Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

*Pulse ox is used when?

It works by ____ so it is affected by ____

A

Prior to surgery (to assess respiratory status) and to monitor the progression of certain chronic respiratory disorders.

Detecting light signals reflected from the blood pulsing through tissue

Skin color, temperature, nail polish, bright lights, patient movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ABG measures ___ and assesses ____

It is obtained by ___

A

Blood oxygenation and blood acid levels
If the lungs can provide adequate oxygen and removal of carbon dioxide

Through an arterial puncture (usually radial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

End Tidal CO2 monitors ____

This is sometimes preferred to other methods because it

A

How much CO2 a person is exhaling

Provides IMMEDIATE information about ventilation, perfusion, and metabolism by determining the concentration of CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

*Resp. cultures identify

Theses should be collected

A

Pathogens responsible for respiratory infections

BEFORE antibiotics are started!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chest xray detects

Works best when

A

Densities produced by fluid, tumors, foreign bodies

Pt takes a deep breath and holds it (for lungs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CT scans show ____ and detect ____

A

Cross-sectional view of the chest

Fine tissue density - pulmonary nodules and tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

*MRI detects

Contraindicated in those with

Pts may need

A

Pulmonary nodules, stage bronchogenic cancers, evaluate inflammatory activity (like CT but more detailed)

Metal implants

Antianxiety meds because it is a long test in a small enclosure with loud noises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bronchoscopies are a

They are performed

A

Direct inspection/examination of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi with the use of a fiberoptic scope

Under sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hypoxemia vs. Hypoxia

RAT BED

A

Hypoxemia is low oxygen levels in the blood

Hypoxia is low oxygen levels in the tissue

(Hypoxemia leads to hypoxia)

Restlessness, Anxiety, Tachycardia/Tachypnea
Bradycardia, Extreme restlessness, Dyspnea
(Early to late signs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

*Chest physiotherapy is

Always perform this

For positioning, start with

A

An airway clearance technique to drain the lungs
- may include percussion or vibration

Before meals and bedtime (2-4 times/day, 10-15 minutes per position)

Positions that drain lower lungs and then upper lungs. Have them cough after each position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Viral rhinitis is ____ caused by

A

A common cold; a virus (usually rhinovirus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Rhinosinusitis is

It is caused by

CMs

A

Inflammation of sinus/nasal cavity

Bacterial or viral infection

Bacterial - purulent nasal drainage, congestion, pain/pressure, fever
Viral - Same but not as intense, drainage isn’t purulent, no fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Influenza isolation

A

Droplet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea is

CMs

Risk factors are

Treatment includes

A

Recurrent episode of upper airway obstruction and reduction in ventilation resulting in apnea during sleep

3 s’s (snoring, sleepiness, significant other)

Obesity (#1), male, large tonsils, postmenopausal, older

Weight loss, no alcohol, CPAP, surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Atelectasis is the

CMs

Prevention

A

Closure or collapse of alveoli (nonobstructive and obstructive)

Increasing dyspnea, cough with sputum, decreased breath sounds and crackles

Frequent turning, early mobilization, manage secretions, IS use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pneumonia is ____ caused by ____

Risk factors are

A

Infection/inflammation of the lung caused by various microorganisms

65+, hospitalized (esp. on vent), immobility, chronic diseases (asthma, COPD, heart failure, DM), smoking, immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Aspiration risk factors

CMs

A

Seizure activity, TBI/stroke, - LOC, flat positioning, swallowing disorders, cardiac arrest

Coughing/clearing throat after eating/drinking, painful swallowing, wheezing/trouble breathing, voice change or ‘wet’ sound after eating/drinking, chest discomfort/heartburn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

TB is caused by

Risk factors

CMs

A

M. tuberculosis (airborne transmission)

Close contact w/ someone who has TB, immunocompromised, substance abuse, inadequate healthcare, immigration/travel, institutionalized

Insidious (comes on slowly with no symptoms), low fever, cough, night sweats, fatigue, weight loss, hemoptysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do you treat TB?

A

Anti TB agents for 6-12 months
Top 4 meds (Isoniazid, Rifampin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol)
Monitor liver enzymes, BUN, creatinine, a sputum culture (every 2-4 weeks) drug induced liver injury is common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

COPD is a ____ which includes ____

Risk factors are

CMs

A

Preventable and treatable slowly progressive resp. disease of airflow obstruction; chronic bronchitis and emphysema

Smoking (accounts for 80-90%), older, occupational exposure, etc.

Chronic cough, sputum, dyspnea, weight loss, barrel chest (BLUE BLOATER)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you treat COPD?

A
Bronchodilator inhaled meds
Corticosteroids
Pulmonary rehab
Oxygen therapy for severe
Surgical management (end stage); bullectomy, lung volume reduction, lung transplant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Status asthmaticus is a

Nursing management

A

Rapid onset, severe, and persistent asthma attack that DOES NOT respond to conventional therapy

High fowlers
Meds - inhaled/nebulizers
IV fluids for dehydration
Education

23
Q

RA s/s

A

Joint pain/tenderness/swelling (often in AM, gets better with movement
More than one joint affected
Small joints first
Low grade fevers

24
Q

RA systemic effects

A

Heart, lungs, vascular, blood, eyes, mouth, skin

  • Damages myocardium
  • Scars lungs from inflammation, decreased lung capacity, SOB
  • Decreased RBCs
  • Dry eyes, sensitivity to light, dry mouth
25
Q

RA treatment

A
DMARDs
NSAIDs
Corticosteroids
Exercise - ROM, strengthen muscles, exercise when they have most energy
Joint replacement
Anti-inflamm. diet
26
Q

Fibromyalgia is

treatment

A

Widespread musculoskeletal pain and amplified painful sensations

Pain meds
Antidepressants 
Muscle relaxers
Sleep aids
Anti-inflamm diet
Low impact exercises
27
Q

SLE (lupus) s/s

A

Fatigue
Painful/swollen joints
Skin rash - butterfly
Fevers

28
Q

SLE (lupus) potential serious complications

A

Atherosclerosis
Cardiovascular
Renal failure
CNS - seizure or stroke

29
Q

SLE (lupus) treatment

A
NSAIDs, corticosteroids, cholesterol meds, CV meds
Manage potential infection
Prevent organ damage
Reduce swelling/pain
AVOID alfalfa, stress, sun
30
Q

Gout s/s

A
Affected joint
- Acute pain
- Swelling 
- Redness
- Warmth
Can be recurrent
31
Q

Gout treatment

A
Allopurinol and NSAIDs
Rest joint
Ice
Drink water
Low purine diet
Vit C, coffee, and cherries might help
32
Q

S/S of all anemias

Iron def.
Folic acid
Vit B12
Renal disease
Sickle cell
Blood loss
A

Iron def. - Fatigue, smooth/red/sore tongue
Folic acid - pale mucous membranes, fatigue
Vit B12 - Smooth/red/sore tongue, paresthesia lower extremities, fatigue
Renal disease - fatigue, decreased cognitive, concentration
Sickle cell - jaundice, tachy, PAIN
Blood loss - tachy, hypotension, dizziness

33
Q

Absence of intrinsic factor =

A

Pernicious anemia

34
Q

Epoetin alpha is for

A

Renal disease

35
Q

*EEG records

Beforehand, pt should not have

A

Electrical activity of brain, stages of coma, seizure testing

Anticonvulsants, sedatives, stimulants, caffeine, chocolate

36
Q

*Lumbar puncture is where a

AE

A

Needle is placed subarachnoid space

Post lumbar puncture HA (#1) - have them lay flat!

37
Q

*Glasgow Coma Scale

A

Good = 15
Bad = - 3
Eye opening, Verbal, Motor

38
Q

Status epilepticus is

A

Acute prolonged seizure activity

39
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia is

Risk factors are

A

A condition that affects the trigeminal nerve in the face and causes very sudden unilateral shooting, stabbing, burning pain to face which ends abruptly

Older, women, with MS

40
Q

Bells Palsy is

A

Facial paralysis caused by unilateral inflammation of the 7th cranial nerve

Once you’ve had it you won’t likely have it again

41
Q

*Peripheral neuropathy is

It usually begins in

Characterized by

A

Disorder affecting the peripheral motor and sensory nerves
The feet and hands

BILATERAL and symmetric disturbance of function

42
Q

The main cause of peripheral neuropathy is

A

Uncontrolled DM

43
Q

*Parkinson’s is a ____ associated with ____

CMs

A

Slowly progressing neurological disorder; decreased levels of dopamine

TRAP (Tremors, Rigidity, Akinesia, Postural instability)

44
Q

Nursing interventions for Parkinson’s

A
Be patient
Encourage fluid and fiber as they may have constipation
Improve nutrition (may have PEG)
45
Q

*Glaucoma is

CMs

A

Intraocular pressure that leads to vision loss

Unaware they have it
Occurs in BOTH eyes
Blurred vision or halos 
Loss of peripheral vision
Aching/discomfort around both eyes (Pressure!)
46
Q

*Cataracts is

CMs

Treatment

A

Cloudy vision

Painless
Blurry vision
Need to “clean glasses”

Most often surgery, easy with few comps

47
Q

*When should cataracts pt call doctor?

A

If they notice a lot of new floaters in their vision, flashing lights, decrease in vision, and pain (indicates retinal detachment!)

48
Q

Retinal detachment is

*Risk factor

Nursing considerations

A

An emergent situation

Having cataracts surgery!!

Pt has to lay face down
Can cause glaucoma (pressure)

49
Q

*Diabetic retinopathy is where

Can cause

A

Blood vessels in retina are damaged by diabetic disease process

Vision loss and blindness

50
Q

Hypertensive retinopathy is where

Can cause

A

Long standing hypertension can damage blood vessels

Blurred vision and vision loss

51
Q

Acute otitis media occurs

Causes

A

Usually in just one ear

Conductive hearing loss

52
Q

*Meniere diseases is a

CMs

Treatment

A

Disorder of the inner ear that can cause vertigo

Episodic vertigo
Tinnitus
Fluctuating hearing loss

Low sodium
Pharm
Surgery - ONLY FIXES VERTIGO, the rest will remain

53
Q

Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo is

Treatment

A

A random bout of vertigo caused by crystals in the ear
NO HEARING LOSS

PT- whippy maneuver
Bedrest