Exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

assessment of an animal condition after injecting toxic product

A

TPR - temperature, pulse, respiration
CRT - capillary refill time
MM - mucous membranes

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2
Q

obvious signs of intoxication

A

GI signs
ataxia - walking uncoordinated
unconscious
seizing
cardiovascular or respiratory distress

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3
Q

decontamination is dependent on

A

the agent and the status of the patient

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4
Q

how to tell what decontamination protocol to follow?

A

call poison control

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5
Q

emesis

A

throwing up

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6
Q

what are drugs to make the animal throw up?

A

apomorphine
hydrogen peroxide

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7
Q

toxic component of chocolate

A

methylxanthines

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8
Q

toxic component of antifreeze

A

ethylene glycol

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9
Q

how long can you wait to treat intoxication with antifreeze?

A

within 8-12 hours of exposure

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10
Q

what is the result of antifreeze ingestion?

A

calcium oxalate crystals

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11
Q

artificial sweetener in gum/candy

A

xylitol

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12
Q

what is the toxic plant in florida?

A

sago palm

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13
Q

lilies are only toxic to

A

cats - result in kidney failure

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14
Q

grapes and raisins are toxic to

A

dogs - result in kidney failure

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15
Q

onions are toxic to

A

cats more susceptible than dogs

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16
Q

what do onions cause?

A

hemolytic anemia

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17
Q

ibuprofen is ____ toxicity

A

NSAID

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18
Q

Acitaminophen common drug name

A

tylenol

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19
Q

what does acetaminophen cause?

A

hemolytic anemia and liver failure

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20
Q

what do vitamin D rodenticides cause?

A

hypercalcemia and hyperphophatemia
results in kidney failure and irreversible mineralization of tissues

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21
Q

what do anticoagulant rodenticides do?

A

block activation of Vit K dependent clotting factors
results in generalized hemorrhage

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22
Q

bufo toads secrete

A

bufotoxin

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23
Q

phases of wound healing

A
  • inflammatory phase
  • proliferative phase
  • maturation phase
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24
Q

inflammatory phase of wound healing happens

A

immediately and lasts 3-5 days

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25
Q

what happens in the inflammatory phase of wound healing?

A

clot forms in the wound to control bleeding and stabilize the wound edges
inflammatory cells enter the wound and begin removing bacteria/debris

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26
Q

when does the proliferative phase of wound healing happen?

A

2-3 days after injury and can last weeks

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27
Q

what occurs during the proliferative phase of wound healing?

A
  • fibroblasts and endothelial cells enter the wound
  • granulation tissue begins filling the wound - barrier against infection
  • epithelialization begins 4-5 days after injury - occurs from the wound edges and moves inward
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28
Q

what is the proliferative phase that can occur in horses?

A

proud flesh

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29
Q

when does the maturation phase of wound healing occur?

A

around 3 weeks after injury and lasts months

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30
Q

what happens during the maturation phase of wound healing?

A

remodeling and realignment of the collagen fibers
time period where wound is regaining strength but it will never be as strong as the original tissue

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31
Q

immediate wound care techniques

A

cover with clean dry bandage
water soluble antibiotic ointments
no antibiotic creams or powders
sugar and honey
hair removal from around the wound
cleaning with chlorhex soln, not scrub

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32
Q

wound lavage is

A

wound flush

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33
Q

why do we flush wounds?

A

remove debris and loose particles

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34
Q

what should the lavage pressure be?

A

8-12 PSI
32 mL syringe with an 18g needle

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35
Q

why is wound debridement done?

A

remove contaminated, devitalized, or necrotic tissues, foreign material

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36
Q

how is wound debridement done?

A

surgical excision of affected tissue
enzymatic debridement
hypertonic solutions (honey/sugar)
medical grade maggots

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37
Q

what are the considerations we take when we want to close a wound?

A

time since injury
degree of contamination
amount of tissue damage
blood supply to wound
animal health
closure without tension or dead space
location of wound

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38
Q

primary wound closure can be done when

A

there is minimal trauma and contamination to the wound

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39
Q

what is the golden period to suture a wound?

A

6-8 hours

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40
Q

what does suturing during the golden period result in ?

A

healing by first intention - appositional healing

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41
Q

delayed primary wound closure takes place

A

1-3 days after injury
before granulation tissue appears
mildly contaminated wounds
minimally traumatized wounds
some cleaning and debridement still takes place

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42
Q

second intention wound healing is when

A

the wound is allowed to heal without surgical closure

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43
Q

when is second intention wound healing used?

A

when the wound is dirty/contaminated and traumatized
cleansing and debridement necessary

44
Q

when does third intention healing take place?

A

sutured at least 3-5 days after injury

45
Q

what are the indications of third intention healing?

A

granulation tissue is present
wound is severely contaminated
wound is severely traumatized
epithelialization and contraction will not completely close the wound
second intention healing is not desirable

46
Q

how do bandages promote wound healing?

A

protect from additional trauma, contamination
prevent wound desiccation, hematoma formation, seroma formation
immobilize the wound
minimize postoperative edema around incisions and exuberant granulation tissue formation in open wounds on lower limbs of horses
absorb wound exudate and lift away foreign material or loose tissue adhering to bandage
promote acid environment increasing oxygen availability in the wound
keep the wound warm

47
Q

bandage primary contact layer

A

adherant or nonadherant
occlusive or nonacclusive
direct contact with wound surface

48
Q

bandage secondary contact layer

A

absorbent
padded
conforming layer of cast padding or roll cotton
covers primary contact layer
supports wound

49
Q

bandage teritary layer

A

holding and protective layer
gauze and elastic or adhesive tape
nonocculsive is preferred so air can transfer and moisture can enter and exit

50
Q

steps in bandage placement

A
  • apply anchoring tapes (stirrups)
  • apply primary contact layer (contact)
  • apply secondary layer (padded)
  • apply tertiary layer (conforming)
  • apply splint
  • reflect, twist, and adhere tape stirrups to gauze
  • apply tertiary (protective) tape
51
Q

what do casts do?

A

stabilize fractures distal to the elbow/stifle
immobilize limbs to protect ligament or tendon repairs

52
Q

where should casts be placed?

A

1 joint above and below any fracture

53
Q

what layer is cast material applied instead of?

A

tertiary layer

54
Q

robert jones bandage

A

thick

55
Q

modified robert jones bandage

A

thinner and the toes stick out

56
Q

what is the aftercare for bandaging?

A

assess toes
foul odors
chafing
no chewing
restrict exercise

57
Q

a clinical hypersensitivity state or allergy with a hereditary predisposition

A

atopy

58
Q

alopecia

A

hair loss

59
Q

died adherent exudate found on the skin surface which can consist of pus, serum, blood, scale, and topical medications

A

crusts

60
Q

an accumulation of the loose fragments of the cornified layer of the skin

A

scale

61
Q

small solid elevation of the skin up to 1 cm which is palpable

A

papule

62
Q

papule with visble exudate

A

pustule

63
Q

scale arranged in a circular rim

A

epidermal collarette

64
Q

when do we use skin scrapes?

A

identifying mites that cause mange

65
Q

bacterial and fungal cultures

A

dematophyte test media - skin is plucked and tests for the presence of dermatophytes
bacteria culture - sent out to lab

66
Q

what is the lamp called to test for ringworm?

A

wood’s lamp

67
Q

what is impression smears/cytology used for?

A

evaluate for surface infection
bacteria
yeast
inflammatory cells

68
Q

what are the two allergy testing methods?

A

serum - measures IgE in circulations
ADV - cost effective can be performed in any vet clinic
DIS - not as accurate as skin testing
intradermal - gold standard
ADV - most accurate way to determine allergies
DIS - requires referral and increased cost

69
Q

dermatophytosis

A

ringworm

70
Q

what are the two types of infections that are not itchy?

A

ringworm and demodectic mange

71
Q

pyoderma is

A

infection of the skin

72
Q

where is sarcoptic mange located usually?

A

ears, elbows, hocks, ventrum
pinnal pedal reflex may be present

73
Q

What is a neonate?

A

The first 2-4 weeks of life.

74
Q

During the neonatal period the baby depends on the mother for

A

Nutrition
Thermoregulation
Care

75
Q

What to check when doing a neonate evaluation

A

Hydration status (mucous membranes)
Body hair - should cover most of the body except the abdomen
Ventral abdominal skin should be dark pink
Discharge from orifices
Body symmetry
Weight

76
Q

First week developmental landmarks

A

Sleep 80% of the day
Nurse every 2-4 hours
Motor skills
Respond to stimuli
Elimination stimulated by dam
Sex determination

77
Q

Second week developmental landmarks

A

Begin to crawl in coordinated manner
Body temp rises
Double their birth weight
Eyes open
Ear canals open

78
Q

Third week developmental

A

Puppies and kittens are able to stand
Good postural reflexes present

79
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

Poor ability to synthesize glucose in the undeveloped liver. Will result when neonate fails to nurse after 24-36 hours.

80
Q

What is one of the most common diseases in the neonate?

A

Hypoglycemia

81
Q

Neonatal isoerythrolysis

A

Occurs with blood type B queens - high levels of naturally occurring antibodies against type A RBCs.
- so when a kitten with blood type A ingests colostrum from a queen with blood type B the antibodies in the colostrum attack the kittens RBCs.

82
Q

Fading puppy/kitten syndrome

A

A syndrome, not a particular diagnosis
Causes - poor management, malnutrition, environment, genetic defects, infections

83
Q

Common problems with orphans

A

Overfeeding
Underfeeding
Overcrowding
Improper hygiene
Too many foster animals per person
Damp bedding
Cold, drafty environment

84
Q

Reproductive cycle beginnings

A

Higher brain centers —> hypothalamus (GnRH released) —-> anterior pituitary (FSH & LH released) ——> ovary (estrogen & progesterone released)

85
Q

GnRH is from

A

Hypothalamus

86
Q

FSH is from

A

Anterior pituitary
Results in follicular growth in the female
Results in growth and release of sperm cells in male

87
Q

Estrogen is from

A

The ovary

88
Q

What is estrogen responsible for>

A

External signs of estrus

89
Q

LH is from

A

The anterior pituitary
Results in ovulation in female
Results in testosterone production in the male

90
Q

Progesterone is from

A

The ovary (CL) or the uterus during preganancy

91
Q

Inhibin is from the

A

Follicle

92
Q

PGF2A is realeased fro the

A

Uterus
Causes CL regression

93
Q

Process of ovulation occurs when

A

The anterior pituitary releases FSH which results in follicular growth/development

94
Q

After ovulation the follicle fills with blood, called the

A

Corpus hemorrhagicum (CH)

95
Q

Puberty in female k9

A

Between 6-24 months of age

96
Q

Proestrus in k9

A

9 days

97
Q

Estrus in k9

A

9 days

98
Q

Diestrus in k9

A

58 days

99
Q

Anestrus in k9

A

4 months

100
Q

Proestrus through anestrus lasts about _____ in the female dog

A

6 months

101
Q

Ovulation occurs during

A

Estrus

102
Q

Diestrus is controlled by

A

Progesterone

103
Q

Site of fertilization

A

Ampulla/isthmus junction

104
Q

Preganancy process

A

Embryonic disk resides in the uterus
Embryonic disk develops to more complex structure
Placenta cells develop into chorion and Allantois
Two fluid sacs surround fetus

105
Q

Parturition preparations

A

Fetal endocrine system sends signals to trigger changes in parental endocrine/reproductive system to cause parturition
High cortisol concentrations cause hormonal changes
Hormonal changes trigger cervix dial action and uterine contraction

106
Q

3 stage process of parturition

A

Stage 1 - preparation for delivery - pelvic ligaments relax, cervix softens, female is restless, uterine contractions without abdominal contractions, averages 6-12 hours
Stage 2 - fetal expulsion - 20-60 mins per puppy - ranges 3-6 hours up to 24 hours
Stage 3 - expulsion of placenta

107
Q

Pregnancy determination in the canine

A

Abdominal palapation
Hormone assay - relaxin
Ultrasound
Radiography after day 45 can see ossification of fetal skeleton