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First Semester LPN > Exam #3 > Flashcards

Exam #3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the trade name for Ibuprofen?

A

Advil or Motrin

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2
Q

What classification is Ibuprofen associated with?

A

Antipyretic, Antirheumatic, Nonopioid Analgesic, Anti-Inflammatory

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3
Q

What are the usual routes Ibuprofen is given?

A

PO and IV

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4
Q

What is the reason someone would be administered Ibuprofen?

A

They need to decrease their pain level and inflammation.
They need to reduce their fever.

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5
Q

What are some of the common side effects of Ibuprofen?

A

Heart Attack, Stroke, Hypertension, Arrhythmias
GI Bleeding, Hepatitis
Exfoliative Dermatitis, Steven Johnson Syndrome
Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis, Hypersensitivity Reactions

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6
Q

What is some of the patient teaching needed for Ibuprofen?

A

Advise to take with full glass of water and sit up right for about 15-30 after taking. Take medication as directed. No alcohol. Notify of current medications. Do not take no more than 10 days for pain or 3 days for fever. Notify if pregnant because may cause fetal harm.

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7
Q

What are the lab value alterations caused by Ibuprofen?

A

May cause prolonged bleeding time.

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8
Q

What are the drugs that may interact with Ibuprofen?

A

Aspirin, corticosteroids, alcohol, acetaminophen, diuretics, antihypertensives, insulin, lithium, thrombolytics, warfarin.

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9
Q

What needs to be assessed before the administration of Ibuprofen?

A

Assess if they have asthma or signs and symptoms of GI bleeding. Assess pain location, type, and intensity. Assess vital signs.

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10
Q

Why would someone not be able to take Ibuprofen?

A

If they show signs of GI bleeding or if a skin rash appears or occurs.

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11
Q

What needs to be evaluated or looked at after the administration of Ibuprofen?

A

Check the skin for any rashes and assess for any GI bleeding.
See if the pain has diminished and the medication worked.
See if the fever has been reduced.

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12
Q

What is the trade name for Levothyroxine?

A

Synthroid

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13
Q

What classification is Levothyroxine associated with?

A

Hormones

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14
Q

What are the usual routes Levothyroxine is given?

A

PO and IV

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15
Q

What are some of the reasons someone would be administered Levothyroxine?

A

Replacement in hypothyroidism to restore normal hormonal balance.
Suppression of thyroid cancer.

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16
Q

What is the antidote for Levothyroxine?

A

Propranolol

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17
Q

What are some of the common side effects of Levothyroxine?

A

Angina pectoris, arrhythmias, tachycardia
Hyperthyroidism, menstrual irregularities
Abdominal cramps, weight loss, sweating
Accelerated bone maturation in children.

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18
Q

What is some of the patient teaching needed for Levothyroxine?

A

Take medicine as directed at the same time everyday. Therapy is lifelong. Avoid taking other thyroid medications. Notify if pregnant. Need follow-up exams.

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19
Q

What are the lab value alterations that may occur with the administration of Levothyroxine?

A

Monitor thyroid-stimulation hormone (TSH) serum levels. Monitor blood and urine glucose in diabetic patients.

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20
Q

What are some of the drugs that may interact with Levothyroxine?

A

Calcium carbonate, antacids, warfarin, insulin, digoxine, ketamine, phenobarbital. Grapefruit juice should not be consumed.

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21
Q

What needs to be assessed before administration of Levothyroxine?

A

Assess vitals especially apical pulse, and BP. Monitor height and weight. Also for children monitor their psychomotor development.

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22
Q

Why would someone not be able to take Levothyroxine?

A

If tachyarrhythmias, or chest pain occur. Also if their vitals are abnormal.

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23
Q

What needs to be evaluated or looked at after the administration of Levothyroxine?

A

Determine if the medication is assisting in the suppression of thyroid cancer and if it is helping to replace the hormones needed.

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24
Q

What is the trade name for Lorazepam?

A

Ativan

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25
Q

What classification is Lorazepam associated with?

A

Anti-anxiety, Sedative/Hypnotics

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26
Q

What are the usual routes Lorazepam are given?

A

PO, IM, IV

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27
Q

What are some of the reasons someone may be administered Lorazepam?

A

To Sedate
Decrease anxiety
Decrease seizures

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28
Q

What is the antidote for Lorazepam?

A

Flumazenil (Romazicon)

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29
Q

What are some of the common side effects of Lorazepam?

A

Apnea, Cardiac arrest, bradycardia, hypotension
Respiratory Depression
Weight gain, blurred vision, rash
Physical dependence, psychological dependence

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30
Q

What is some of the patient teaching needed for Lorazepam?

A

Take medication as directed. Possible abuse to drug. Usually a short-term medication. Notify of current medications. Avoid alcohol. May cause fetal harm notify if pregnant.

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31
Q

What are the lab value alterations that may be cause by Lorazepam?

A

Clients on high dose therapy should receive routine evaluation of renal, hepatic, and hematological function.

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32
Q

What are some of the drugs that may have interactions with Lorazepam?

A

Antipsychotics, alcohol, opioids, sedatives or hypnotics, muscle relaxants.

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33
Q

What needs to be assessed before the administration of Lorazepam?

A

Assess for risk of addiction or abuse. Assess for fall risks. Assess the characteristics of the seizures. Assess anxiety and mental status.

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34
Q

Why would someone not be given Lorazepam?

A

CNS Reactions (Central Nervous System) occur. If addiction or abuse occurs.

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35
Q

What needs to be evaluated or looked at after the administration of Lorazepam?

A

Evaluate clients mental status and anxiety and look for an improvement.
See if seizures have suppressed or improved.

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36
Q

What is the trade name for Magnesium Oxide?

A

Mag-Ox

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37
Q

What classification is Magnesium Oxide associated with?

A

Laxatives

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38
Q

What are the usual routes Magnesium Oxide is given?

A

PO

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39
Q

What are the reason someone would need to be administered Magnesium Oxide?

A

Evacuation of the Colon
Replacement in deficiency states

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40
Q

What are some of the common side effects of Magnesium Oxide?

A

Diarrhea
Flushing, Sweating

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41
Q

What is some of the patient teaching needed for Magnesium Oxide?

A

Do not take this medication within 2 hrs of taking any other medications. Consult with health care professional before taking antacids up to 2 weeks after taking this medication. Only used for short term therapy.

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42
Q

What are some of the drugs that could have interactions with Magnesium Oxide?

A

Neuromuscular Blocking Agents

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43
Q

What needs to be assessed before the administration of Magnesium Oxide?

A

Assess for abdominal distention, bowel sounds, and usual bowel functions.
Assess the characteristics of the stool produced.
Assess for heart burn and indigestion and the location, duration, character, and factors of gastric pain.

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44
Q

Why would someone not be able to be administered Magnesium Oxide?

A

They have abdominal distention or unusual bowel sounds.

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45
Q

What needs to be evaluated or looked at after the administration of Magnesium Oxide?

A

Look for a relief of gastric pain and irritation.
Need to have had a passage of a soft, formed bowel movement usually within 3-6 hrs.
Prevention and treatment of magnesium deficiency.

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46
Q

What is the trade name for Meclizine?

A

Antivert

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47
Q

What classification is Meclizine associated with?

A

Antiemetics, Antihistamines

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48
Q

What are the usual routes Meclizine are given?

A

PO

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49
Q

What are the reasons someone would be administered Meclizine?

A

Motion sickness
Vertigo associated with diseases of vestibular system.

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50
Q

What are some of the common side effects of Meclizine?

A

Blurred vision
Dry mouth
Drowsiness, Fatigue

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51
Q

What is some of the patient teaching needed for Meclizine?

A

Take medication as directed. May cause drowsiness. Use frequent mouth rinses, oral hygiene, gum to prevent dry mouth. No alcohol. Notify if pregnant. If taking for motion sickness take within 1 hr before exposed to conditions that cause motion sickness.

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52
Q

What are the lab value alterations that may be caused by Meclizine?

A

May cause false-negative results in skin tests using allergen extracts. Discontinue Meclizine 72 hr before testing.

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53
Q

What are some of the drugs that may have interactions with Meclizine?

A

Alcohol, antihistamines, opioid analgesics, sedatives/hypnotics, antidepressants, haloperidol.

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54
Q

What needs to be assessed before the administration of Meclizine?

A

Assess patient for nausea and vomiting before and after motion sickness conditions.
Assess degree of vertigo periodically.

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55
Q

Why would someone not be administered Meclizine?

A

If they are having nausea and vomiting before the administration of Meclizine.

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56
Q

What needs to be evaluated or looked at after the administration of Meclizine?

A

Look for relief of symptoms of motion sickness.
Prevention and treatment of vertigo due to vestibular pathology.

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57
Q

What is the trade name for Memantine?

A

Namenda

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58
Q

What classification is Memantine associated with?

A

Anti-Alzheimer’s Agents

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59
Q

What are the usual routes Memantine are given?

A

PO

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60
Q

What are the reasons someone would be administered Memantine?

A

To decrease symptoms of dementia/cognitive decline (Does not slow progression).
Cognitive Enhancement
Does not cure disease!!

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61
Q

What are some of the common side effects of Memantine?

A

Hypertension, rash
Diarrhea, weight gain
Urinary frequency, anemia

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62
Q

What is some of the patient teaching needed for Memantine?

A

Advise how and when to administer medication. May cause dizziness. Notify of current medications. Advise that improvement in cognitive functioning may take months. Notify if pregnant.

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63
Q

What are the lab value alterations that may be caused by Memantine?

A

May cause anemia.

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64
Q

What are some of the drugs that may have interactions with Memantine?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, sodium bicarbonate.

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65
Q

What needs to be assessed before the administration of Memantine?

A

Assess cognitive function.

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66
Q

What needs to be evaluated or looked at after the administration of Memantine?

A

Improvement in neurocognitive decline clients with Alzheimers disease.

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67
Q

What is the trade name for Metformin?

A

Glucophage

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68
Q

What classification is Metformin associated with?

A

Antidiabetics

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69
Q

What are the usual routes that Metformin are given?

A

PO

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70
Q

What are the reasons someone would be administered Metformin?

A

To decrease hepatic glucose production.
Decreases intestinal glucose absorption.
Increases sensitivity to insulin.

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71
Q

What are some of the common side effects of Metformin?

A

Lactic acidosis
Abdominal bloating, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting
Unpleasant metallic taste
Lower vitamin B12 levels

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72
Q

What is some of the patient teaching needed for Metformin?

A

Take medicine same time everyday as directed. Advise client that this medication helps control hyperglycemia but does not cure diabetes. Therapy is usually long term. Advise to follow diet, medication, and exercise regimen. Review signs of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. Advise proper testing of blood glucose and urine ketones. Explain risk of lactic acidosis. Notify of current medications. Advise to carry a form of sugar with them at all times. Notify if pregnant. Need follow-up exams.

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73
Q

What are the lab value alterations that may be caused by Metformin?

A

Monitor serum glucose and glycosylated hemoglobin periodically.
Assess renal function annually.
Monitor serum folic acid and B12 levels every 1-2 years.

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74
Q

What are some of the drugs that may have interactions with Metformin?

A

Alcohol, digoxin, morphine, calcium channel blockers, vancomycin, furosemide.

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75
Q

What needs to be assessed before the administration of Metformin?

A

Assess for ketoacidosis and lactic acidosis.
Assess for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.

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76
Q

Why would someone not be administered Metformin?

A

If ketoacidosis or lactic acidosis occurs.

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77
Q

What needs to be evaluated or looked at after the administration of Metformin?

A

Control of blood glucose levels without the appearance of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia.

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78
Q

What is the trade name for Metoprolol?

A

Lopressor

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79
Q

What classification is Metoprolol associated with?

A

Antianginals, Antihypertensives, Beta Blocker

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80
Q

What are the usual routes Metoprolol are given?

A

PO and IV

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81
Q

What are the reasons someone would be administered Metoprolol?

A

Decrease blood pressure and heart rate.
Decreased frequency of attacks of angina pectoris.
Decreased rate of cardiovascular mortality and hospitalization in clients with heart failure.

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82
Q

What are some of the common side effects of Metoprolol?

A

Bradycardia, heart failure, pulmonary edema
Rash, blurred vision, hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia
Erectile dysfunction, arthralgia, bronchospasm
Drug-induced lupus syndrome

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83
Q

What is some of the patient teaching needed for Metoprolol?

A

Take medication at the same time everyday as directed. Teach how to check pulse daily and BP biweekly. May cause drowsiness. Change positions slowly. Advise may increase sensitivity to cold. Notify of current medications. Diabetics should closely monitor blood glucose. Notify if pregnant.

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84
Q

What are the lab value alterations that may be caused by Metoprolol?

A

May cause rise in ANA titers.
May cause rise in blood glucose levels.
May cause rise in serum alkaline phosphatase, LDH, AST, ALT levels.

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85
Q

What are some of the drugs that may have interactions with Metoprolol?

A

Digoxin, antihypertensives, alcohol, amphetamines, cocaine, insulins, dopamine.

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86
Q

What needs to be assessed before administration of Metoprolol?

A

Assess vitals. Monitor intake and output and weights daily. Assess frequency and characteristics of angina attacks.

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87
Q

What needs to be evaluated or looked at after the administration of Metoprolol?

A

Decrease in BP.
Reduction in frequency of anginal attacks.
Prevention of MI.

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88
Q

What is the trade name of Morphine?

A

MS Contin

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89
Q

What classification is Morphine associated with?

A

Opioid Analgesics

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90
Q

What are the usual routes Morphine is given?

A

PO, IM, Subcut, Rect, IV, Epidural, IT

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91
Q

What are the reasons someone would be administered Morphine?

A

Decrease in severity of pain.

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92
Q

What is the antidote for Morphine?

A

Naloxone

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93
Q

What are some of the common side effects of Morphine?

A

Hypotension, bradycardia, constipation
Respiratory depression, physical dependence
Adrenal insufficiency, psychological dependence
Blurred vision, diplopia

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94
Q

What is some of the patient teaching needed for Morphine?

A

Advise how and when to ask for pain medication. Do not stop suddenly may cause withdrawal symptoms. May cause drowsiness and dizziness. Advise about drug abuse potential. Teach how to recognize respiratory depression. Change positions slowly. Notify of current medications. No alcohol. Advise to use frequent mouth rinses, oral hygiene, and gum to prevent dry mouth. Notify if pregnant.

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95
Q

What are the lab value alterations caused by Morphine?

A

May rise plasma amylase and lipase levels.

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96
Q

What are some of the drugs that may have interactions with Morphine?

A

MAO inhibitors, benzodiazepines, opioids, sedative/hypnotics, muscle relaxants, antipsychotics, alcohol, tramadol, trazodone, warfarin.

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97
Q

What needs to be assessed before the administration of Morphine?

A

Assess the type, location, and the intensity of the pain. Assess level of consciousness.

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98
Q

Why would someone not be administered Morphine?

A

If addiction or abuse occurs.

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99
Q

What needs to be evaluated or looked at after the administration of Morphine?

A

Look for a decrease in the severity of pain without a significant alteration in level of consciousness or respiratory status.
Decrease in symptoms of pulmonary edema.

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100
Q

What is the trade name for Naloxone?

A

Narcan

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101
Q

What classification is Naloxone associated with?

A

Opioid Antagonists

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102
Q

What are the usual routes Naloxone is given?

A

IV, IM, Subcut, Intranasal

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103
Q

What are the reasons someone would be administered Naloxone?

A

To reverse the signs of opioid excess (overdose).

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104
Q

What are some of the common side effects of Naloxone?

A

Ventricular Arrhythmias
Nausea, Vomiting
Hypertension, Hypotension

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105
Q

What is some of the patient teaching needed for Naloxone?

A

Notify if pregnant. If intranasal instruct on proper use.

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106
Q

What are some of the drugs that may interact with Naloxone?

A

Opioid Analgesics

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107
Q

What needs to be assessed before the administration of Naloxone?

A

Monitor vitals. Dilute and administer in slow increments if the opioid has been taken a week or longer. Assess for pain. Assess for signs of withdrawal.

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108
Q

Why would someone not be administered Naloxone?

A

If their vitals are abnormal or they experience signs of withdrawal and pain.

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109
Q

What needs to be evaluated or looked at after the administration of Naloxone?

A

Alertness without significant signs of pain or withdrawal symptoms.

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110
Q

Elimination

A

The excretion of waste products by:
Urine
Stool/feces/bowel movement/defecate

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111
Q

Continence

A

Purposeful control of urinary or fecal elimination.

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112
Q

Incontinence

A

No control of urine or bowel movements.

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113
Q

Anuria

A

Absence of urinary output, maybe normal for patient with dialysis.

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114
Q

Dysuria

A

Painful or difficult urination.

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115
Q

Polyuria

A

Increased urinary output.

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116
Q

Nocturia

A

Waking during the night to void.

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117
Q

Urinary Frequency

A

Multiple episodes of urination with little urine produced in a short period of time.

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118
Q

Urinary Hesitancy

A

The urge to urinate, but the client has difficulty starting the urine stream.

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119
Q

Urinary Incontinence

A

Disruption in the storage or emptying of the bladder with involuntary release of urine.

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120
Q

Urinary Retention

A

Either incomplete emptying of the bladder after urination or a complete inability to urinate.

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121
Q

Stress

A

Type of Urinary Incontinence. Leakage of small amounts during physical movement.

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122
Q

Overflow

A

Type of Urinary Incontinence. Unexpected leakage of small amounts because bladder is full.

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123
Q

Urge

A

Type of Urinary Incontinence. Frequent leakage of large amounts of urine at unexpected times (even while sleeping) also known as “overactive bladder”.

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124
Q

Mixed

A

Type of Urinary Incontinence. Stress and urge incontinence together.

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125
Q

Functional

A

Type of Urinary Incontinence. Untimely urination because of physical disability, external obstacles, or cognitive problems that prevent client from reaching toilet.

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126
Q

Transient

A

Type of Urinary Incontinence. Temporary leakage d/t a situation that will pass (medication/infection/colds with coughing).

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127
Q

What are some physical causes of urinary incontinence?

A

-Multiple Births
-Organ Failure
-Infection/Inflammation
-Post-op d/t anesthesia
-Medications
-Obstruction/tumors
-Surgical procedures
-Acute or chronic injury
-Dysfunction of sphincters (internal/external)

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128
Q

What are some of the psychological causes of urinary incontinence?

A

-Anxiety
-Depression
-Cognitive Impairments

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129
Q

No color/transparency of the urine means?

A

You’re drinking a lot of water. You may want to cut down.

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130
Q

Pale straw color of the urine means?

A

You’re normal, healthy and well-hydrated.

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131
Q

Transparent yellow color of the urine means?

A

You’re normal.

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132
Q

Dark yellow color of the urine means?

A

Normal. But drink some water soon.

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133
Q

Amber or honey color of the urine means?

A

Your body isn’t getting enough water, drink some now.

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134
Q

Syrup or brown ale color of the urine means?

A

You could have liver disease or severe dehydration. Drink some water and see your doctor if it persists.

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135
Q

Pink to reddish color of the urine means?

A

Have you eaten beetroot, blueberries or rhubarb recently? If not you may have blood in your urine. It could be nothing or it could be a sign of kidney disease, tumors, UTI, prostate problems or something else. You should consult your doctor.

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136
Q

Orange color of the urine means?

A

You may not be drinking enough water or you could have a liver or bile duct condition. Or it could be food dye. Consult your doctor.

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137
Q

Blue or green color of the urine means?

A

There is a rare genetic disease that can turn your urine blue or green. Also certain bacteria can infect the urinary tract. But it’s probably a dye in something you ate or a medication. See your doctor if it persists.

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138
Q

What are some outside influences on urine?

A

Some medications can change the color of your urine. Such as laxatives and chemotherapy drugs which can make your urine darker than normal.

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139
Q

What are some of the consequences of altered urinary elimination?

A

-Skin breakdown and infection from incontinence.
-Falls (if rushing)
-Depression/withdrawal
-Pain/Discomfort
-Relationship barriers (sex and leakage, embarrassment of wearing a pad)
-Changes to their social life (always having to go to the bathroom, stopping constantly on road trips, afraid of an accident, embarrassed.)
-Renal Issues
-Chronic UTI’s from retention.
-Inability to remove toxins can lead to death.

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140
Q

What are some of the tests and treatment for altered urinary elimination?

A

-Diagnostic tests to check urinary structures, stress testing, residual flowmeters, and invasive tests.
-Kegel Exercises
-Medications - either to help you void or to help you not to void so much.
-Surgery
-Injections/botox
-Electrical stimulation
-Implanted devices
-Bladder training

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141
Q

What are some things you should avoid if you are experiencing urinary issues?

A

-Caffeine
-Alcohol
-Carbonated Drinks
-Artificial Sweeteners

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142
Q

Bowel Incontinence

A

Involuntary passage of stool.

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143
Q

Constipation

A

Inability to pass stool for an extended period of time, acute or chronic.

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144
Q

Impaction

A

Stool at the rectum that is unable to properly evacuate due to hard/large form.

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145
Q

Diarrhea

A

Frequent passing of watery, liquid or loose stools.

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146
Q

What are some of the physical causes of bowel incontinence?

A

-Sphincter control
-Diarrhea
-Acute or chronic sickness
-Acute or chronic disability
-Traumatic Injury
-Medications

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147
Q

What are some of the psychological causes of bowel incontinence?

A

-Cognitive Impairments
-Neurologic Problems

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148
Q

Bowel Retention

A

Inability to pass stool from the rectum.
Results in constipation or impaction.
Continued retention causes loss of appetite, pain, and possible a fecal impaction.

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149
Q

What are some of the causes of constipation?

A

-Side effect from medications
-“Holding it”, fear of going in public.
-Intestines slow down as you age.
-Inflammation/hemorrhoids
-Infections (internal/external)
-Chronic conditions
-Improper nutritional intake
-Not enough water
-Vitamins (iron)
-Tumors, polyps, organ failure
-Bedrest/inactivity
-Injuries/disease

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150
Q

What medications are known to cause constipation?

A

-Narcotics (depresses central nervous system, slows peristalsis)
-Anesthetics (puts organs to sleep, not just the person)
-Diuretics (pulls water out go the system)
-Sedatives (depresses central nervous system, slows peristalsis)
-Antidepressants (dry effect)
-Anticholinergics (interferes with muscle activation, decrease gastric mobility)
-Calcium Channel Blockers (blocks calcium channels which affect smooth muscle in intestines)

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151
Q

Type 1 on the Bristol Stool Scale is?

A

Separate hard lumps, like nuts (hard to pass)

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152
Q

Type 2 on the Bristol Stool Scale is?

A

Log shaped but lumpy.

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153
Q

Type 3 on the Bristol Stool Scale is?

A

Like a log but with cracks on it’s surface.

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154
Q

Type 4 on the Bristol Stool Scale is?

A

Like a log or snake, smooth and soft.

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155
Q

Type 5 on the Bristol Stool Scale is?

A

Soft blobs with clear-cut edges (passed easily)

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156
Q

Type 6 on the Bristol Stool Scale is?

A

Fluffy pieces with ragged edges, a mushy stool.

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157
Q

Type 7 on the Bristol Stool Scale is?

A

Watery, no solid pieces. Entirely liquid.

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158
Q

What does it mean when you have brown stool?

A

Stool is naturally brown due to the bile produced in your liver.

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159
Q

What does it mean when you have green stool?

A

Food may be moving through your large intestine too quickly. Or you could have eaten lots of green leafy veggies, or green food coloring.

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160
Q

What does it mean when you have yellow stool?

A

Greasy, foul-smelling yellow stool indicates excess fat, which could be due to a malabsorption disorder like celiac disease.

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161
Q

What does it mean when you have black stool?

A

It could mean that you’re bleeding internally due to ulcer or cancer. Some vitamins containing iron or bismuth subsalicylate could cause black stool too. Pay attention if it’s stinky, and see a doc if you worried.

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162
Q

What does it mean who you have light colored, white, or clay-colored stool?

A

If it’s not what you’re normally seeing, it could mean a bile duct obstruction. Some meds could cause this too. See a doc.

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163
Q

What does it mean when you have blood-stained or red stool?

A

Blood in your stool, could be a symptom of cancer. Always see a doc right away if you find blood in your stool.

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164
Q

Chronic Illness

A

Develops slowly, can sometimes be controlled but not cured, long-lasting

165
Q

Acute Illness

A

Sudden development of an illness that resolves in a short time.

166
Q

Terminal Illness

A

Has no cure, ends in death.

167
Q

Primary Illness

A

Develops without being caused by another health problem, event, or injury.

168
Q

Secondary Illness

A

Is caused by a primary illness.

169
Q

Genetic Illness

A

Is an inherited disease.

170
Q

Congenital Illness

A

Is present at birth.

171
Q

Idiopathic Illness

A

Is an illness for which there is no known etiology (cause)

172
Q

Etiology

A

The cause, set of causes, or manner of causation of a disease or condition.

173
Q

Pathophysiology

A

How an illness affects the body, what changes are caused, etcetera.

174
Q

Expected Findings

A

Findings that are expected for a condition.

175
Q

Prodromal Phase of Illness

A

Prior to the onset of symptoms. Person may simply “not feel good.”

176
Q

Symptomatic Phase of Illness

A

Observable symptoms begin such as sore throat, cough, abdominal pain, etcetera.

177
Q

Seeking Help Phase of Illness

A

Individual has accepted that an illness is present and decides to seek help.

178
Q

Dependency Phase of Illness

A

Individual must rely on others for help with diagnosis and treatment.

179
Q

Recovery Phase of Illness

A

Individual slowly regains independence and baseline health status. If chronic recovery phase may not be possible.

180
Q

Culture

A

A collection of beliefs and values about life that is shared and maintained by a group of people and passed down through generations.

181
Q

Ethnicity/Ethnic

A

Defines a group of people who share culture based on ancestry, social experiences, religion, and history.

182
Q

Race

A

Social classification that assigned a group membership based on physical characteristics.

183
Q

What are some other factors influencing care for different cultures?

A

-Family organization and structure
-Nutritional practices
-Death/dying rituals
-Medicine/treatments
-Barriers to health care
-Some health conditions are more common in certain groups due to genetics.

184
Q

Nutrition affects what?

A

Growth and development, cellular function and repair, health promotion, and disease prevention.

185
Q

Nutritional status

A

Positively impacts health conditions and disorders, or you can flip it, disease negatively affects nutritional status.

186
Q

Intake

A

Proper ingestion of necessary foods to meet nutrient and fluid needs.
-Oral
-Enteral
-Parenteral

187
Q

Digestion

A

The process of mechanical and chemical breakdown.

188
Q

Absorption

A

After food is digested, villi (hair in intestinal tract) absorb nutrients into capillaries which is then transported through the vascular system.

189
Q

Metabolism

A

Nutrients being broken down to a cellular level and transported to all areas of the body.

190
Q

Nutrition in Infants and Children

A

Growth and development plays a key role in neutron status.

191
Q

Nutrition in Pregnancy and Lactation

A

Significant changes in nutrient needs.

192
Q

Nutrition in Older Adults

A

Body slows down, does not work like it use to.

193
Q

What are the required nutrients?

A

-Carbohydrates
-Protein
-Fat
-Minerals and Electrolytes
-Calcium
-Phosphorous
-Magnesium
-Sodium
-Potassium
-Chloride
-Vitamins (A,C,D,E,K and B which includes thiamine, riboflavin, niacin, biotin, folate, and more)

194
Q

Protein Deficiency

A

Impairs growth and development, impact the body’s ability to repair and replace body tissue, loss of muscle mass, reduces the body’s ability to produce immunities, edema, poor wound healing, and adverse effects on brain function.

195
Q

Fat Deficiency

A

Decreased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.

196
Q

Carbohydrates Deficiency

A

May lead to ketosis.

197
Q

Iron Deficiency

A

Pallor, fatigue, shortness of breath, headache, irritability, anemia, fainting.

198
Q

Magnesium/Potassium/Calcium Deficiency

A

Muscular and bone symptoms and problems.

199
Q

Zinc Deficiency

A

Hair loss, delayed healing, rash, difficulty with taste and smell.

200
Q

Sodium Deficiency

A

GI symptoms, lethargy, headache, confusion, seizures (due to brain swelling)

201
Q

Vitamin A Deficiency

A

Infections, vision problems.

202
Q

Vitamin B Deficiency

A

(Remember there are a bunch of different types): 4 D’s, Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Dementia, and Death. Also, anemia, and psychiatric disorders, constipation, fatigues, paralysis, muscle coordination, mental alertness, and short-term memory loss.

203
Q

Vitamin C Deficiency

A

Scurvy (think bleeding).

204
Q

Vitamin D Deficiency

A

Rickets, bone softening.

205
Q

Vitamin E Deficiency

A

Peripheral neuropathy, ataxia.

206
Q

Vitamin K

A

Excessive bleeding.

207
Q

Vitamin A Toxicity

A

Nausea, dermatitis, headache, dizziness, coma, death.

208
Q

Vitamin B Toxicity

A

Dependent upon type - uncoordinated movement and nerve damage, flushing, NV.

209
Q

Vitamin C Toxicity

A

Gastrointestinal disturbances, diarrhea, inhibits zinc absorption, urinary stones.

210
Q

Vitamin D Toxicity

A

(Rare but serious) mental and physical growth retardation, kidney stones, loss of kidney function, nausea, vomiting, anorexia.

211
Q

Vitamin E Toxicity

A

Blood clotting issues.

212
Q

Vitamin K Toxicity

A

Blood clotting issues.

213
Q

Calcium Toxicity

A

Constipation, flatus, kidney stones.

214
Q

Iron Toxicity

A

Missed menstrual periods, discoloration of skin, joint swelling and pain.

215
Q

Zinc Toxicity

A

Abdominal cramping and diarrhea.

216
Q

Bland diet

A

One that is free from any irritating or stimulating foods.

217
Q

DASH Diet

A

(Dietary Approach to Stop Hypertension) a diet high in fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy products; low in saturated and total fats; low in cholesterol; and high in fiber.

218
Q

Elimination Diet

A

One for diagnosis of food allergy, based on omission of foods that might cause symptoms in the patient.

219
Q

Feingold Diet

A

A controversial diet for children with ADHD (Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder), which excludes artificial colorings, and flavorings, preservatives, and salicylates.

220
Q

High Calorie Diet

A

One that furnishes more calories than needed to maintain weight, often more the 3500-4000 calories per day.

221
Q

High Fiber Diet

A

One high in dietary fiber (typically more than 24g daily), which decreases bowel transit time and relieves constipation.

222
Q

High Protein Diet

A

One containing large amounts of protein, consisting largely of meats, fish, milk, legumes, and nuts.

223
Q

Low Fat Diet

A

One containing limited amounts of fat.

224
Q

Low Purine Diet

A

One for mitigation of gout, omitting meat, fowl, and fish and substituting milk, eggs, cheese and vegetable protein.

225
Q

Low Residue Diet

A

One with a minimum of cellulose and fiber and restriction of connective tissues found in certain cuts of meat. It is prescribed for irritations of the intestinal tract, after surgery of the large intestine, in partial intestinal obstruction, or when limited bowel movements are desirable, as in colostomy patients. Also called low fiber diet and minimal residue diet.

226
Q

Low Tyramine Diet

A

A special diet required by patients receiving MAO inhibitors. Foods containing tyramine include aged cheeses, red wine, beer, cream, chocolate, and yeast.

227
Q

Protein-Sparing Diet

A

One consisting only of liquid protein or liquid mixtures of proteins, vitamins, and minerals, containing no more than 600 calories; it is designed to maintain a favorable nitrogen balance.

228
Q

High-Calorie Diet, High Energy Diet

A

One that furnishes more calories than needed for maintenance; used to increase body condition; in recovery from illness and for maintenance under stressful conditions.

229
Q

High-Fiber Diet

A

One relatively high in dietary fiber; in dogs and cats, used in the management of large and small bowel diarrhea, diabetes mellitus, constipation and obesity.

230
Q

Dysphagia-Pureed

A

(Homogenous, very cohesive, pudding-like, requiring very little chewing ability.)

231
Q

Dysphagia-Mechanical Altered

A

(Cohesive, moist, semisolid foods, requiring some chewing.)

232
Q

Dysphagia-Advanced

A

(Soft foods that require more chewing ability.)

233
Q

Regular

A

(All foods allowed)

234
Q

Clear Liquid Diet Definition

A

A clear liquid diet consists of clear liquids – such as water, broth and plain gelatin that are easily digested and leave no undigested residue in your intestinal tract. Your doctor may prescribe a clear liquid diet before certain medical procedures or if you have certain digestive problems. Because a clear liquid diet can’t provide you with adequate calories and nutrients, it shouldn’t be continued for more than a few days. Clear liquids and foods may be colored so long as you are able to see through them. Foods can be considered liquid if they are even partly liquid at room temperature. You can’t eat solid food while on a clear liquid diet.

235
Q

Clear Liquid Diet Purpose

A

A clear liquid diet is often used before tests, procedures or surgeries that require no food in your stomach or intestines, such as before colonoscopy. It may also be recommended as a short-term diet if you have certain digestive problems, such as nausea, vomiting or diarrhea, or after certain types of surgery.

236
Q

Clear Liquid Diet Details

A

A clear liquid diet helps maintain adequate hydration, provides some important electrolytes, such as sodium and potassium, and gives some energy at a time when a full diet isn’t possible or recommended.

237
Q

What foods are allowed in a clear liquid diet?

A

-Water (plain, carbonated or flavored)
-Fruit juices without pulp, such as apple or white grape.
-Fruit-flavored beverages, such as fruit punch or lemonade.
-Carbonated drinks, including dark sodas (cola and root beet)
-Gelatin
-Tea or coffee without milk or cream.
-Strained tomato or vegetable juice.
-Sports Drinks
-Clear, fat-free broth (bouillon)
-Honey or sugar
-Hard candy, such as lemon drops or peppermint rounds.
-Ice pops without milk, bits of fruit, seeds or nuts.

238
Q

For certain exams such as colon exams, your doctor may ask you to avoid?

A

Liquids or gelatin with red coloring.

239
Q

Full Liquid Diet Definition

A

A full liquid diet is often used after some types of surgery or if you have certain digestive conditions that won’t allow you to eat solid foods. A full liquid diet is similar to a clear liquid diet, but you can also consume milk, vegetable juice, pureed soups and strained cooked cereals if they’re thinned with milk or water. Full liquid diets are usually low in calories and nutrients, so you doctor may suggest adding liquid dietary supplements like Ensure to your daily meal plan. Or you can add powdered milk to creamed soups to get extra calories, or sweeten foods with sugar or liquid sweeteners such as honey or corn syrup. If you need to cut back on calories, artificial sweeteners are also allowed on a full liquid diet.

240
Q

What foods are allowed on the full liquid diet?

A

-All kinds of fruits and vegetable juice
-Pureed fruit or vegetables
-Milk
-Soy or almond milk
-Yogurt (without fruit chunks)
-Melted cheese
-Eggs can be eaten like a soft custard
-Honey
-Syrup
-Coffee
-Tea
-Soft Drinks
-Sports Drinks
-Water
-Strained cooked cereal
-Broth
-Creamed soup (no pieces or chunks of vegetables or meats)
-Pureed meat can be added to soup (again, no chunks)
-Sugar
-Flavored gelatin
-Ice cream (no fruit, chocolate chips, etc)
-Sorbet and frozen yogurt

241
Q

Carbohydrates

A

Provides most of the body’s energy and fiber. Each gram produces 4 kcal. They provide glucose, which burns completely and efficiently without end products to excrete. Sources include whole grain breads, baked potatoes, brown rice, and other plant foods.

242
Q

Fats

A

Provide energy and vitamins. No more than 35% of caloric intake should be from fat. Each gram produces 9 kcal. Sources include olive oil, salmon, and egg yolks.

243
Q

Proteins

A

Contribute to the growth, maintenance, and repair of body tissues. Each gram produces 4 kcal. Sources of complete protein include beef, whole milk, and poultry.

244
Q

Vitamins

A

Are necessary for metabolism. The fat-soluble vitamins are A, D, E, and K. The water-soluble vitamins include C and the B complex (eight vitamins).

245
Q

Minerals

A

Complete essential biochemical reactions in the body (calcium, potassium, sodium, iron.)

246
Q

Water

A

Is critical for cell function and replaces fluids the body loses through perspiration, elimination, and respiration.

247
Q

Anorexia Nervosa

A

An eating disorder that consists of…
-Significantly low body weight for gender, age, developmental level, and physical health.
-Fear of being fat.
-Self-perception of being fat.
-Consistent restriction of food intake or repeated behavior that prevents weight gain.

248
Q

Bulimia Nervosa

A

An eating disorder that consist of a cycle of binge eating followed by purging (vomiting, using diuretics or laxatives, exercising excessively, fasting)
-Lack of control during binges.
-Average at least one cycle of binge eating and purging per week for at least 3 months.

249
Q

Binge-eating Disorder

A

An eating disorder that consists of repeated episodes of binge eating.
-Feels a loss of control when binge eating, followed by an emotional response (guilt, shame, or depression)
-Does not use compensatory behaviors (purging)
-Binge-eating episodes can range from one to multiple times per week.
-Clients are often overweight or obese.

250
Q

What is the upper boundary of a healthy weight?

A

BMI of 25

251
Q

What BMI is considered overweight?

A

25 to 29.9

252
Q

What BMI is considered obesity class 1?

A

30-34.9

253
Q

What BMI is considered obesity class 2?

A

35-39.9

254
Q

What BMI is considered obesity class 3?

A

40 and Above

255
Q

NPO

A

No food or fluid at all by mouth, not even ice chips, requiring a provider’s prescription before resuming oral intake.

256
Q

Clear Liquid

A

Liquids that leave little residue (clear fruit juices, gelatin, broth)

257
Q

Full Liquid

A

Clear liquids plus liquid dairy products, all juices.

258
Q

Pureed

A

Clear and full liquids plus pureed meats, fruits, and scrambled eggs.

259
Q

Mechanical Soft

A

Clear and full liquids plus diced or ground foods.

260
Q

Soft/low-Residue

A

Foods that are low in fiber and easy to digest (dairy products, eggs, ripe bananas).

261
Q

High-Fiber

A

Whole grains, raw and dried fruits.

262
Q

Low Sodium

A

No added salt or 1 to 2 g sodium.

263
Q

Low Cholesterol

A

No more than 300mg/day of dietary cholesterol.

264
Q

Diabetic

A

Balanced intake of protein, fats, and carbohydrates of about 1,800 calories.

265
Q

Dysphagia

A

Pureed food and thickened liquids.

266
Q

Regular

A

No restriction.

267
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is at high risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Give the client thin liquids.
B. Instruct the client to tuck their chin when swallowing.
C. Have the client use a straw.
D. Encourage the client to lie down and rest after meals.

A

B. Instruct the client to tuck their chin when swallowing.
-Tucking the chin when swallowing allows food to pass down the esophagus more easily.

268
Q

A nurse is preparing a presentation about basic nutrients for a group of high school athletes. She should explain that which of the following nutrients provides the body with the most energy?

A. Fat
B. Protein
C. Glycogen
D. Carbohydrates

A

D. Carbohydrates
-Carbohydrates are the body’s greatest energy source; providing energy for cells is their primary function. They provide glucose, which burns completely and efficiently without end products to excrete. They are also a ready source of energy, and they spare proteins from depletion.

269
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who requires a low-residue diet. The nurse should expect to see which of the following foods on the client’s meal tray?

A. Cooked Barley
B. Pureed Broccoli
C. Vanilla Custard
D. Lentil Soup

A

C. Vanilla Custard
-A low-residue diet consists of foods that are low in fiber and easy to digest. Dairy products and eggs, such as custard and yogurt, are appropriate for a low-residue diet.

270
Q

A nurse in a senior center is counseling a group of older adults about their nutritional needs and considerations. Which of the following information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)

A. Older adults are more prone to dehydration than younger adults are.
B. Older adults need the same amount of most vitamins and minerals as younger adults do.
C. Many older men and women need calcium supplementation.
D. Older adults need more calories than they did when they were younger.
E. Older adults should consume a diet low in carbohydrates.

A

A. Older adults are more prone to dehydration than younger adults are. (Sensations of thirst diminish with age, leaving older adults more prone to dehydration.)
B. Older adults need the same amount of most vitamins and minerals as younger adults do. (These requirements do not change from middle adulthood to older adulthood. However, some older adults need additional vitamin and mineral supplements to treat or prevent specific deficiencies.
C. Many older men and women need calcium supplementation. (If older adults ingest insufficient calcium in the diet, they need supplements to help prevent bone demineralization (osteoporosis).

271
Q

Fiber Requirement

A

25 to 38 g/day
-Difficulty digesting foods (lactose intolerance) can cause watery stools.
-Certain foods can increase gas (cabbage, cauliflower, apples), some have a laxative effect (figs, chocolate), or increase the rick for constipation (pasta, cheese, eggs).

272
Q

Fluid Requirement

A

2 L/day for females and 3 L/day for males from fluid and food sources.

273
Q

Physical Activity

A

Stimulates intestinal activity and increase skeletal muscle tone needed for defecation.

274
Q

Emotional Distress

A

Increase peristalsis and exacerbates chronic conditions (colitis, Crohn’s disease, ulcers, irritable bowel syndrome)

275
Q

Depression

A

Can lead to decreased peristaltic activity and constipation

276
Q

What does laxative medications do?

A

Soften stool.

277
Q

What does cathartics do?

A

Promote peristalsis.

278
Q

Laxative Overuse

A

Chronic use of laxatives causes a weakening of the bowel’s expected response to distention from feces, resulting in the development of chronic constipation.

279
Q

Paralytic Ileus

A

Is an intestinal obstruction cause by reduced motility following bowel manipulation during surgery, electrolyte imbalance, wound infection, or by the effects of medication.

280
Q

Fecal Occult Blood (Guaiac) Test

A

Obtain a fecal sample using medical asepsis while wearing gloves. Collect stool specimens for serial guaiac testing three times from three different defecations. Some foods (red meat, citrus fruit, raw vegetables) and medications can cause false positive results. Bleeding can be an indication of cancer.

281
Q

Specimens for Stool Cultures

A

Obtain using medical asepsis while wearing gloves. Label the specimen, and promptly send it to the laboratory.

282
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who will perform fecal occult blood testing at home. Which of the following information should be included when explaining the procedure to the client?

A. Eating more protein is optimal prior to testing.
B. One stool specimen is sufficient for testing.
C. A red color change indicated a positive test.
D. The specimen cannot be contaminated with urine.

A

D. The specimen cannot be contaminated with urine.
-For fecal occult blood testing, instruct the client not to contaminate the stool specimens with water or urine.

283
Q

A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who reports constipation. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

A. Macaroni and cheese
B. One medium apple with skin.
C. One cup of plain yogurt.
D. Roast chicken and white rice.

A

B. One medium apple with skin.
-One medium apple with the skin is the best source to recommend because it contains 4.4 g of fiber.

284
Q

A nurse is assessing a client who has had diarrhea for 4 days. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply)

A. Bradycardia
B. Hypotension
C. Elevated Temperature
D. Poor Skin Tumor
E. Peripheral Edema

A

B. Hypotension
-Prolonged diarrhea leads to dehydration. Expect the client to have a decrease in blood pressure.
C. Elevated Temperature
-Prolonged diarrhea leads to dehydration. Expect the client to have an increased temperature.
D. Poor Skin Turgor
-Prolonged diarrhea leads to dehydration. Expect the client to have poor skin turgor.

285
Q

While a nurse is administering a cleansing enema, the client reports abdominal cramping. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Have the client hold their breath briefly and bear down.
B. Clamp the enema tubing.
C. Remind the client that cramping is common at this time.
D. Raise the level of the enema fluid container.

A

B. Clamp the enema tubing.
-Clamp the enema tubing for 30 seconds to reduct intestinal spasms.

286
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer a cleansing enema to an adult client in preparation for a diagnostic procedure. Which of the following steps should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

A. Warm the enema solution prior to instillation.
B. Position the client on the left side with the right leg flexed forward.
C. Lubricate the rectal tube or nozzle.
D. Slowly insert the rectal tube about 5 cm.
E. Hang the enema container 61 cm (24 in) above the client’s anus.

A

C. Lubricate the rectal tube or nozzle.

287
Q

Ureterostomy (ill conduit)

A

An incontinent urinary diversion in which the surgeon attaches one or both ureters via a stoma to the surface of the abdominal wall.

288
Q

Nephrostomy

A

An incontinent urinary diversion in which the surgeon attaches a tube from the renal pelvis via a stoma to the surface of the abdominal wall.

289
Q

Kock Pouch (Continent Ileal Bladder Conduit)

A

A continent urinary diversion in which the surgeon forms a reservoir from the ileum. The pouch is emptied by clean straight catheterization every 2 to 3 hr initially, and every 5 to 6 hr once the pouch expands to capacity.

290
Q

Neobladder

A

A new bladder created by the surgeon using the ileum that attaches to the ureters and urethra. It allows the client to maintain continence; the client learns to void by straining the abdominal muscles.

291
Q

Bedside Sonography with a Bladder Scanner

A

Noninvasive portable ultrasound scanner for measuring bladder volume and residual volume after urination.

292
Q

Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder

A

X-ray to determine size, shape, and position of these structures.

293
Q

Intravenous Pyelogram

A

Injection of contrast media (iodine) for viewing of ducts, renal pelvis, ureters, bladder, and urethra.

294
Q

Renal Scan

A

View of renal blood flow and anatomy of the kidneys without contrast.

295
Q

Renal Ultrasound

A

View of gross renal structures and structural abnormalities using high-frequency sound waves.

296
Q

Cystoscopy

A

Use of a lighted instrument to visualize, treat, and obtain specimens from the bladder and urethra.

297
Q

Urodynamic Testing

A

Test for bladder muscle function by filling the bladder with CO2 or 0.9% sodium chloride and comparing pressure readings with reported sensations.

298
Q

Urinalysis and Urine Culture and Sensitivity

A

To identify UTIs.

299
Q

Blood Creatinine and BUN

A

To assess renal function.

300
Q

Ultrasound

A

Detects bladder abnormalities and/or residual urine.

301
Q

Voiding Cystourethrography

A

Identifies the size, shape, support, and function of the urinary bladder, obstruction (prostate), residual urine.

302
Q

Cystourethroscopy

A

Visualizes the inside of the bladder.

303
Q

Uroflowmetry

A

Measures the rate and degree of bladder emptying.

304
Q

Electromyography

A

Measures the strength of pelvic muscle contractions.

305
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who reports stress urinary incontinence. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)

A. Limit total daily fluid intake.
B. Decrease or avoid caffeine.
C. Take calcium supplements.
D. Avoid drinking alcohol.
E. Use the Red. maneuver.

A

B. Decrease or avoid caffeine.
-Caffeine is a bladder irritant and can worsen stress incontinence.
D. Avoid drinking alcohol.
-Alcohol is a bladder irritant and can worsen stress incontinence.

306
Q

A client who has an indwelling catheter report a need to urinate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Check to see whether the catheter is patent.
B. Reassure the client that it is not possible for them to urinate.
C. Recatheterize the bladder with a larger-gauge catheter.
D. Collect a urine specimen for analysis.

A

A. Check to see whether the catheter is patent.
-A clogged or kinked catheter causes the bladder to fill and stimulates the need to urinate.

307
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Discard the first voiding.
B. Keep the urine in a single container at room temperature.
C. Dispose of the last voiding.
D. Ask the client to urinate into the toilet, stop midstream, and finish urinating into the specimen container.

A

A. Discard the first voiding.
-Discard the first voiding of the 24hr urine specimen, and note the time.

308
Q

A nurse is reviewing factors that increase the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs) with a client who has recurrent UTIs. Which of the following factors should the nurse include?

A. Frequent sexual intercourse.
B. Lowering of testosterone levels.
C. Wiping from front to back to clean the perineum.
D. Location of the urethra closer to the anus.
E. Frequent catheterization.

A

A. Frequent sexual intercourse.
-Having frequent sexual intercourse increase the risk of UTIs in all clients.
D. Location of the urethra closer to the anus.
-The close proximity of the urethra to the anus is a factor that increase the risk of UTIs.
E. Frequent catheterization.
-Frequent catheterization and the use of indwelling catheters are risk factors for UTIs.

309
Q

A nurse is preparing to initiate a bladder-retraining program for a client who has incontinence. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

A. Restrict the client’s intake of fluids during the daytime.
B. Have the client record urination times.
C. Gradually increase the urination intervals.
D. Remind the client to hold urine until the next scheduled urination time.
E. Provide a sterile container for urine.

A

B. Have the client record urination times.
-Ask the client to keep track of urination times as a record of progress toward the goal of 4 hr intervals between urination.
C. Gradually increase the urination intervals.
-Gradually increasing the urination intervals helps the client progress toward the goal of 4 hr intervals between urination.
D. Remind the client to hold urine until the nest scheduled urination time.
-Remind the client to hold urine until the next scheduled urination time as part of progressing toward the goal of 4 hr intervals between urination.

310
Q

Anterior

A

View facing forward.

311
Q

Posterior

A

View from behind, toward the back.

312
Q

Central

A

Toward the center of the body.

313
Q

Peripheral

A

Away from the center of the body.

314
Q

Proximal

A

Closer to the point of attachment.

315
Q

Distal

A

Further from the point of attachment.

316
Q

Extremities

A

Arms and legs (upper extremities-arms/hands, lower extremities-legs/feet).

317
Q

Prone

A

Lying on one’s stomach.

318
Q

Supine

A

Lying on one’s back.

319
Q

Fowler’s

A

Sitting straight up 90-degrees.

320
Q

Semi-Fowler’s

A

Sitting 30-45 degrees.

321
Q

Inferior

A

Below

322
Q

Superior

A

Above

323
Q

Medial

A

Toward the midline.

324
Q

Lateral

A

Away from the midline.

325
Q

PERRLA

A

Pupils, Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation.

326
Q

Constipation

A

No bowel movement for 3 days.

327
Q

Enteral Nutrition

A

Nutrition provided via tube (NG, peg, etc.)

328
Q

Parenteral Nutrition

A

Nutrition provided via blood vessels (total-TPN, partial-PPN)

329
Q

Bolus

A

Large volume of fluid, ball of food which has been broken down by chewing.

330
Q

Chyme

A

The soupy substance that is created by the stomach churning and mixing the bolus food mass.

331
Q

Leukocytes

A

White blood cells (monocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils)

332
Q

Platelets

A

Cells in the blood that are active in the process of blood clotting.

333
Q

Erythrocytes

A

Red blood cells.

334
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Component of red blood cell that carries oxygen.

335
Q

Plasma

A

Fluid component of the blood, contains clotting factors.

336
Q

While reviewing the client’s lab report, the nurse notes that the client has a low potassium level. What is the best source of potassium?

A. Cup of apple juice
B. Cup of orange juice
C. Cup of cranberry juice
D. Cup of prune juice

A

B. Cup of Orange Juice

337
Q

A 42 year old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain. He also reports passing black stools for one month. Which intervention should the nurse institute first?

A. Obtain a stool specimen to check for blood.
B. Obtain vital signs.
C. Document the location of pain.
D. Draw blood for laboratory analysis.

A

B. Obtain Vital Signs

338
Q

A nurse is discussing nutrition with a 22 year old pregnant female. The client states that she knows that calcium is important during pregnancy but that she and her family don’t consume many milk or dairy products. What is the nurse’s best response?

A. “The prenatal vitamins that are recommended will satisfy all dietary requirements.”
B. “You could supplement your diet with over the counter calcium tablets.”
C. “Tell me about your diet. You may be consuming other calcium-rich foods such as leafy greens.”
D. “After the first trimester, calcium intake isn’t important.”

A

C. “Tell me about your diet. You may be consuming other calcium-rich foods such as leafy greens.”

339
Q

A nurse is talking to a client with bulimia about the complications of laxative abuse. Which statement by the client indicates that she’s beginning to understand the risks associated with laxative abuse?

A. “I don’t really have much taste for food, so there’s no loss in getting it out of my system more quickly.”
B. “Laxatives help me get rid of extra calories before they’re added to my body. I know I just shouldn’t eat the extra calories to begin with.”
C. “Laxatives are over the counter medications that haven no harmful effect.”
D. “Using laxatives chronically or when I don’t need them prevents my body from absorbing essential nutrients.”

A

D. “Using laxatives chronically or when I don’t need them prevents my body from absorbing essential nutrients.”

340
Q

When teaching parents about preventing nutritional iron deficiency, the nurse should emphasize which foods as the most significant source of dietary iron?

A. Citrus fruits
B. Fish
C. Green vegetables
D. Milk products

A

C. Green Vegetables

341
Q

A mother reports that her 4 year old child has been scratching at their rectum recently. Which infestation or condition would the nurse suspect as most likely?

A. Hookworm
B. Tapeworm
C. Pinworm
D. Scabies

A

C. Pinworm

342
Q

A client in the postoperative phase of abdominal surgery is to advance his diet as tolerated. The client has tolerated ice chips and a clear liquid diet. Which diet would the nurse anticipate giving next?

A. Fluid restricted
B. Full liquids
C. Regular
D. Soft

A

B. Full Liquids

343
Q

Which foods can alter results when stool is checked for occult blood?

A. Red meat
B. Dairy products, canned fruit, and pretzels
C. Horseradish, raw fruits, and vegetables
D. Potatoes, orange juice, and decaf coffee

A

A. Red Meat

344
Q

Which food would the nurse allow for a client receiving a full liquid diet after being on a clear liquid diet for a week?

A. Gelatin
B. Milkshake
C. Ice Pops
D. Coffee

A

B. Milkshake

345
Q

You ate some sushi you bought from a gas station a couple of hours ago. You are beginning to feel unwell but have no specific symptoms. Which stage of illness are you experiencing?

A. Prodromal
B. Dependency
C. Recovery
D. Symptomatic

A

A. Prodromal

346
Q

The nurse is caring for a client whose racial identity differs from his own. Which of the following actions is appropriate?

A. The nurse should look up common practices for the client’s race and incorporate these into patient care.
B. The nurse should treat each client the same to avoid bias or prejudice.
C. The nurse should include the client’s family in discussions about care.
D. The nurse should explore preferences with the client to determine how best to approach care.

A

D. The nurse should explore preferences with the client to determine how best to approach care.

347
Q

A client presents to the emergency room experiencing severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. His oral temperature is 103.1. The nurse recognizes this phase of illness as?

A. Symptomatic
B. Dependency
C. Seeking Help
D. Prodromal

A

C. Seeking Help

348
Q

The client demonstrates understanding of education related to prevention of constipation when she states?

A. “I should decrease my fiber intake when I am constipated to give my body a chance to clear out waste.”
B. “Regular exercise can help to prevent constipation.”
C. “I should take a laxative if I haven’t had a bowel movement in two days.”
D. “If I am drinking enough water, I should not get constipated.”

A

B. “Regular exercise can help prevent constipation.”

349
Q

Which of the following can be consumed by a client with an order for a clear liquid diet? (Select all that apply)

A. Black Coffee
B. Tea with Creamer
C. Cranberry Juice
D. Orange Juice with Pulp
E. Coco Cola
F. Gatorade

A

A. Black Coffee
C. Cranberry Juice
E. Coco Cola
F. Gatorade

350
Q

Which of the following can be consumed by a client who had an order for a full liquid diet? (Select all that apply)

A. Black Coffee
B. Tea with Creamer
C. Cranberry Juice
D. Orange Juice with Pulp
E. Cream of Mushroom Soup
F. Milk

A

All of them

351
Q

A nurse is instructing a client with a spinal cord injury in range of motion exercises to prevent muscle atrophy. What level of prevention is this?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of these

A

C. Tertiary

352
Q

Which of the following is an example of secondary preventative strategy? (Select all that apply)

A. Glucose screening
B. Colonoscopy
C. Vaccination for Hepatitis B
D. Gun Safety Education
E. Blood Pressure Screening
F. Physical Therapy after a Fractured Ankle

A

A. Glucose Screening
B. Colonoscopy
E. Blood Pressure Screening

353
Q

Which of the following is a contributing factor for constipation? (Select all that apply)

A. Dehydration
B. Immobility
C. Anesthesia
D. Pain Medication
E. High Fiber Diet
F. Chronic Laxative Use

A

A. Dehydration
B. Immobility
C. Anesthesia
D. Pain Medication
F. Chronic Laxative Use

354
Q

Which of the following foods are high in fiber? (Select all that apply)

A. Almonds
B. Yogurt
C. Dried Apricots
D. Popcorn
E. Celery
F. Beef Liver

A

A. Almonds
C. Dried Apricots
D. Popcorn
E. Celery

355
Q

Which of the following foods are rich in calcium? (Select all that apply)

A. Milk
B. Yogurt
C. Citrus Fruits
D. Leafy Green Vegetables
E. Salmon
F. Beef Liver

A

A. Milk
B. Yogurt
D. Leafy Green Vegetables
E. Salmon

356
Q

Which of the following foods are high in Vitamin D? (Select all that apply)

A. Fortified Dairy Products
B. Fortified Juices
C. Citrus Juices
D. Leafy Greens
E. Salmon
F. Beef Liver

A

A. Fortified Dairy Products
B. Fortified Juices
E. Salmon
F. Beef Liver

357
Q

True or False: There is no such thing as too little fat in a person’s diet.

A

B. False

358
Q

True or False: Dietary modifications can be ordered by a provider for a particular condition or can be voluntary based on client preference.

A

A. True

359
Q

True or False: People from the same ethnic group will have similar preferences fro healthcare choices.

A

B. False

360
Q

True or False: A person in the dependency phase of illness may seek a second opinion from another provider.

A

A. True

361
Q

Therapeutic Communication

A

Incorporates verbal or nonverbal responses, such as: listening to the client, understanding the client’s needs; promoting clarification or gaining insight into the client’s condition.

362
Q

What is the normal adult heart rate?

A

60-100 BPM

363
Q

What is the normal adult respiratory rate?

A

12-20 respirations per minute

364
Q

What is the normal adult blood pressure?

A

120/80

365
Q

What % do you always want your client’s O2 sat to be?

A

Greater than 90%

366
Q

What are airborne precautions?

A

Infections requiring Airborne Precautions are caused by pathogens that remain suspended in the air for prolonged period of time.

367
Q

What special piece of equipment do you need?

A

HEPA mask/N-95/Respirator Mask

368
Q

What disease are airborne?

A

Tuberculosis, measles (rubella), and varicella (chicken pox)

369
Q

What are Contact Precautions?

A

Infections requiring contact precautions are those caused by pathogens spread by direct contact.

370
Q

What diseases are contact?

A

RSV, scabies, MRSA, and VRE are the most common.

371
Q

What are droplet precautions?

A

Large-particle droplets containing microorganisms generated from a person who has a clinical disease or is a carrier of the disease.

372
Q

What diseases are contacted through droplets?

A

Pertussis (whooping cough), Influenza (flu), Diphtheria (bacteria causing sore throat and high fever), or Meningitis, are a few.

373
Q

What are standard precautions?

A

-Use standard precautions at all times to prevent infection with diseases transmitted through blood or body fluids.
-Standard precautions requires healthcare workers to always wear gloves and wash hands before entering rooms and when leaving the room. Using an alcohol-based foam/cleaner is sufficient for most hand washing.

374
Q

What is reverse isolation?

A

Isolation in which the client needs to be protected from illness. May also be referred to as “Neutropenic Precautions” or Protective Isolation.

375
Q

What conditions may require reverse isolation?

A

Conditions which may require reverse isolation include leukemia or other cancers, treatment with radiation or chemotherapy, immune disorders.

376
Q

Chain of Infection

A

Refers to how an infection passes from one person to another.

377
Q

Primary Infection

A

The initial infection caused by one organism.

378
Q

Secondary Infection

A

Is one that occurs as the result of the primary infection.

379
Q

What areas of the body can help prevent infection?

A

Mucous membranes, skin, and GI tract.

380
Q

Primary Defense

A

Includes physical and chemical barriers that are always ready and prepared to defend the body from infection. Such as skin, tears, mucus, cilia, stomach acid, etc.

381
Q

Secondary Defense

A

Blood vessels in that area expand, and white blood cells leak from the vessels to invade the infected tissue. The area often becomes red, swollen, and painful during an inflammatory response.

382
Q

Tertiary Defense

A

The body starts making specialized white blood cells to destroy the invaders.

383
Q

Medical Asepsis

A

Is keeping the area clean.

384
Q

Surgical Asepsis

A

Is keeping the area sterile.

385
Q

Inflammatory Process

A

What the body does to heal itself if possible. The body recognizes there is a break in the skin. The blood flow will increase to that area which may cause redness or warmth. May have swelling and pain.

386
Q

Signs and Symptoms of UTIs are?

A

Frequent urination, cloudy urine strong odor, etc.

387
Q

Cellulitis

A

A skin infection caused by a bacteria.

388
Q

What does cellulitis do to the body?

A

May cause swelling, skin tightness, redness, pain, and fever.

389
Q

How to test for cellulitis?

A

C&S

390
Q

C&S

A

Culture and sensitivity testing. Used to help diagnose an infection. It may also help your healthcare provider decide which medicines to use in treating you infection. This test involves taking a tissue or fluid sample from your body and testing it to see if germs will grow in it.

391
Q

MRSA

A

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus Aureus. A staph infection that antibiotics no longer cures. The bacteria changes overtime making it resistant to antibiotics. Vancomycin is the antibiotic of choice for MRSA.

392
Q

Immunity

A

How the body fights against what it considers to be invaders.

393
Q

Antigens

A

The markers the body makes indicating the invader is part of the body.

394
Q

Antibodies

A

What the body makes when it recognizes invaders that do not belong in the body.

395
Q

Passive Immunity

A

When the body becomes immune due to an outside source such as a baby receiving immunity from the mother.

396
Q

Active Immunity

A

The person develops their own immunity.

397
Q

Urticaria

A

Hives

398
Q

Contact Dermatitis

A

Being exposed to an allergen. It causes itching, redness, or skin lesions.

399
Q

Clean Wound

A

No Infection

400
Q

Clean-Contaminated Wound

A

Surgical but not infected.

401
Q

Contaminated Wound

A

A wound with infection.

402
Q

Colonized Wound

A

Has a lot of microorganisms but not necessarily infection.

403
Q

Inflammatory Phase

A

When the wound first happens – bleeding stops, redness or pain may develop.

404
Q

Reconstruction Phase

A

When the body tissue begins repairing itself.

405
Q

Maturation Phase

A

Scar formation.

406
Q

First Intention

A

Causes very little tissue loss.

407
Q

Second Intention

A

There is greater tissue loss.

408
Q

Third Intention

A

Leaving the wound open.

409
Q

Ergonomics

A

The science of how to move something safely and not get hurt.

First Semester LPN (2 decks)

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