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Urinalysis > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Excreted urine is normally ____% water, and ____% solutes

A

94% water, 6% solutes

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2
Q

3 solutes that are in the highest amounts in the urine

A

Urea, Chloride, and Sodium

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3
Q

3 solutes that are in the least amount in the urine

A

Uric acid, glucose, and albumin

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4
Q

What is the highest amount of solute present in the urine?

A

Urea

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5
Q

What is the lowest amount of solute present in the urine?

A

Albumin

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6
Q

Osmolality

A

the number of particles in a solution

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7
Q

Specific Gravity

A

The mass of solutes in solution

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8
Q

Urea vs NaCl affect on osmolality of urine

A

Urea does not dissociate, NaCl does. So 1 mole of NaCl has twice the osmolality of 1 mole of Urea

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9
Q

What does isosmotic mean? What is the osmolality of isosmotic urine?

A

The osmolality initial filtrate = osmolality of the plasma
Isosmotic urine is ~300 mOsm

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10
Q

What is the final osmolality of urine determined by?

A

The distal tubes and the collecting duct

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11
Q

What is the maximum urine osmolality possible? What is this limited by?

A

1400 mOsm/kg. This is limited by the medullary interstitium because urine can only become as hypertonic as that.

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12
Q

What is the normal urine osmolality range?

A

275-900 mOsm/kg

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13
Q

If ADH is present, osmolality ______ as water is ________ in the collecting ducts

A

increases; absorbed

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14
Q

ADH causes ______ of water which leads to ______ urine

A

reabsorption; concentrated

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15
Q

What secretes ADH?

A

Posterior pituitary gland

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16
Q

What is the normal urine-to-serum osmolality ratio (U/S)? What does this mean?

A

1.0-3.0. It means that urine osmolality should be 1-3 times greater than the serum osmolality

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17
Q

What does the U/S ratio evaluate?

A

the ability of the kidneys to properly concentrate the urine

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18
Q

What is normal urine specific gravity?

A

1.002-1.035

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19
Q

What affects specific gravity?

A

presence of large molecular weight solutes such as glucose, urea, and protein

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20
Q

What is the normal daily urine volume excretion?

A

500-1800 mL/day

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21
Q

Polyuria

A

Excretion of excessive amounts of urine (>3L a day)

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22
Q

Oliguria

A

decreased excretion of urine <400mL a day

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23
Q

Anuria

A

no urine excretion

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24
Q

Common feature of renal chronic diseases? What happens to SG and osmolality of the urine and why? What does this cause?

A

Inability to reabsorb and secrete solutes as it passes through the nephron.

SG and osmolality are the same as those of initial ultrafiltrate in Bowman’s space (1.010 and 300 mOsm/kg) They are isosmotic/isosthenuric.

This causes polyuria and nocturia.

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25
Q

What is the purpose of a fluid deprivation test?

A

It differentiates causes of water diuresis (neurogenic diabetes vs nephrogenic diabetes). It evaluates the renal concentrating ability of the kidneys.

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26
Q

Neurogenic diabetes

A

Defective ADH production or secretion

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27
Q

Nephrogenic diabetes

A

Lack of renal response to ADH

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28
Q

Describe the fluid deprivation test procedure.

A
  1. Patient drinks no fluids from 6pm-8am
  2. Urine specimen collected at 8am and osmolality determined (If urine osmolality is <800, test is continued. If urine osmolality is >800, this is normal and test is ended).
  3. Urine and serum specimen collected at 10am (If urine osmolality is >800 or U/S ratio is >3, normal and test is ended. If neither of these conditions are met, ADH is administered.
  4. ADH administered
  5. Urine and serum specimens collected at 2pm and 6pm
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29
Q

During the fluid deprivation test, what does a positive response to ADH administration indicate?

A

Urine osmolality is >800 or >3. The results indicate that the patient’s kidney can respond to ADH, but inadequate ADH is produced by patient (neurogenic diabetes).

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30
Q

During the fluid deprivation test, what does a negative response to ADH administration indicate?

A

Urine osmolality <800 or U/S ratio < 3.
These results indicate that the renal receptors for ADH are dysfunctional and your body is not responding to ADH (nephrogenic diabetes).

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31
Q

What is osmolar clearance?

A

It indicates the volume of water required to eliminate the solutes from the plasma

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32
Q

How do you calculate osmolar clearance (Cosm)?

A

Cosm (mL plasma per minute) = (Uosm/Sosm) x volume excreted by kidneys (mL/min)

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33
Q

What is the Cosm reference range?

A

2-3 mL/min

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34
Q

What is free water clearance?

A

The additional water that exceeds bodily needs and is eliminated in the urine

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35
Q

How to determine free water clearance? (Ch2o)

A

Ch2o (mL/min) = volume excreted by kidneys (mL/min) - Cosm (mL/min)

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36
Q

Total volume of urine excreted by the kidneys = _____ + _______

A

Cosm + Ch2o

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37
Q

What does it mean if Ch2o is negative?

A

Urine is concentrated due to dehydration; urine is hyperosmotic or hypertonic (Uosm > Sosm)

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38
Q

What does it mean if Ch2o is positive?

A

Urine is dilute because of water diuresis. Urine is hypo-osmotic or hypotonic (Uosm < Sosm)

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39
Q

What does it mean if Ch2o is zero?

A

Total urine volume = osmolar clearance volume. Urine is isosmotic (Uosm = Sosm) No excess water is being eliminated.

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40
Q

Normal GFR

A

greater than or equal to 60 mL/min

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41
Q

What does a GFR of <60 indicate?

A

kidney disease

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42
Q

What does a GFR of <15 mean?

A

Kidney failure

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43
Q

Briefly describe Inulin clearance test. Pro/Con?

A

Used to assess GFR; It readily passes glomerular filtration barriers and is not reabsorbed or secreted. It is the ideal substance for determining GFR but it is not practical for routine GFR because it must be administered IV

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44
Q

What is the most used clearance test for routine assessment of GFR?

A

Creatinine clearance

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45
Q

Most accurate creatinine clearance is obtained using a _____ urine specimen.

A

24-hour

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46
Q

What is the external body surface area of an average individual?

A

1.73 meters squared

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47
Q

Creatinine clearance depends directly on ________.

A

Muscle mass

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48
Q

Creatinine clearance calculation

A

C (mL/min) = U x V 1.73 m^2
_____ x _______
P SA

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49
Q

What do creatinine clearance results tell us?

A

Measure of GFR to help us determine/evaluate renal function

50
Q

What is the purpose of an eGFR? When would we use it? What is the calculation based on?

A

Assists in detecting chronic kidney disease. We would use it whenever a serum creatinine test is performed on patients > 18 y.o.
The calculation is based on serum creatinine level, age, gender, and ethnicity

51
Q

What are substances that can be used for clearance tests? Which are more sensitive and specific?

A

Creatinine, Inulin, Cystatin C, and B2-Microglobulin

Cystatin C and B2-microglobulin are more sensitive and specific biomarkers than creatinine

52
Q

What is the purpose of screening for microalbuminuria?

A

It monitors diabetes mellitus patients for detection and treatment of early nephropathy

53
Q

What is the most important factor leading to proteinuria?

A

Hyperglycemia

54
Q

What is the most common test used to measure RPF?

A

P-aminohippurate clearance test

55
Q

What is renal tubular acidosis? What test is used to measure this?

A

Patients excrete alkaline urine despite a systemic acidosis. Oral Ammonium Chloride Test is used.

56
Q

Normal serum osmolality

A

275-300 mOsm/kg

57
Q

List the 4 types of renal disease

A
  1. glomerular
  2. tubular
  3. interstitial
  4. vascular
58
Q

Primary glomerular disorders:

A

Called glomerulonephritides; consist of several different types of glomerulonephritis. Affect glomerulus directly

59
Q

Secondary glomerular diseases

A

Initially and principally involve other organs

60
Q

What is the primary mode of glomerular injury? What does glomerular damage result from?

A

Immune-mediated processes (antigen and antibody complexes)
Glomerular damage results from chemical mediators and toxic substances

61
Q

Features that characterize glomerular damage (NEPHRITIC syndrome)

A

Hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, azotemia, edema, hypertension

62
Q

Features that characterize NEPHROTIC syndrome

A

Heavy, LARGE amounts or proteinuria (>3.5g/day), hypoproteinemia, hyperlipidemia, lipiduria, generalized edema

63
Q

Describe the glomerulonephritide acute glomerulonephritis (AGN)

A

Main cause is streptococcal infection - occurs 1-2 weeks after a strep infection and mostly seen in children

64
Q

Describe the glomerulonephritide Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis (RPGN)

A

AKA Crescentic glomerulonephritis because there is cellular proliferation in Bowman’s capsule that forms crescents - leukocyte infiltration and fibrin deposition in crescents

65
Q

Describe the glomerulonephritide Membranous Glomerulonephritis (MGN)

A

Basement membrane thickening leading to LOSS OF THE FOOT PROCESSES
COMPLEMENT ACTIVATION is responsible for the glomerular damage
This is the MAJOR CAUSE of the NEPHROTIC syndrome in adults

66
Q

What is the major cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?

A

Membranous Glomerulonephritis

67
Q

Describe the glomerulonephritide Minimal Change Disease (MCD)

A

Dysfunction of T-cell immunity
MOST COMMON CAUSE OF NEPHROTIC SYNDROME IN CHILDREN

68
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?

A

Minimal Change Disease (MCD)

69
Q

Describe the glomerulonephritide Focal Segmented Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)

A

Sclerosis of glomeruli characterized most by diffuse damage to the glomerular epithelium (podocytes)
*CAN RECUR AFTER RENAL TRANSPLANTATION

70
Q

What glomerulonephritide can recur after renal transplantation?

A

FSGS

71
Q

Describe the glomerulonephritide MPGN

A

Most cases are immune mediated caused by cellular prolifeation, leukocyte infiltration, and thickening of basement membrane

72
Q

4 distinct morphological changes of glomerulus in glomerular diseases

A
  1. cellular proliferation
  2. leukocytic infiltration
  3. basement membrane thickening
  4. hyalinization with sclerosis
73
Q

Describe the glomerulonephritide IgA nephropathy

A

Deposition of IgA in the glomerular mesangium
*ONE OF THE MOST PREVALENT TYPES OF GLOMERULONEPHRITIDES WORLDWIDE

74
Q

What is the most prevalent types of glomerulonephritides worldwide?

A

IgA nephropathy

75
Q

What is ATN? What are the two types? What do 50% of all cases of ATN result from?

A

Acute Tubular Necrosis - Characterized by the destruction of renal tubular epithelial cells
2 Types: Ischemic ATN and Toxic ATN
50% of all cases result from surgical procedures

76
Q

Differentiate between Ischemic ATN and Toxic ATN

A

Ischemic: follows a hypotensive event that results in decreased perfusion of the kidneys followed by renal tissue ischemia

Toxic ATN: results from exposure to nephrotoxic agents

77
Q

Tubular damage caused by either form of ATN is _________.

A

reversible

78
Q

What is Fanconi’s syndrome?

A

Loss of proximal tubular function - amino acids, glucose, water, phosphorous, potassium, calcium are NOT reabsorbed. They are excreted in urine

79
Q

Renal glucosuria

A

Excretion of glucose in the urine despite normal blood glucose levels

80
Q

Renal phosphaturia

A

Inability of distal tubules to reabsorb inorganic phosphorous

81
Q

Renal tubular acidosis

A

Will not produce an acid urine

82
Q

Tubulointerstitial disease

A

Diseases involving the renal interstitium and tubules; closely involved with UTIs

83
Q

Lower UTI involves:

A

urethra, bladder, or both

84
Q

Infection of the renal pelvis

A

Pyelitis

85
Q

Infection of the renal pelvis and interstitium

A

Pyelonephritis

86
Q

Upper UTI involves:

A

renal pelvis alone or with interstitium

87
Q

Most common UTI pathogen

A

E. coli

88
Q

What differentiates lower UTIs from upper UTIs?

A

No pathological casts in lower UTI; in upper UTI there is presence of casts

89
Q

Chronic pyelonephritis

A

persistent inflammation causes permanent scarring that involves the renal calyces and pelvis

90
Q

Acute Interstitial Nephritis (AIN) most common cause? What will be seen in routine UA results with AIN?

A

acute allograft rejection of a transplanted kidney.
*Increased eosinophils!

91
Q

What can vascular disease lead to?

A

Disorders that alter blood vessels or the blood supply to the kidney can lead to renal disease

92
Q

What is a frequent finding in many kidney disorders?

A

Hypertension

93
Q

What is acute renal failure? What are the three types of acute renal failure?

A

Characterized by sudden decrease in GFR, azotemia, and oliguria
1. prerenal ARF
2. Renal ARF
3. Postrenal ARF

94
Q

What is prerenal acute renal failure a result from? How does it affect sodium in the urine?

A

A decrease in renal blood flow. Low urine sodium

95
Q

What is renal acute renal failure characterized by? How does it affect sodium levels in the urine?

A

Renal damage; increased urine sodium

96
Q

What is postrenal acute renal failure?

A

Obstructions in urine flow

97
Q

Describe chronic renal failure. How is this different from ARF?

A

Progressive loss of renal function leading to irreversible and intrinsic renal disease that eventually progresses to end-stage renal disease.

This is more serious than ARF and the GFR slowly decreases instead of sudden decrease like in ARF.

98
Q

What are calculi made of?

A

75% Calcium

99
Q

4 factors influencing calculus formation

A
  1. Increased concentration of chemical salts in urine
  2. Optimal urinary pH (isohydruria: constant/unchanging urinary pH)
  3. Urinary stasis (not peeing often)
  4. Nucleation or initial crystal formation
100
Q

What type of UTI are staghorn stones associated with? What is another name for these stones?

A

Upper UTIs caused by urea-splitting organisms. They are called struvite stones

101
Q

What is renal colic?

A

Pain while passing a kidney stone

102
Q

Name and describe the 3 different types of aminoacidurias

A
  1. Overflow (increase in plasma levels of the amino acid due to renal threshold being exceeded)
  2. No-threshold (amino acids are not reabsorbed by the tubules, so any increase in the blood = increased quantity in the urine)
  3. Renal (amino acids are not reabsorbed due to a tubular defect)
103
Q

Cystinosis

A

Lysosomal storage disease that results in intracellular deposit of cystine in the lysosomes

104
Q

Differentiate between Nephropathic cystinosis, Intermediate cystinosis, and Ocular cystinosis.

A

Nephropathic: most common and severe form, deposition of cystine crystals in proximal tubular cells can cause Fanconi’s syndrome
Intermediate cystinosis: slower rate of progression
Ocular cystinosis: manifest only ocular impairment

105
Q

Cystinuria

A

Cystine crystals in the urine

106
Q

What is excreted in the urine from a patient with Maple Syrup Urine Disease?
What is responsible for the smell of maple syrup?

A

Leucine, Isoleucine, Valine.
Ketoacids are responsible

107
Q

What is excreted in the urine with Phenylketonuria? Why is this? What is the smell of urine of someone with this disease?

A

Phenylpyruvic acid (a ketone) and its metabolites. This is due to the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase being deficient or defective. This causes a mousy/barny smell.

108
Q

Alkaptonuria - what is excreted in the urine? Why? What does this cause the color of urine?

A

Homogentistic acid due to decreased levels of the enzyme homogentistic acid oxidase. This causes black urine.

109
Q

What is ochronosis?

A

Pigmentation in the ears associated with Alkaptonuria

110
Q

What is diabetes mellitus characterized by?

A

Hyperglycemia and glucosuria

111
Q

Type I vs Type II diabetes

A

Type I: insulin-dependent (requires insulin injections due to no production of insulin) symptoms include polyuria and polydipsia

Type II: non-insulin dependent (associated with obesity, body cannot use insulin properly)

112
Q

Diabetes is the leading cause of:

A

Blindness
End-stage renal disease
Nontraumatic limb amputations

113
Q

Type I galactosemia: deficiency of ____ enzyme

A

GALT; THE MOST COMMON FORM!

114
Q

Type II galactosemia - deficiency of _____ enzyme? Predominant clinical feature?

A

GALK enzyme. Cataracts

115
Q

Type III galactosemia: deficiency of ______ enzyme?

A

GALE

116
Q

Neurogenic diabetes insipidus

A

Synthesis and release of ADH are reduced

117
Q

Nephrogenic diabetes

A

Normal synthesis and release of ADH, but defective renal tubular response to ADH

118
Q

What is different about diabetes insipidus when compared to diabetes mellitus? similar?

A

DI patients have a low SG with no glucose in urine
DM patients have a high SG with glucose in urine
Both DI and DM have polyuria and polydipsia

119
Q

Porphyrias

A

Accumulation of porphyrins in the urine; turns urine port-wine color

120
Q

Clinical presentation of porphyria

A

Accumulation of neurotoxic porphyrin precursors, and cutaneous lesions or a burning sensation
Port-wine color urine

Urinalysis (4 decks)

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