exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

the process of obtaining goods or services to meet the needs of the organization

A

Acquistion

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2
Q

the cost of keeping inventory on hand, including: the opportunity cost of invested funds; storage and handling costs, and taxes, insurance, shrinkage, damage and obsolescence. organizations usually state an item’s holding cost per time period as a percentage of the item’s value

A

Carrying Cost

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3
Q

(1) an agreement with a supplier to stock goods at a customer’s location with the goods remaining the property of the supplier until used or sold; (2) a shipment that is handed over to a common carrier for transport and delivery

A

Consignment

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4
Q

calculation used to determine profitability at a product level by looking at product variable costs in relationship to product revenue. also called contribution margin

A

Contribution to Profit

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5
Q

an accounting classification that accumulates the monetary value of direct materials, direct labor and allocated overhead in products sold during a given time period. it is used to calculate earnings for the period, typically a year

A

Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)

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6
Q

derived from or contingent upon the demand for another component or a finished product

A

Dependent Demand

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7
Q

a practice that brings together one or more selected suppliers with a buyer’s product or service design team early in the product development process. the objective is to utilize the supplier’s expertise and experience in developing a product specification that is designed for effective and efficient product roll-out

A

Early Supplier Involvement (ESI)

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8
Q

a measure of an organization’s earning power from ongoing operations, equal to earnings (revenue minus cost of sales, operating expenses and taxes) before deduction of interest payment and income taxes; also called operating profit

A

Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT)

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9
Q

model that can be used to determine the quantity of an item to be ordered or manufactured that minimizes total acquisition and inventory carrying costs. although the EOQ concept can be used in a variety of applications, its most common use today is for independent demand items managed in an order-point inventory management system

A

Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)

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10
Q

(1) charge payable in the short-term, including depreciation, that is not for items to be resold; (2) cost associated with running a business

A

Expense

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11
Q

a material replenishment system in which the size of the order remain fixed, while the time interval between them changes, depending on how quickly the items are consumed

A

Fixed-Order Quantity (FOQ)

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12
Q

containing little excess. a ___ organization is one where ___ thinking is applied to identify value-creating activities and eliminate all others which represent waste in systems, processes, procedures and practices

A

Lean

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13
Q

demand not directly related to the demand for other items or end items produced by the organization

A

Independent Demand

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14
Q

(1) as a business measure, the ratio of operating profit to revenue; (2) for individual products, the difference between cost and selling price of an item or service; (3) the minimum return below which products or activities are not profitable

A

Margin

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15
Q

a guideline for decision making

A

Policy

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16
Q

predetermined inventory level that triggers an order. this level provides adequate inventory to meet anticipated demand during the time it takes to receive the order

A

Reorder Point

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17
Q

setting the long-term direction of an organization. to be successful, an organization must approach ___ on three levels: (1) corporate: decisions and plans that answer the questions of “what business are we in?” and “how will we allocate our resources among these businesses?”; (2) Unit: the decisions mold the plans of a particular business unit, as necessary to contribute to the corporate strategy; (3) Function: these plans concern the “how” of each functional area’s contribution to the business strategy and involve the allocation of internal resources

A

Strategic Planning

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18
Q

inventory management system that holds a supplier responsible for ensuring that stock is maintained at appropriate levels in the purchaser’s facility and for replenishing items when these levels drop.

A

Supplier-Managed Inventory (SMI)

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19
Q

something of economic value. a tangible ___, such as real estate, a building, equipment or cash. can be touched. an intangible ___, such as a brand, trademark, copyright or patent, cannot be touched

A

Asset

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20
Q

the transfer by one contracting party (assignor) of his/her rights or obligations under a contract to another person (assignee). sometimes also referred to as delegation of duties

A

Assignment

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21
Q

a contractual provision giving the parties the right to approve or disapprove any requested assignment

A

Assignment Consent

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22
Q

a legal document, approved and issued by a judge, formalizing an agreement between two parties

A

Consent Decree

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23
Q

the ratio of current assets to current liabilities

A

Current Ratio

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24
Q

the amount of money owed to creditors

A

Debt

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25
Q

total liabilities divided by total assets. when calculating this ratio, it is conventional to consider both current and non-current debt and assets. the debt-to-asset ratio shows the proportion of an organization’s assets which are financed through debt. if the ratio is less than one, most of the organization’s assets are financed through equity. if the ratio is greater than one, most of the organization’s assets are financed through debt. organizations with high debt-to-asset ratios are said to be “highly leveraged” and could be in danger if creditors start to demand repayment of debt

A

Debt-to-Assets Ratio

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26
Q

disposal or reduction of an asset or investment by sale, liquidation or other means for either financial or social goals

A

Divestiture

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27
Q

an appreciating or income producing asset; the accumulation of some kind of asset in hope of getting a future return from it

A

Economies of Scale

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28
Q

business strategy that adds new entities with similar or competitive products or services, often to gain economies of scale and/or scope, enter a new geographic marketplace, or reduce market competition and integrate it into the existing company or as a subsidiary

A

Horizontal Integration

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29
Q

any obligation incurred as a result of law, rule or agreement; being legally obliged and responsible; a debt or an obligation to another party

A

Liability

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30
Q

a person or organization that makes goods by hand or by machinery often on a large scale and with divisions of labor

A

Manufacturer

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31
Q

any various methods of combining two or more business concern, such as absorption by a corporation of one or more others

A

Merger

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32
Q

a close relationship between a buyer and seller in order to attain some advantages from each other in a positive way. a ___ in this context does not imply a legal relationship. Buyer-seller ___s may be of operational importance, such as a long-term, sing-source with an office supplier or of strategic importance, such as a long-term, single-source relationship with a supplier of a good or service of strategic importance

A

Partnership

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33
Q

information that has an inherent value to an organization and its business interests such as trade secrets, customer lists, marketing plans and so on; often protected by means of NDA

A

Proprietary Information

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34
Q

commercial information, usually a plan, process or mechanism, known only to the owner and a limited number of others to whom it is necessary to confide it; commonly protected by use of a confidentiality agreement

A

Trade Secret

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35
Q

insightful initiatives undertaken to enhance the worth, relevance or importance of a product, service or system

A

Value Creation

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36
Q

an organization that extensively outsources most of its activities and manages the relationships through key outsourced providers

A

Virtual Corporation

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37
Q

US agency created in 1914 that has the power to determine the meaning of restraint of trade. the ___ is charged with uncovering unfair methods of competition and unfair or deceptive practices in commerce. all proposed corporate mergers must undergo the __ test for unfair competition

A

Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

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38
Q

right granted to an agent to act (engage in legally binding transactions) on behalf of a principal

A

Authority

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39
Q

the amount of overhead

A

Burden

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40
Q

the process of overseeing and maximizing the financial and operational value of a group of related commodities, products or services by identifying and monitoring total spend and consumption, keeping abreast of market shifts, new alternatives or inventions, forecasting market supply and demand, and continuously evaluating supplier performance in order to drive down cost, improve supplier performance, and respond to changing business requirements and/or enhance stakeholder satisfaction

A

Category Management

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41
Q

the management of various facets of a contract to ensure that the contractor’s total performance is in accordance with the contractual commitments and that obligations to the purchaser are fulfilled

A

Contract Administration

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42
Q

the commercial activity of providing funds and capital; the branch of economics that studies the management of money and other assets; to obtain and provide money for; to sell or provide on credit; the management of money and credit and banking and investments

A

Finance

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43
Q

a newly introduced idea, system of thinking, method, product or process with attributes that do not currently exist

A

Innovation

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44
Q

an individual or organizational unit with whom purchasing has a working relationship and on whose behalf it obtains specified goods or services from external sources. as opposed to the more traditional term “user”, the term “___” reflects an attitude of mutual respect, open and frequent exchange of questions, ideas and suggestions, and close cooperation in bringing value to the organization. may also be referred to as an internal business partner to reflect the equality of the supply management process with other core business processes and process owners

A

Internal Customer

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45
Q

a statement about the nature and purpose of an organization. ___s are used to focus energies and decision-making within the organization, as well as to indicate to customers and suppliers those values that are important to the organization

A

Mission Statement

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46
Q

a comparison of actual performance to a planned level or standard to determine the degree of achievement as well as opportunities for improvement. may be applied to individuals, departments, processes or organizations such as suppliers

A

Performance Evaluation

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47
Q

a management technique for evaluating the performance of a particular function, person or organization such as a supplier. for suppliers, key performance metrics may include on-time delivery, flexibility, quality, basic competitive pricing and after-sales services

A

Performance Measurement

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48
Q

a series of integrated processes in new ___ chronicling steps from idea conception to commercialization

A

Product Development

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49
Q

a framework of measurable corporate policies and procedures and resulting behavior designed to benefit the workplace and, by extension, the individual, the organization and the community as they relate to diversity and inclusiveness of the supply base, workforce, environment, ethics, financial responsibility, human rights, health and safety, and sustainability

A

Social Responsibility

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50
Q

a description of the technical requirements for a material, product, or service. a ___ for service to be performed is called a statement of work

A

Specification

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51
Q

a performance measurement and management document that records the ratings from a performance evaluation process

A

Scorecard

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52
Q

the process of agreeing on a common specification. this process can take place at different levels: (1) across an organization; (2) throughout an industry; (3) across a nation; (4) around the world

A

Standardization

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53
Q

action of one party pursuant to specific contract language to end a contract for some reason other than breach by the other party

A

Termination

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54
Q

a systematic and objective evaluation of the value of a good or service, focusing on an analysis of function relative to the cost of manufacturing or providing the item or service. ___ provides insight into the inherent worth of the final good or service, possibly altering specification and quality requirements that could reduce costs without impairing functional suitability

A

Value Analysis

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55
Q

the process of gathering information on customers, competitors, suppliers, economics and other areas of the market, and then analyzing and formatting the data to assist in decision-making

A

Market Research

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56
Q

equipment used by an organization for its production potential that costs more than a predetermined threshold value and whose costs will be depreciated over time

A

Captial Equipment

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57
Q

building, or forming, an agreement regarding decisions through informed discussion, negotiation and participation

A

Consensus building

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58
Q

groups of individuals from various organizational functions who are brought together to achieve clear, worthwhile and compelling goals that could not be reached without a team. teaming leverages organizational resources while utilizing the expertise of team members. purchasers typically participate on teams dealing with sourcing, commodities, quality and new product/service development

A

Cross-Functional Teams

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59
Q

the process of minimizing the total time required for a designated process; for example, the time required for production and delivery. efforts to shorten cycle time often focus on reducing wait time and/or eliminating unnecessary steps

A

Cycle Time Reduction

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60
Q

a decision-making process in which group members do not critically evaluate each other’s ideas and proposals. the result is a poor decision reached through a faulty consensus-building process

A

Groupthink

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61
Q

the process and the result of gathering and analyzing information about the aggregate forces (including economics) at work in trade and commerce in a specific service or commodity

A

Market Intelligence

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62
Q

the process of coordinating the organization, planning, scheduling, controlling, monitoring and evaluating of activities so that the objectives of a project are met

A

Project Management

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63
Q

Operational or other improvements to increase the difference between revenue and cost

A

Revenue Enhancement

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64
Q

a group of individuals from several departments or functions (such as purchasing, operations, engineering and finance) who pool their expertise to make sourcing analyses and purchasing decisions jointly

A

Sourcing Team

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65
Q

deciding in advance when work will be performed, where it will be performed, what kind of resources will be used and how much they will be used. the ___ process is usually connected with ___ systems, policies, techniques and/or devices

A

Scheduling

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66
Q

a systematic effort to create and maintain a network of competent suppliers, and to improve various supplier capabilities that are necessary for the purchasing organization to meet its competitive challenges

A

Supplier Development

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67
Q

the design and management of seamless, value-added processes across organizational boundaries to meet the real needs of the end customer. the development and integration of people and technological resources are critical to successful supply chain integration

A

Supply Chain Management

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68
Q

the phenomenon that occurs when multiple entities are able to achieve more than the sum of all individual efforts

A

Synergy

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69
Q

an number of persons brought together in work or activity

A

Team

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70
Q

made popular by Peter Senge, the idea of a company’s support of continuous learning over time

A

Learning Organization

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71
Q

an organization’s observance of laws, regulations and specifications applicable to the business

A

Regulatory Compliance

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72
Q

a key performance indicator representing a supplier’s level of performance against the buyer’s definition of ___

A

Responsiveness

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73
Q

the act, process or power of producing an effect without apparent exertion of tangible force or direct exercise of command

A

Influence

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74
Q

a pictorial representation of a car dashboard that includes a small, defined set of key metrics. the position on the dashboard indicates the degree of success in attaining the desired performance target. typically, dashboards are prominently displayed frequently updated and use to provide a quick evaluation of a project or process status

A

Dashboard

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75
Q

describes the different methods that will be used to communicate the strategic and operating supply management plans to everyone in the organization

A

Communication Plan

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76
Q

includes items such as deployment schedule, required resources, personnel and training requirements, and a budget

A

Rollout Plan

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77
Q

total assets minus total liabilities. ___ is an important determinant of the value of an organization, considering it is comprised primarily of all the money that has been invested since its inception. as well as the retained earnings for the duration of its operation/ ___ can be used to determine creditworthiness because it gives a snapshot of the organization’s investment history. also called owner’s equity or shareholder’s equity or net assets

A

Net Worth

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78
Q

that which one is required to do as part of contract performance. contracts and purchase orders represent monetary ___s of a purchasing organization to a supplier

A

Obligation

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79
Q

a monopoly created by law that gives the ___ holder the sole right to make, use and/or sell the ___ed articles and to prevent others from doing so without the holder’s permission (license) for a set amount of time

A

Patent

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80
Q

the personal or organizational responsibility and authority to provide direction, answers and insight to all interested parties on a topic or within a given area

A

Accountability

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81
Q

an individual whose duties combine the production planning and procurement functions into a single position, who is in charge of a specific line of inventory. the concept is based on the idea that the same person should have the authority and responsibility for both the production planning and the purchasing decisions for specified items

A

Buyer/Planner

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82
Q

a group of individuals from several departments or functions (such as purchasing, operations, engineering and finance) who pool their expertise to make sourcing analyses and purchasing decisions jointly

A

Buying Team

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83
Q

goods or services with similar characteristics or attributes that are grouped together for planning and management purposes and are bought and sold in any trading arena

A

Category

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84
Q

one type of hybrid supply structure in which strategic direction is centralized and execution is decentralized

A

Center-Led Purchasing

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85
Q

an organizational policy and structure in which the authority and responsibility for most supply related functions and decisions are assigned to a central organization. this term refers to the locus of decision-making, not necessarily that purchasing staff are all physically located in one place. there are numerous advantages including: the ease of standardizing products; reduction of administrative duplication; increase leverage from larger volume; limited interdepartmental competition in times of short supply; more control over purchase commitments; greater administrative efficiency for suppliers; and the development of specialized expertise in purchasing activities

A

Centralized Purchasing

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86
Q

the process of managing a commodity including the identification and monitoring of total spend and market forces by commodity to control elements such as increasing leverage, managing cost, increasing quality, ensuring continuity of supply and/or focusing on the supplier relationship

A

Commodity Management

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87
Q

an organizational structure in which decision-making authority is dispersed close to the point of service or action rather than being concentrated in a central group or location

A

Decentralized

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88
Q

an organizational policy and structure in which the authority and responsibility for most supply related functions and decisions are assigned to individual functions or managers. there is no central locus for purchasing decision-making and no specialized buying expertise

A

Decentralized Purchasing

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89
Q

a process in which a purchaser pre-qualifies multiple suppliers and invites them to participate in a fixed-duration Web-based bidding or sourcing event

A

Electronic Auction

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90
Q

purchasing authority and responsibility is shared between a central supply organization and business units, divisions, or operating plants.

A

Hybrid Purchasing Organization

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91
Q

a management-level process to develop an operating plan based on input from sales (sales plan or forecast), manufacturing (capacity), materials management (inventory levels and material availability), finance and other stakeholders. demand is compared to production capability, and a strategy is developed including a production plan, materials plan, budget and workforce requirements. a primary goal is establishment of production rates that satisfy demand (by maintaining, raising or lowering inventory or backlog) while keeping the workforce relatively stable

A

Production Planning

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92
Q

a section of an organization that has authority to affect both revenue and costs incurred by and allocated to that section. performance is measured by the profit generated

A

Profit Center

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93
Q

a legally binding document prepared by a purchaser to describe the terms and conditions of a purchase. in contracting process the ___ may function as an offer, an acceptance, a confirmation of an oral agreement or a trigger for periodic performance (release) under an established contract

A

Purchase Order (PO)

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94
Q

term used to refer to the formal structure and reporting relationships of the members of a purchasing team

A

Purchasing Organization

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95
Q

supply is the amount of goods or services available at a given price at any time. demand is how many customers or consumers desire the goods or services that are in supply

A

Supply and Demand

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96
Q

the process of collecting and analyzing job-related information. it is the cornerstone of all human resource management processes. job-related data allow the organization to make hiring decisions, determine types of training employees should receive, identify performance-related successes and problems, and make compensation decisions. the job analysis is composed of the job description, job specification, and job evaluation

A

Job Analysis

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97
Q

this is composed of all job-related items, and states the essential functions of a job. this should be written by direct examination of the job itself

A

Job Description

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98
Q

defining knowledge requirements as well as disseminating information to ensure that it is effectively applied in key impacted business sectors

A

Stakeholders Requirements

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99
Q

the way interrelated people, processes, and activities are arranged. organizatinoal structure reflects decisions about who should do which tasks, who reports to whom, and how decisions are made. structure addresses the complexity, formalization, and centralization between and among the interrelated people, processes, and activities

A

Organizational Structure

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100
Q

the indication of an offeree to be bound by the terms of an offer; may be by communication or behavior

A

Acceptance

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101
Q

a performance management system developed by Kaplan and Norton which links performance measures to each other and to the organizations vision and strategy. the key performance categories are financial performance, customer knowledge, internal business, and learning and growth

A

Balanced Scorecard

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102
Q

a quantitative expression of planned costs, schedule and technical requirements for a defined project; a known value or quantity with which an unknown is compared when measured or assessed; information gathered at the beginning of a study from which variations found in the study

A

Baseline

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103
Q

controls that are put in place before activities are executed. they include budget, plans, forecasts and procedures

A

Before the fact controls

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104
Q

an ongoing and comprehensive process for ensuring the continuity or uninterrupted provision of operations and service, including risk or contingency planning, disaster planning, disaster recovery, business recovery, business resumption and contingency plan

A

Business Continuity Planning

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105
Q

preparation to deal with unforeseen events, such as supply disruptions from single sources or natural disasters

A

Contingency Planning

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106
Q

graphs or diagrams used in statistical process control (SPC) to record, measure, analyze variations in processes to determine whether or not outside influences are causing a process to go “out of control”. the objective is to identify and correct such influences to keep the process “in control”

A

Control Chart

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107
Q

in numerical data sets, the difference or distance of individual observations or data value from the center point (often the mean) of the set distribution

A

Deviation

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108
Q

developing a contingent plans in the event of a man-made or naturally disruptive event such as a strike, earthquake, hurricane or fire

A

Disaster Planning

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109
Q

methods used to monitor and manage quality during the production process

A

During the Fact Controls

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110
Q

measurements considered critical to the performance of a business or process, usually calculated and reviewed on a regular basis

A

Key Performance Indicator (KPI)

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111
Q

a measure of economic activity that tends to change after the state of the general economy has changed, for example unemployment rate

A

Lagging Indicator

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112
Q

that percentage of total market demand which an organization or product fulfills

A

Market Share

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113
Q

a technique utilizing the application of statistical control charts in measuring and analyzing the variation in processing operations. the methodology monitors the process to determine whether outside influences are causing the process to go out of control

A

Statistical Process Control (SPC)

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114
Q

application of a set of statistical techniques to control quality. ___ includes both statistical process control and acceptance sampling

A

Statistical Quality Control

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115
Q

a measure of the velocity of total inventory movement through the organization, found by dividing annual sales (at cost) by the average aggregate inventory value maintained during the year. the higher the ___, generally, the more favorable the measure

A

Turnover

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116
Q

all processes and activities that transform raw materials into an end product or service for the customer

A

Value Stream

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117
Q

creating an innovative and effective function that retains the best people within the business through succession planning, upskilling their abilities, and creating a progressive and evolving environment

A

Talent Management

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118
Q

an improvement process used by an organization to define requirements, map current processes, identify gaps between requirements and current processes, and develop and implement solutions to fill those gaps

A

Gap Analysis

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119
Q

orientation method where a new employee is rotated through a series of brief assignments, both within purchasing and in a number of other functions, to gain a broad understanding of the organization as a whole

A

Functional Rotation

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120
Q

the process in which an experienced collague is assigned to an inexperienced individual and assists in a training or general support role as part of employee development.

A

Mentoring

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121
Q

a group of physically connected computers (or work stations) that are attached to a file server. it allows users to share software and some hardware, thus, reducing costs while providing the user with more applications

A

Network

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122
Q

a process in which a purchaser pre-qualifies multiple suppliers and invite them to participate in a fixed-duration web-based bidding or sourcing event

A

Online Auction

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123
Q

a ratio created by dividing EBIT (earnings before interest and tax) by total net assets that is used to determine how effectively assets are utilized to generate income within the organization

A

Return on Total Assets ( ROTA)

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124
Q

a broad category of applications and technologies for gathering, providing access to and analyzing data for the purpose of helping enterprise users make better business decisions

A

Business Intelligence

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125
Q

an organization’s reporting and decision-making structure

A

Chain of Command

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126
Q

making changes in a planned or systematic fashion through the use of methods, models and practices common to the multi-disciplinary body of knowledge surrounding the task of managing planned or unplanned change

A

Change Management

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127
Q

data about the business environment, such as the markets, the industry, competitors and/or customers, that an organization collects, reviews and uses to enable it to make sound decisions regarding current and future plans and operations. For example, an organization may use ____ to compare itself to other organizations, to identify risk and opportunities and/or test plans against market response in order to gain a competitive edge

A

Competitive Intelligence

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128
Q

any type of transaction that requires, as a condition of the original sale, that goods be bought either as a trade-balancing mechanism or as full or partial payment for the goods sold. some form of ___ frequently is used in international business

A

Countertrade

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129
Q

the time required to complete a process, such as replenishing inventory

A

Cycle Time

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130
Q

involves assigning tasks to subordinates, granting authority to them, and them responsible for results

A

Delegation of Authority

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131
Q

an entire business organization, from front-line employees to top management, and all functions in-between

A

Enterprise

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132
Q

an authorization given to a supplier to ship a specified quantity of material against an established contract

A

Release

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133
Q

the physical relationship between an organization’s output and input

A

Productivity

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134
Q

the extent to which people interact with and influence others outside their span of control both within and outside the organization. mechanisms such as dual reporting and matrix structures serve to encourage an increased ___

A

Span of Influence

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135
Q

the process where one or more successors are identified for critical supply management positions

A

Succession Planning

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136
Q

training employees to be able to perform different types of work in the supply management function, such as training a commodity manager to understand the process of acquiring capital equipment in addition to the regular commodity assignment

A

Cross-Training

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137
Q

projects or tasks that are above and beyond an employees current knowledge, skill, or ability level

A

Stretch Assignments

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138
Q

formal process in which an experienced college is assigned to an inexperienced individual, and assists in a training or general support role as part of employee development

A

Mentoring

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139
Q

businesses pair newer employees who have knowledge of newer trends and technologies, such as social media and the perspectives of Gen Y, millennials, Gen Z, with more senior employees

A

Reverse Mentoring

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140
Q

the ability of the individual to increase skills and knowledge of current and future job responsibilities to attain career objectives through both training and work assignments

A

Professional Development

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141
Q

provide key tasks to subordinates allowing the opportunity to make and execute decisions that are important to the success of the organization and critical to developing talent depth in the managerial ranks

A

Delegation of Authority

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142
Q

designed to give the employee experience in as many of the areas of supply management for which the employee is being prepared for should the need for succession arise

A

Job Rotation

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143
Q

the ability to respond rapidly to changes in the physical or business environment

A

Agility

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144
Q

the use of business data to discover statistics, metrics, patterns and measures that might otherwise not be found or understood

A

Analytics

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145
Q

massive data sets that often include both structured and unstructured data that requires special processing methods for extraction of information

A

Big Data

146
Q

a broad term applying to the use of IT resources that are external to the business for purposes of storage and computing

A

Cloud

147
Q

in a business context, usually refers to something that is easily known or understood at an interpersonal or market level

A

Transparency

148
Q

a general term for computing using external resources, software and information via outside computers rather than in-house assets. cloud services are metered and paid for by use

A

Cloud Computing

149
Q

processes that are used to maximize value by ensuring that a contract is initiated, utilized, fulfilled, modified and completed in a systemic fashion that ensures stakeholder value is maximized and risk is minimized. may also be called contract administration or contract life-cycle management

A

Contract Management

150
Q

a pictorial representation of a car ____ that includes a small, defined set of key metrics. the position on the ___ indicates the degree of success in attaining the desired performance target. typically, ___s are prominently displayed, frequently updated and used to provide a quick evaluation of a project or process status

A

Dashboard

151
Q

the concept of organizations intensively searching increasing large and complex amounts of data to find trends, identify customer and supplier behaviors, manage risk, enhance market intelligence, and so on. the data may come from one proprietary source or may come from aggregating multiple data capture points

A

Data Mining

152
Q

the computer-to-computer exchange of business information in a standard format. transaction documents, such as purchase orders, invoices and shipping notices, are transmitted electronically and entered directly into a supplier’s (or purchaser’s) computer or into a third-party network for processing

A

Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)

153
Q

a variable that affects a dependent variable and is assumed not to be affected by the other variables in the analysis

A

Independent Variable

154
Q

a method for the effective planning of all resources used in a manufacturing organization. ideally, it addresses operational planning in units and financial planning in dollars, and has a simulation capacity to answer “what if” questions. it is comprised of a variety of functions, each linked together; business planning, sales and operations planning, production planning, master production scheduling, material requirements planning, capacity requirements planning and the execution support systems for capacity and materials. ____ is a direct outgrowth and extension of closed-loop material requirements planning

A

Manufacturing Resource Planning (MRP II)

155
Q

a standalone portion of an enterprise system that performs specific functions such as payroll, e-mail or warehouse management. these ___s can be linked together with an integrated system like ERP

A

Module

156
Q

(1) a key site on the internet that numerous people visit; (2) a communication entrance or area for an organization

A

Portal

157
Q

an analysis of expected demand, the supply market, specific suppliers and the items in question, as well as development of a budget. these activities culminate in the development of purchasing plan objectives and specific purchasing strategies. subsequent purchasing actions during the year are based on this plan. many organizations develop an annual ____ for each major category of materials and services purchased

A

Purchase Plan

158
Q

an organization that provides software applications over the internet for use by its customers for a fee. ___ has become the industry-preferred term, generally replacing the earlier term application service provider (ASP)

A

Software as a Service (SaaS)

159
Q

analysis of the historical spending patterns in an organization, usually by commodity or category. this analysis provides information about the types of items purchased and their cumulative dollar value, which becomes the substance for future strategic and operational purchase planning

A

Spend Analysis

160
Q

the ability to expand or decrease/contract based on demand

A

Scalability

161
Q

media used for both the long- and short-term ___ of data including mass ___ devices, tape and discs

A

Storage

162
Q

the act of following the path along which something moves, such as a shipment form its departure to its destination. ___ capability is important for all modes of transportation

A

Tracking

163
Q

a subset of ANSI X.12 EDI standards for warehousing and distribution

A

Warehouse Information Network Standards (WINS)

164
Q

any name, term, symbol or design that an organization uses to differentiate its offering from those of others

A

Brand

165
Q

a form of intellectual property in which legal protection is provided by a country or governmental entity granting the authors and creators or original literary, dramatic, musical, artistic and other intellectual property, published or unpublished, the exclusive right to publish, reproduce, display, sell, perform, transmit or prepare derivative works form the original work

A

Copyright

166
Q

a variety of technologies and business processes designed to prevent unauthorized access to technology systems and networks. also called computer or IT security

A

Cybersecurity

167
Q

a country with a relatively low standard of living, undeveloped industrial base and moderate to low human development index (HDI). the term has tended to edge out earlier ones, including the Cold Ware- defined “third world countries

A

Developing Countries

168
Q

an agency of the US Department of Commerce that grants patents for invention protection and for trademark registration

A

US Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO)

169
Q

deceit, trickery, breach of confidence or other illegal act used to gain unfair or dishonest advantage. may be the basis for a tort (personal injury) lawsuit

A

Fraud

170
Q

unauthorized use or encroachment upon personal property or rights. the term is often used in association with intellectual property rights, such as patent ___

A

Infringement

171
Q

an agreement between a company, or person, in which the insured makes payments to the insuring company, usually based on terms of an ___ policy, covering a specified period of time. the insuring company promises to pay money or other compensation to the insured for a loss covered by the ___ policy. often used to reduce business risk, many types of ___ are available

A

Insurance

172
Q

Various types of intangible personal property that have an inherent commercial value and are protected by the government in different ways. they include copyrights, patents and trademarks

A

Intellectual Property (IP)

173
Q

Permission granted by one party (licensor) allowing another (___e) to use property or exercise rights of the licensor; often used in connection with intellectual property rights

A

License

174
Q

a market characterized by having only one seller. illegal in the US under antitrust laws

A

Monopoly

175
Q

(1) the probability that a product will perform as specified (under normal conditions) without failure for a specified period of time; (2) a requirement in a specification that is part of the design criteria defining dependability

A

Reliability

176
Q

Identifying label, symbol or word (s) for exclusive use with a particular product (trademark) or service. marks may be protected by registration at the US federal or state level or by common law

A

Service Mark

177
Q

a process of evaluating the likelihood and impact of various uncertainties an entity faces

A

Risk Assessment

178
Q

responsibility for damage or other casualty. commonly used in association with goods ___ transfers from the seller to the buyer in accordance with the delivery term used or other provisions of the contract

A

Risk of Loss

179
Q

____ may include infrastructure security, risk to systems, process disruptions and data-access disruptions. risk to data include theft, alteration, destruction and loss of availability

A

Technical Risk

180
Q

Wrong committed under civil law (rather than criminal) other than breach of contract

A

Tort

181
Q

a provision of the US Equal Opportunity Act of 1972 that requires organizations to take action to move toward achieving a workforce that accurately reflects the composition of the local labor pool

A

Affirmative Action

182
Q

a non profit, non partisan, educational membership organization which fosters the study of international law and promotes the establishment and maintenance of international relations on the basis of law and justice

A

American Society of International Law

183
Q

US federal law adopted in 2002 in an attempt to restore public confidence in corporate governance; regulates the accounting profession and imposes extensive reporting requirements on all publicly-traded corporations in the US. the law requires internal financial controls to provide assurance of the reliability of financial reporting and preparation of financial statements

A

Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX)

184
Q

elapsed time from placement to receipt of order

A

Delivery Cycle

185
Q

the need for a specific item in a specific quantity

A

Demand

186
Q

the proactive compilation of requirements information regarding demand and the firms capabilities from the supply side; (2) the development of a consensus regarding the ability to match the requirements and capabilities; (3) the agreement upon a synthesized plan that can most effectively meet the customer requirements within the constraints imposed by supply chain capabilities

A

Demand Management

187
Q

Using two suppliers for the same item

A

Dual Sourcing

188
Q

an entity established to provide the management of both inbound and outbound materials, parts, supplies, and finished goods for other organizations

A

Logistics Service Provider (LSP)

189
Q

a statistical term referring to the likelihood of occurrence of an event, action or item

A

Probability

190
Q

the process of identifying elements or factors, and their probability of occurrence, that could lead to injury, damage, loss or failure

A

Risk Analysis

191
Q

the process of anticipating risk, determining its root causes, and identifying and taking the necessary actions to eliminate the risk

A

Risk Avoidance

192
Q

the ability of an organization to survive the losses associated with a particular risk; how much risk an organization is willing to accept

A

Risk Tolerance

193
Q

breach of contract occurring prior to actual time for contract performance, usually by means of repudiation

A

Anticipatory Breach

194
Q

a failure to perform any obligations included in contract terms. Failure of material or product to meet quality or other specification warranted by the supplier

A

Breach

195
Q

failure of mateiral or product to meet quality or other specification warranted by the supplier

A

Breach of Warranty

196
Q

action of one party to end a contract due to breach by the other party. the right to cancel may be provided by law or in specific contract language

A

Cancellation

197
Q

the right asserted by a plaintiff to payment or an equitable remedy, such as the specific performance of a contract

A

Claim

198
Q

Financial remedy award to a plaintiff to compensate it for actual loss, injury or damage

A

Compensatory Damages

199
Q

Named port of destination.
An incoterms rule under which goods are considered to be “delivered” (and buyer assumes risk of loss) when they pass the ship’s rail in the port of shipment. the seller is responsible for clearing the goods for export and for ___ to bring the goods to the destination port this term can onyl be used for waterway transportation.

A

Cost and Freight (CFR)

200
Q

compensation for loss or injury suffered by one party as a result of another party’s actions or inactions. in breach of contract situations only compensatory, not punitive or exemplary, ___ are generally allowed

A

Damages

201
Q

one accused of wrong-doing in a civil lawsuit (seeking damages or other remedy) or criminal action (seeking criminal sanctions)

A

Defendant

202
Q

damages awarded when defendant’s wrongdoing was deliberate or intentional to make an example of defendant and thus serve as deterrence

A

Exemplart Damages

203
Q

is a set of related records. for example, a supplier ___ would contain records with information on each supplier

A

File

204
Q

a sum agreed upon during the formation of a contract which will be paid by the breaching party in the event of a defined breach of contract

A

Liquidated Damages

205
Q

one who initiates a civil lawsuit seeking damages or other remedy for alleged wrongdoing by a defendant

A

Plaintiff

206
Q

that which relieves or corrects a legal wrong. in contract actions, available ___s are money damages or an order of the court for specific performance

A

Remedy

207
Q

Damages awarded when defendant’s wrongdoing was deliberate or intentional to serve as punishment and deterrence; not typically allowed in contract disputes

A

Punitive Damages

208
Q

special remedy for breach of contract available to a purchaser where a court orders the seller to perform the contract as agreed rather than awarding money damages

A

Specific Performance

209
Q

the process of gathering the requirements and ideas of those who will be impacted by a certain decision or organizational change, prior to making said decision or change

A

Stakeholder Engagement

210
Q

a legally enforceable promise or representation as to quality or performance of goods or services made by a seller

A

Warranty

211
Q

the legal relationship that exists between two parties by which one (the agent) is authorized to perform or transact specified business activities for the other (the principal)

A

Agency

212
Q

a forecasting tool composed of autoregressive and moving-average concepts used for understanding and predicting values in time series data

A

Autoregressive Moving Average (ARMA)

213
Q

the use of computers in interactive engineering drawing and storage of designs. programs complete the layout, geometric transformations, projections, rotations, magnifications and interval (cross-section) views of a part and its relationship with other parts

A

Computer-Aided Design (CAD)

214
Q

an annual adjustment in wages to offset a change (usually a loss) in purchasing power, as measured by the consumer price index. the consumer price index is used rather than the producer price index because the purpose is to offset inflation as experienced by the consumer, not producer

A

Cost-of-Living Adjustment (COLA)

215
Q

A collection of data received from various transaction systems, which are accessible to many people at varying levels within an enterprise

A

Data Warehouse

216
Q

a collection of data in an organized, accessible form

A

Database

217
Q

a software system that creates, accesses and controls a database. the interface between the programs and users needing to access the data

A

Database Management System (DBMS)

218
Q

Process provided for in civil lawsuits that allows the litigants to learn as much as possible about the facts of the case prior to trial

A

Discovery

219
Q

The act of moving goods out of one’s internal organization to another organization due to loss of value, obsolescence, excess inventory or product change

A

Disposition

220
Q

electronic discovery, or ___, refers to discovery in civil litigation that deals with information in electronic form such as e-mails, CAD/CAM files, Microsoft, accounting databases, websites and any other electronically stored information that could be relevant evidence in a lawsuit

A

E-Discovery

221
Q

a set of processes or rules designed to optimize desired results and limit (optimally eliminate) undesired results, typically embedded within management practices

A

Governance

222
Q

the power of a court to hear a particular dispute and/or to exercise control over particular parties to a dispute

A

Jurisdiction

223
Q

legal action in which one party initiates suit against the other party in a court of law

A

Litigation

224
Q

data that describes data

A

Metadata

225
Q

alleviation, suppression, mitigation or termination

A

Abatement

226
Q

an objective, systematic and periodic process for identifying and documenting environmental compliance and associated management systems, including gaps and potential remediation

A

Environmental Audit

227
Q

a routine activity to monitor the status of a purchase order to ensure that specified service or product delivery schedules are met

A

Follow-Up

228
Q

materials determined to be a risk to health, safety and property. the term includes such items as explosives, flammables, poisons, corrosives and radioactive materials. these materials must be packaged, labeled, handled and transported according to stringent regulations.

A

Hazardous Materials

229
Q

Waste that poses substantial or potential threats to public health or the environment or that has the potential to cause, or significantly contribute to, an increase in mortality or an increase in serious irreversible or incapacitating reversible illness; or pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment when improperly treated, stored, transported, disposed of or otherwise managed.

A

Hazardous Waste

230
Q

an itemization of the items included in a particular shipment, plus related details

A

Manifest

231
Q

Using waste or recycled materials to manufacture a different product

A

Open-Loop Recycling

232
Q

Contract clause often inserted to motivate supplier to perform on time by imposing a financial obligation in the event of late performance

A

Penalty

233
Q

changing or adapting resources to be used again in some form that adds value

A

Recycling

234
Q

a written or computerized request from an internal user/customer to purchasing for the procurement of goods or services from suppliers

A

Requisition

235
Q

utilizing something again either for its originally intended purpose or in another application

A

Reuse

236
Q

a comprehensive, systematic, independent, and periodic examination of an organization’s supply management environment, objectives, strategies, and activities. it is used to identify strengths and weaknesses, and to develop a plan to improve performance

A

Supply Managment Audit

237
Q

are reviews that measure what actually happened so actual performance can be compared with planned benchmarks. this type of gap analysis can provide information that will lead to improvements in processes, products, and/or services

A

After-the-Fact Controls

238
Q

an assessment of supplier’s capabilities against a set of established criteria to verify the economics, ease of use, and functional feasibility of the product or service to be purchased

A

Supplier Audit

239
Q

process deficiency is found through established audits or reviews, a process improvement plan should be established to correct the defect, establish solutions, and define actions to be taken. often a written action plan is necessary that includes a monitoring plan. typically these action plans are due back to the auditor or reviewer

A

Remediation

240
Q

a cost management method for attributing indirect costs to the activities that drive cost. this approach is in contrast to more traditional accounting methods which pool and allocate indirect costs on a formulaic basis that does not necessarily reflect the true cost structure

A

Activity-Based Costing (ABC)

241
Q

Completing the sale process by obtaining a customer’s commitment to buy

A

Closing

242
Q

an examination of both the costs and benefits of alternative courses of action to aid in determining whether a course of action should be pursued

A

Cost-Benefit Analysis

243
Q

A written order drawn by one party (drawer) ordering a second party (drawee) to pay a specified sum of money to a third party (payee)

A

Draft

244
Q

development of economic information within an organization and communication of that information to decision-makers. information prepared by ___ generally is issued in the form of financial statements

A

Financial Accounting

245
Q

a widely accepted set of rules, conventions, standards and procedures for reporting financial information as established by the US Financial Accounting Standards Board and other bodies. country-specific principles may co-exist side-by-side with principles developed and published by internationally recognized bodies

A

Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)

246
Q

the act of checking the quality of products and services to determine whether they meet specifications. under the Uniform Commerical Code, purchasers have the right to inspect goods before acceptance

A

Inspection

247
Q

Global accounting standards adopted by many countries. however, as of 2012 the US had not yet adopted the standards

A

International Financial Reporting Standards

248
Q

a worldwide federation established in 1947 that promotes the development of global standards to enhance international business interactions. the ___ is comprised of standards organization from more than 140 countries

A

International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

249
Q

families of standards and guidelines. the ____ family is primarily concerned with quality management or what the organization does to fulfill the customer’s quality requirements and applicable regulatory requirements while aiming to enhance customer satisfaction and achieve continual improvement of its performance in pursuit of these objectives

A

ISO 9000

250
Q

a type of supplier audit that checks internal documentation of complaince audits

A

Systems Audit

251
Q

the rule-making body of the accounting procession in the US. other countires have similar organizations

A

Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB)

252
Q

an independent, private-sector body that develops and approves international financial reporting standards

A

International Accounting Standards Board (IASB)

253
Q

an upward movement. in supply management, often used to indicate an upward movement of price, also known as economic price adjustment

A

escalation

254
Q

one of the seven tools of quality management, a ____ is a diagram of the step of a process. each step is identified in sequence along with its key characteristics, such as time involved

A

Flow Chart

255
Q

a ratio, usually expressed as percentages, indicating average changes in values, quantities or prices. typically, the changes are measured over time, each item being compared with a corresponding figure from some selected base period which is set as 100%

A

Index

256
Q

a method of drawing a pictorial representation of a process that breaks the process into key activities, transfers, decisions and approvals. process maps enable analysis of the inputs, outputs and interrelationships of each process to understand how processes interact in a system, locate process flaws that are creating systemic problems, evaluate which activities add value for the customer, mobilize teams to streamline and improve processes and identify processes that need to be reengineered. other commonly used terms are flow charting, flow diagrams, process diagrams, and work flows

A

Process Mapping

257
Q

both an entity’s willingness to take risks as well as the hazards that entity is subject to, based on a variety of factors, including business model, purpose of business, and geopolitical and other risks

A

Risk Profile

258
Q

machine-reading of bar codes upon receipt of goods and withdrawal from inventory enables an organization to keep perpetual (real time) inventory records

A

Scanning

259
Q

the strategic analysis of each supplier to determine the extent to which the supplier contributes to the core competence and competitive advantage of the buying organization. suppliers can then be segmented according to the strategic value of the relationship, and the investment of resources can be aligned with that value

A

Supplier Segmentation

260
Q

Outsourcing term; services performed by any person or organization other than the buyer and supplier. examples include transportation, public warehousing, brokerage services, rate auditing, and third-party network services in data transmission

A

Third-Party Service

261
Q

a legally binding offer to sell or to buy

A

Bid

262
Q

shipping classification term used for consolidated shipments of multiple commodities. individual commodities are still listed, but consolidation mitigates need for less than container load (LCL) fees and may be used as a way of reducing costs

A

Freight All Kinds (FAK)

263
Q

a non-governmental group of business people with a shared goal to support business, often including activities such as networking and lobbying. groups range from local, regional, national, or international

A

Chamber of Commerce

264
Q

Publicly-made, false and malicious statement, either oral or written, that inures another’s character, fame or reputation

A

Defamation

265
Q

Making malicious or false statements of fact as to the quality or performance of an organization’s products

A

Disparagement

266
Q

Tort claim based on making defamatory statements about others in writing

A

Libel

267
Q

adopted in 1977 and amended in 1988, this US federal law prohibits corrupt payments to foreign officials for the purpose of obtaining or keeping business

A

Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA)

268
Q

An international organization founded in 1945 whose purposes, as set forth in the Charter, are: to maintain international peace and security; to develop friendly relations among nations; to cooperate in solving international economic, social, cultural and humanitarian problems and in promoting respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms; and to be a center for harmonizing the actions of nations in attaining these ends

A

United Nations (UN)

269
Q

an international initiative that brings business together voluntarily to promote socially and environmentally responsible practices

A

Inited Nations Global Compact

270
Q

sets forth the principle that workers should be protected from sickness, disease and injury arising from their employment

A

Supply Chain International Labour Standards (ILO) Constitution

271
Q

must be on file for toxic materials, must be posted in the area where the employees are working with the material, and must identify the product, its hazardous ingredients, its chemical and physical properties, its hazards, its expiration date, emergency telephone numbers, and the last date when the ___ was revised

A

Safety Data Sheets (SDS)

272
Q

a close relationship between a buyer and seller in order to attain some advantages from each other in a positive way. a partnership in this contact does not imply a legal relationship. buyer-seller partnerships may be of operational importance, such as long-term, single source with an office supplier or of strategic importance, such as a long-term, single source relationship with a supplier of a good or service of strategic importance

A

Alliance

273
Q

material produced as a side effect of a production process. a ___ has value and may be recycled, sold or used in other operations

A

Byproduct

274
Q

process in which recycled or waste material is utilized in making a new product

A

Closed-Loop Recycling

275
Q

responsibility or ownership from the creation of an item to its ultimate disposal

A

Cradle-to-Grave

276
Q

reduction of materials used in creation of products or services, typically accomplished through physical reduction (weight or size), utilization or recycled or alternative materials, or creation of alternative processes to meet the need

A

Dematerialization

277
Q

the process of removing something from a location, typically the removal of scrap, surplus, excess, obsolete and waste items from an organization’s premises

A

Disposal

278
Q

(1) in product management, the interval from design of a new product through introduction, growth, maturity and decline until its end of life in the marketplace; (2) for capital equipment the time interval during which a piece of equipment is intended to provide useful service

A

Life Cycle

279
Q

analysis used to help determine the lifetime effects of a product, process or service by assessing the environmental impact, including energy, materials and releases

A

Life-Cycle Assessment

280
Q

the practice of returning useable materials cast off from a process into a production stream for another use. this is particularly true in primary manufacturing, where clean process scrap can become part of a new cast of material. segregated, clean material can have considerable value

A

Recycling

281
Q

upgrading or repairing goods and distributing them in the market for resale

A

Remanufacturing

282
Q

first coined by John Elkington, it is a concept designed and implemented to report the impact of an enterprise’s activities on social, environmental and financial factors. also referred to as “people, planet, profit”

A

Triple Bottom Line (TBL)

283
Q

a goal of ensuring at all materials are reused in some manner, either as like products or transformed into an alternative product. this concept is often considered within product life cycle design

A

Zero Waste

284
Q

a US-based act that authorizes the EPA oversight of air pollution control, including the responsibility to set limites on pollutants discharged into the air that endanger the health or welfare of humans, as well as the responsibility of working with state and other entities to ensure that plans are in place to meet these standards

A

Clean Air Act

285
Q

___ created a tax on the chemical and petroleum industries and provided broad US Federal authority to respond directly to releases or threatened releases of hazardous substances that may endanger public health or environment

A

Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA)

286
Q

response offered by a defendant in a lawsuit in opposition to claims made by the plaintiff as a reason why the plaintiff should not preveil

A

Defense

287
Q

document providing information about physical dangers, safety procedures and emergency response techniques related to hazardous materials contained in purchased products

A

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

288
Q

provides the legislative framework for chemical disclosure within the EU member states and several other non-EU coutnries

A

European, Registration, Evaluation, Authorization and Restriction of Chemicals Act (REACH)

289
Q

agency under the US department of labor which administers the occupational safety and health act of 1970 to prevent injuries, save lives and protect the health of workers int he US

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

290
Q

an EU directive, the purpose of which is to place restrictions on the use of certain hazardous substances in electrical or electronic equipment sold or used in the EU after July 1 2006

A

Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS)

291
Q

typically include good governance, ethical behavior, transparency and actions that support the concept that the corporation has a role in the well-being of society, including community involvement and environmental concerns

A

Corporate Citizenship

292
Q

law governing dealings and communications between different countries

A

International Law

293
Q

unwelcome physical or verbal sexual conduct that is perceived as a condition of employment; that creates a workplace environment that limits or interferes with an individual’s performance; or that makes the workplace intimidating, hostile or offensive

A

Sexual Harassment

294
Q

a PC based setup that integrates personal processing application with a network of PCs or with a mainframe computer. a ___ allows a user access to very large mainframe databases otherwise inaccessible

A

Workstation

295
Q

US federal law prohibiting discrimination against people aged 40 or over

A

Age Discrimination Employment Act (ADEA)

296
Q

a US federal law passed in 1990 that requires organizations with at least 25 employees to make reasonable accommodations for qualified workers and applicants with disabilities and to avoid discriminating against them. compliance includes removing physical workplace barriers

A

Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

297
Q

the body of law, initiated by the US civil rights act of 1964, that aims to ensure that employment-related decisions are based only on an individual’s ability to perform the job, not on irrelevant criteria

A

Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO)

298
Q

US federal law providing a series of amendments to Title VII, expanding its coverage and strengthening its enforcement. coverage was extended to virtually all organizations with 15 or more employees. the EEOC was given the power to file lawsuits against offending organizations

A

Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972

299
Q

US federal law requiring that individuals who perform the same work and are substantially equal in skill and responsibility receive equal compensation

A

Equal Pay Act

300
Q

US federal law prohibiting discrimination among employees on the basis of race, religion, color, sex, or national origin. the act also bars sexual harassment, prohibiting unwelcome physical or verbal sexual conduct that is perceived as a condition of employment, or that creates a workplace environment that limits or interferes with an individuals performance

A

Federal Civil Rights Act of 1964 (Specifically Title VII)

301
Q

US federal law passed in 1935 establishing rights of employees to engage in collective bargaining and to strike. also defines unfair employer practices related to union organizing

A

National Labor Relations Act

302
Q

Title II of this act prohibits employment discrimination based on genetic information about an applicant, employee, or former employee

A

US Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (GINA)

303
Q

describes the future nature and purpose of an organization

A

Vision statement

304
Q

explains the purpose of an organization and its values. describes who organization is, defines key customers, and explains how it will meet their needs

A

Mission statement

305
Q

what are the 5 E’s?

A

example
educate
environment
experiences
evaluate

306
Q

a mutually advantageous conjunction of business participants or elements so that the outcome is greater than combined effect of what each could have achieved by acting alone

A

Synergy

307
Q

subordinates lazy, uncreative, undisciplined, and generally uninterested

A

Theory X

308
Q

work is a natural activity, under approraite conditions most tend to accept and seek responsibility, creativity and imagination are possessed to a reasonable extent by a large number of people but are not fully utilized in most jobs, most people take pride in what they do

A

Theory Y

309
Q

long term employment, slow but steady advancement to higher level positions, shared/consensus based decision making at all levels of the organization

A

Theory Z

310
Q

a financial plan that spells out intended actions and the funding levels required for their completion. examples, direct/indirect materials, capital expenditure, operating

A

Budget

311
Q

process that does not use past experience to determine future needs. must justify all proposed expenditures

A

Zero-based budgeting

312
Q

links budgeted expenditures to revenue in each budgetary period

A

Cash Flow Budget

313
Q

formatted to show individual expenses during the budgetary period without tying those expenses into broad programs or goals

A

Line-item Budget

314
Q

show the number of employees in an organization by their position and their salary

A

Headcount Budget

315
Q

often used by not-for-profit and government agencies . tie the organizations goals and objectives to the programs or sections responsible for meeting those goals or objectives

A

Program or Project Budget

316
Q

budget for buildings, equipment and other long-term assets that are used for the operation of the organization

A

Capital Budget

317
Q

a roadmap detailing the plan of action necessary to assemble and focus resources toward organizational goals

A

Strategy

318
Q

outline the activities needed to attain the goals and objectives in the organization’s strategic plan including specific resources needed such as facilities, equipment, mateirals, and talent

A

Operational Plan

319
Q

the relationship within the supply management organization as well as groups within the larger organization and community. often used in conjunction with shared goals or objectives

A

Alignment

320
Q

a keen awareness and ability to judge business situations informed by analysis. an understanding of formal and informal organization structure with agility to navigate politics

A

Business Acumen

321
Q

the maximum output or producing ability of a machine, a person, an organization, a product or service

A

Capacity

322
Q

expenses that can be identified with individual units of output, typically direct materials and direct labor. These cost are usually treated as variables and do not include general overhead or common cost allocation

A

Direct Costs

323
Q

the process of planning, implementing and controlling the efficient, cost effective flow and storage of raw materials, in process inventory, finished goods and related information from point of origin to point of consumption for the purpose of conforming to customer requirements

A

Logistics

324
Q

the difference between an item’s standard costs and the actual price paid

A

Purchase Price Variance (PPV)

325
Q

the predetermined or planned cost of manufacturing a single unit or of providing a single unit of service. it represents a goal or baseline that is used to project cost, based on experience and/or analysis

A

Standard Cost

326
Q

Cost categories that change proportionally with the volume of production of goods or the performance of services. major ____ categories are direct materials costs and direct labor categories

A

Variable Costs

327
Q

scope of project is known, but project is customized and new enough that a fixed price would be inappropriate

A

Cost-Plus pricing

328
Q

pricing strategy that allows the seller to cover only variable costs, allow seller to either buy into the business or to maintain work during slack periods

A

Loss-Leader Pricing

329
Q

Key supplier co-locates within your organization and becomes involved in planning and ordering, just like an employee

A

JIT II

330
Q

the process of acquiring or merging activities on the same level of the value chain

A

Horizontal Integration

331
Q

expanding either upstream or downstream in its supply chain. acquisition of suppliers or distributors

A

Vertical Integration

332
Q

the organization both owns units that provide the product or service internally, and uses outside suppliers for the same requirement

A

Taper Integration

333
Q

Review proposed mergers or acquisitions from the standpoint of how it will alter the competitive landscape

A

Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

334
Q

A reduction in cost incurred by an organization which has tangible results

A

Cost Savings

335
Q

To prevent or reduce supplier price increases and ancillary charges through the value analysis, negotiations, and a variety of other techniques. Not tangible

A

Cost Avoidance

336
Q

Detailed plan to hold costs and purchase prices within certain target limits over a period of time

A

Cost Containment

337
Q

what are the phases of team building

A

forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

338
Q

what are the 5 elements of effective internal control systems

A

control environment, risk assessment, control activities, information and communication, monitoring activities

339
Q

the fact or condition of knowing something with familiarity gained through experience or association; acquaintance with or understanding of a science, art or technique

A

Knowledge

340
Q

management system and related subsystems implemented to establish a relationship between cost, schedule and technical aspects of a project, measure progress, accumulate actual costs, analyze deviations from plans, forecast completion of events, and incorporate changes in a timely manner

A

Earned Value Management System (EVMS)

341
Q

enables organizations to effectively and efficiently develop and maintain systems of internal control that can enhance the likelihood of achieving the entity’s objectives and adapt to changes in the business and operating environments

A

Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO)

342
Q

sensor technology, real time performance of vehicle fleets can be analyzed

A

Telematics

343
Q

process of developing IT systems through investigation, analysis, design, implementation, and maintenance

A

System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

344
Q

voluntary initiative based on CEO commitments to implement universal sustainability principles, and to take steps to support UN goals
12,500+ participants
largest corporate sustainability initiative
based on 10 principles

A

United Nations Global Compact

345
Q

passed 1977
prohibits bribes of foreign officials as well as members of nongovernmental organizations for the purpose of obtaining or keeping business
does not prohibit “grease payments”

A

Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA)

346
Q

the seller delivers the goods on board the vessel nominated by the buyer at the named port of shipments or procures the goods already so delivered. the risk of loss or damage to the goods passes when the goods are on board the vessel, and the buyer bears all costs from that moment onward

A

FOB Free on Board

347
Q

the seller delivers the goods to the carrier or another person nominated by the buyer at the seller’s premises or another named place. the parties are well advised to specify as clearly as possible the point within the named place of delivery, as risk passes to the buyer at that point

A

FCA Free Carrier

348
Q

the seller delivers when the goods, once unloaded from the arriving means of transport, are placed at the disposal of the buyer at a named terminal at the named port or place of destination. ‘terminal’ includes a place, whether covered or not, such as a quay, warehouse, container yard, or road, rail, or air terminal. the seller bears all risk involved in bringing the goods to and unloading them at the terminal at the named port or place of destination

A

DAT Delivered at Terminal

349
Q

the seller delivers when the goods are placed at the disposal of the buyer on the arriving means of transport ready for unloading at the named place of destination. the seller bears all risk involved in bringing the goods to the named place

A

DAP Delivered at Place

350
Q

the seller delivers when the goods are placed alongside the vessel nominated by the buyer at the named port of shipments. the risk of loss or damage to the goods passes when the goods are alongside the ship, and the buyer bears all costs from that moment onward

A

FAS Free Alongside Ship

351
Q

improve protection of human health and the environment through the better and earlier identification of the intrinsic properties of chemical substances

A

Registration, Evaluation, Authorization and Restriction of Chemicals (REACH)

352
Q

tendency to like people that are more like us or have some type of similarity

A

Affinity Bias

353
Q

tendency to like people because of one great characteristic they have, which makes us neglect the others

A

Halo Effect

354
Q

tendency to develop stereotypes and assumptions about certain groups, which prevents us from objectively assessing them

A

Perception Bias

355
Q

tendency for people to seek information that confirms pre-existing beliefs or assumptions

A

Confirmation Bias

356
Q

tendency for people to make comparisons, especially when, for instance going through a stack of CV’s for applicants

A

Contrast Effect

357
Q

contract null and void from its inception and both the buyer and seller are restored to the position at the start of the contract

A

Rescission

358
Q

performance specifications; define what product should do but not its design

A

Black box sourcing

359
Q

design specification provide complete and detailed description of what product must look like, buying organization assumes risk for performance

A

White box Sourcing

360
Q

a remedy available to a buyer. after displaying due diligence, the buyer is entitled to obtain the goods in the open market and recover damages from the supplier

A

Cover