

A

Stop IVF, remove IV catheter, elevate extremity, apply a warm compress 3-4 times daily, restart IV and IVF proximal to infusion or in another extremity, obtain culture of site and culture of IV cath tip if drainage at site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How can you prevent phlebitis?

A

monitor IV often for redness and pain, rotate sites every 72 hours or more frequently if policy, avoid lower extremities, use hand hygiene, use surgical aseptic technique.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is cellulitis?

A

a bacterial infection that has signs and symptoms similar to that of phlebitis and treatment but cellulitis is more severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the treatment for cellulitis?

A

similar to that of phlebitis but includes antibiotics, antipyretics, analgesics if needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the nursing assessment related to fluid and electrolyte embalances?

A

Age, environment (excessively hot?), dietary intake, lifestyle (ETOH intake history), medication, and recent medical history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the nursing care while administering a blood transfusion?

A

-check vitals every 5 minutes

-watch for transfusion reactions

-check and verify blood with at least 2 nurses before a transfusion

-if a reaction occurs stop the transfusion immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the endocrine functions of the kidney?

A

BP CONTROL
-Renin causes vasoconstriction when released from the juxtaglomerular cells
-prostaglandin E2 and prostacyclin secretion causes vasodilation

ERYTHROPOIETIN STIMULATES RBC PRODUCTION AND MATURATION in the bone marrow

SYNTHESIS OF VITAMIN D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What problems does poor kidney function cause?

A

anemia, hypertension, and electrolyte imbalances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is stress incontinence ?

A

coughing, sneezing, laughing, or physical activity causing urine leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is urge incontinence ?

A

a strong need or urge to urinate causing leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is reflex incontinence?

A

urine leakage due to nerve damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is overflow incontinence?

A

incomplete bladder emptying- overfills when full, leads to leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is functional incontinence?

A

physical inability to reach the toilet in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a possible treatment for stress or urge incontinence?

A

strengthening your pelvic floor with Kegel Exercises

38
Q

What is a possible treatment for functional incontinence?

A

Habit training to improve voluntary control

39
Q

What is a possible treatment for reflex incontinence?

A

Self- catheterization - aseptic technique for chronic disorders such as a spinal cord injury

40
Q

What is a possible treatment for overflow incontinence?

A

Crede method- manual compression of bladder to help with emptying

41
Q

In order for healthy kidney perfusion what should your systolic BP be?

A

80 or greater

42
Q

What is the average urine output per day?

A

1-2 liters

43
Q

What should the minimum urine output per hour be?

A

30 mL

44
Q

What should a nurse do if a pts urine output is less than 30 mL for more than 2 hours?

A

assess for blood loss and call the HCP

45
Q

What is a normal urinary frequency?

A

4-6 times a day

46
Q

Nocturia

A

voiding at night

47
Q

urgency

A

sudden or strong desire

48
Q

dysuria

A

painful or difficulty voiding

49
Q

urinary hesitancy

A

delay in initiating voiding

50
Q

neurogenic bladder

A

nerve pathway not intact, does not sense fullness, or control sphincters

51
Q

dribbling

A

leaking small amounts

52
Q

hematuria

A

blood in the urine

53
Q

polyuria

A

production of abnormally large amounts of urine

54
Q

polydipsia

A

extreme thirst associated with polyuria

55
Q

anuria

A

absence of urine production

56
Q

oliguria

A

decreased urine output, may signal impending urine failure, and is less than 30 mL/h for more than 2 hours

57
Q

What are the 5 subcutaneous sites for injections?

A

-outer posterior aspect of the upper arms

-the abdomen from below the costal margins to the iliac crests

-the anterior aspects of the upper thigh

-the upper back

-upper ventral gluteal

58
Q

Chemical drug names

A

come from the various chemical compounds

59
Q

Generic drug names

A

manufacturer who develops, help to recognize class

60
Q

Trade drug names

A

first manufacturer of the drug

61
Q

Drug classification name

A

based on its desired effect on body system

62
Q

What is the biological half-life?

A

the time it takes for excretion to lower the blood concentration of a drug to decrease by 50 percent. determines how often a med is given

63
Q

What is a med’s trough and when would bloodwork be drawn to measure them?

A

A trough is the lowest level of the drug in a pt’s body. It can be measured by a lab draw approximately 30 minutes before the next dose.

64
Q

What are the 6 rights of medication administration ?

A

right patient
right medication
right dose
right time
right route
right documentation

65
Q

What are the 4 additional medication rights discussed in class?

A

right assessment
right evaluation
right refusal
right education

66
Q

What is the purpose of medication reconciliation?

A

Develop, update, coordinate and communicate accurate client medication information during transitions of care. It is done to avoid medication errors.

67
Q

What are some healthy actions that prevent bowel elimination probelms?

A

Good diet, 3.7 L of water for men and 2.7 L of water for women, physical activity

68
Q

What is a closed drainage system?

A

free drainage by gravity. Urine flow should be unobstructed.

69
Q

What are the special considerations for male catheter insertion?

A

insert catheter at a 90 degree angle to straighten, ease insertion, insert until bifurcation to ensure balloon not inflating in prostatic urethra, secure to upper thigh or lower abdomen.

70
Q

What is an anticholinergic medication?

A

Increases bladder retention

71
Q

Benign hyperplastic hyperplasia

A

enlarged prostate and can cause urinary retention and incontinence

72
Q

what is impaction?

A

unrelieved constipation and unable to expel the hardened feces in the rectum

73
Q

What are signs of impaction?

A

debilitated, confused, unconscious- dehydrated, weak or unaware of need, stool dry and difficult to pass. pt has the inability to pass stool for several days spite the urge to defecate.

74
Q

What are hemorroids?

A

veins in rectum dilated from straining pressure- internal or external. Painful. Thrombosed.

75
Q

What are the treatments for hemorroids?

A

ice pack, warm sitz bath, topical medications, surgery

76
Q

How many mL of gas are we supposed to expel on average?

A

10 mL

77
Q

What are the age related changes of the bowel and digestive system when we are younger?

A

small stomach, rapid peristalsis

78
Q

What are the age related changes effecting the bowel and digestive system when you get older?

A

-decreased chewing ability
-arteriosclerosis decreases GI blood flow
-innervation decreases esophogeal emptying and peristalsis
-decreased perineal and sphincter muscle tone
-taste bud atrophy
-decreased gastric acid

79
Q

What is being tested in a Urinalysis?

A

pH, protein, glucose, ketones, blood, specific gravity, WBC, and bacteria

80
Q

What should the specific gravity be in a urinalysis?

A

1.005-1.030 (lower= diluted and higher= dehydrated)

81
Q

Digital rectal exam

A

assessing for tone and abnormalities

82
Q

Endoscopy

A

lightening FiberopticTube to visualize esophagus, stomach, and small intestine (upper GI tract). Can remove polyps for biopsy. Anesthetic to throat, some clear liquids are ok, NPO before and until gag reflex returns.

83
Q

Colonoscopy

A

NPO, bowel prep- tube in to visualize LI/colon, remove polyps for biopsy or find source of bleeding

84
Q

Upper GI series (barium swallow) X-Ray

A

NPO, drinks barium-opaque contrast solution, clear liquids and laxative day before; shows pharynx, esophagus, stomach

85
Q

Lower GI series Xray- barium enema

A

NPO, barium into anal opening, shows large intestine

86
Q

Amylase and lipase test

A

serum blood tests for hepatitis, pancreatitis (most accurate results after fasting NPO)

87
Q

Abdominal xray

A

obstruction or abnormality, no prep

88
Q

colorectal transit study

A

how food moves through colon, swallows capsule with radiopaque markers, X-Ray on 5th day

89
Q

Computerized tomography of the bowel

A

ct scan of the cross-section views, oral and/or IV sedation- contrast dye- assess for any/all allergies for IV. NPO 4-6 hours before- depends on if oral contrast is used

90
Q

MRI

A

magnet and radio waves to see inside of the body, NPO 4-6 hours before, no metal objects on/in patients

Intro to Nursing Practice (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions