Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a secondary messenger?

A

Intracellular signaling molecule dependent on a perceived signal on the outside of the cell which must be communicated to the cell machinery the manner in which this signal transduction occurs is through the use of secondary messengers.

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2
Q

What is (p)ppGpp?

A

It is a guanosine diphosphate. 3’ is always a diphosphate and the 5’end can be either a di or triphosphate.

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3
Q

What is the stringent response?

A

Upon nutrient starvation, the cell downregulates RNA and protein production, simultaneously the cell begins synthesizing (p)ppGpp which promotes A.A. biosynthesis after this, the cell resumes growth but at a lower rate of division.

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4
Q

What were the magic spots?

A

The scientists starved cells and then saw spots which were later identified as the (p)ppGpp which is involved in the response to nutrient starvation.

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5
Q

What are the two proteins involved in the stringent response, how do they work and what are their roles in the transduction of the stringent response?

A

There is SpoT and RelA.
SpoT is a bifunctional enzyme, meaning it can do two things. It can synthesize ppGpp or it can degrade ppGpp via a synthase and hydrolase domain respectively. The signal is first given to RelA. Normally charged tRNAs bind the A site of the ribosome during protein synthesis, in the absence of a A.A. pool the proportion of uncharged tRNAs increases and these get loaded into the A site on the ribosome instead of the charged tRNAs. This results in the binding of RelA to the ribosome and is the signal to SpoT to begin ppGpp synthesis. This signals the biosynthesis of amino acids. When the A.A. pool becomes available ppGpp is then degraded by the hydrolase domain of the SpoT and presumably RelA, dissociates from the A site and charged amino acids are once again LOADED.

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6
Q

What is the RHS superfamily?

A

They are a superfamily of proteins which are homologs of RelA and SpoT which are found in all sequenced plants and bacteria. Ie, the stringent response is found in a variety of orgnaisms. The N terminal domain has the catalytic, hydrolase and synthase activity. The C-terminal domain has the TGS which binds uncharged ACP which shifts balance of hydrolase or synthase activity. It also has the ACT which is involved in ribosomal interactions.

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7
Q

What level of regulation is achieved with the RelA and SpoT stringent response?

A

The metabolism is regulated at the global level. In general, synthesis of the cell wall, DNA replication and protein synthesis will be down regulated and alternative sigma factors along with a.a. biosynthesis will be upregulated.

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8
Q

What is a cyclic nucleotide and what is an example of this category of secondary messenger?

A

This is a single phosphate nucleotide with a cyclic bond arrangement between the sugar and phosphate, that is the phosphate and sugar together make a cyclic portion. An example is cAMP.

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9
Q

What is catabolite repression?

A

This is a regulatory mechanism which determines which carbon source will be broken down for energy. The classical example is lactose vs glucose the cell will use glucose until its depleted and then switch to lactose, the mechanism governing this is cAMP.

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10
Q

Roles of c-di-AMP

A

It was discovered in 2010 so not completely characterized. Can play roles in sporulation, cell cycle checkpoints and in tetracycline resistance. It is also important in human pathogens and may be a good target. Disrupting these genes killed the cells and they could only be rescued by ectopic expression (very low levels of transcription)

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11
Q

Roles of c-di-GMP

A

Motility via flagella production/control, biofilm production and pathogenicity ie the production of cytotoxins/invasion.

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12
Q

How is c-di-GMP levels controlled?

A

Elevated c-di-GMP promotes biofilm lifestyle, made by diguanylate cyclase (DGC) and is degraded by a phosphodiesterase when the levels are depleted, the cells become motile.

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13
Q

what conserved amino acid domains are found on diguanylate cylcases (DGCs) and phosphodiesterases (PDEs)?

A

DGC will have the GGDEF conserved amino acid domain and the PDEs can have one of two conserved a.a. sequences, either EAL which degrades it to pGpG or HD-GYP which degrades it to 2 GMPS

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14
Q

Types of c-di-GMP domains

A

You can have a EZ domain with just one of of the functions so either diguanylate cyclase or the phosphodiesterase domain with either the HD-GYP/EAL (PDE) or the GGDEF (DGC)amino acid conserved sequence. OR you can have a hybrid EZ domain with both c-diGMP synthesis and degradation so both DGC and PDE.

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15
Q

How do the c-di-GMP enzymes both the diguanylate cyclase and the phosphodiesterase sense their respective signal?

A

The DGC or PDE domains of protein activity can be added to different sensing domains much in the same way that polyketide synthesis has modules that can be interchanged to make different structures. In this case the DGC and PDE can be attached to transmembrane domains, PAS domains (oxygen sensing) response regulators (REC) or many others. This is a very cool way for the cell to use these two enzymes and the levels of c-di-GMP to sense different signals and respond to them accordingly.

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16
Q

Describe the PAS domain.

A

It is found in many signal proteins and functions as a signal sensor, they are found in all organisms from animals to bacteria. They detect their signal via a associated cofactor.

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17
Q

Where is the c-di-GMP found?

A

It is nearly universal in bacteria but is not present in higher eukaryotes.

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18
Q

How are DGC regulated at the enzymatic level?

A

they have both an active site and an inhibitory site. To make the c-di-GMP they have to dimerize and undergo a conformational change and then allow the cyclization rxn t occur. At excess levels of c-di-GMP the I site is bound via negative feedback. This can prevent the dimerization or the conformational change from happening meaning that c-di-GMP is not made. The negative allosteric modulator in this case is c-di-GMP. The i site is characterized by a RxxD motif.

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19
Q

What are the conserved amino acid sequences for phosphodiesterases which break apart c-di-GMP?

A

EAL domain which is the glutamic acid, alanine, and leucine. The other is the HD-GYP domain which are not right next to each other the HD (histidine and aspartate) comes first the second is the GYP which is glycine proline tyrosine and proline.

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20
Q

What can c-di-GMP bind and therefore, regulate?

A

The best described binding target is the PilZ domain the EAL and HD-GYP domains also bing c-di-GMP (obviously because they are broken down by phosphodiesterase) it also binds riboswitches with very high affinity necessitating only picomolar ranges of the diGMP. It also binds transcription factors can be responsible for biofilm formation mRNA degradation ect.

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21
Q

How can the c-di-GMP made from a single DGC modulate the activity of a specific target?

A

There are two hypothesis:
A) The cell raises the total pool of c-diGMP in response to an environmental condition.
B) (compartmentalization) An individual DGC modifies the local levels of diGMP. To prevent the cross talk of signals ie to prevent the total pool from increasing you have cytoplasmic phosphodiesterases which can degrade the diGMP which leaks from the local site and is then broken down preventing opposing signals from conflicting with one another (prevents cross talk).

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22
Q

What biochemical principal allows the transduction signal system to work?

A

The different proteins, the DGC and PDE along with their downstream effectors and targets have different Km, Kd, and Ki, allowing for different responses at different concentrations of diGMP based on their affinities and subsequently the concentrations needed to achieve activation and subsequently, signal transduction. That is, different concentrations of c-di-GMP have different effects.

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23
Q

How do alternative sigma factors work?

A

They bind specific promoters and compete with sigma 70. Their ability to bind RNAP and subsequently, the promoter is determined by both the concentration of the sigma and its affinity for the core RNAP.

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24
Q

What are the four groups of sigma factors?

A

1: sigma 70
2: sigma 38 environmental stress response.
3: sigma 28 and sigma 32 –> flagellum biosynthesis and heat shock respectively.
4: ECF or extra cytoplasmic factors

-dont need to know group 2 apparently these aren’t important.

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25
Q

How are sigma factors regulated

A
Antisigma factors --> sequester the sigma factors and remove from functional pool
Covalent mods
localization
rate of transcription/translation
and protein turnover
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26
Q

What does the group two sigma 38 (RpoS) do?

A

Most similar to the sigma classic, is involved in nutrient depletion associated with stationary phase growth. Many genes overlap with sigma70 and again is involved with stress response during stationary phase.

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27
Q

Example of protein turn over regulation

A

Sigma 38/ RpoS when bound by RssB is degraded by proteolysis via ClpXP. This is an example of protein turn over, by having more RssB you can destroy more of this sigma factor limiting the amount of expression of genes under its charge the same is true vis versa by having less of this you can have higher transcription of the stationary response genes.

This is regulated as follows: signal comes in –> stress starvation ect activates Inhibitor of RssB Activity (Ira) proteins which prevent rssB binding the alt sigma preventing mark of death.

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28
Q

Anti-sigma regulation example

A

group 3 sigma 28(sigD) ordinarily the sigma is bound by an anti sigma factor when it senses that a flagellum is being made it dissociates from the sigma factor and is pumped out of the cell the released sigma factor not binds guides the RNAP to the flagellum promoter and synthesis is completed.

1) anti sigma factor: sigma factor complex
2) senses something and dissociates from sigma factor and is pumped out of cell.
3) alt sigma free to bind promoter –> gene transcription and translation.

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29
Q

Role of group four ECF (extra cytoplasmic function) sigma factors

A

They are called extracellular sigma factors as they were first identified as playing a role in periplasmic responses hence the extracytoplasmic. They are the largest group of alt sigma factors.
They are autoregulated by anti-sigma factors autoregulation means that both the gene for the sigma factor and the anti sigma factor are transcribed together.

30
Q

Example of group four alt sigma factor sigma24/RpoE (problem set)

A

Uses both anti-sigma factors and proteolysis to regulate. First a signal comes in the peptide to which the anti sigma factor is bound is cleaved and the sigma factor is released and subsequently so is the sigma factor.

31
Q

Model of group four Iron citrate regulation (problem set)

A

the iron citrate is sensed outside by FecA which interacts with a trans-innermembrane-periplasmic protein FecR. When the iron is sensed it associates with this protein and transmits the signal to the membrane bound anti-sigma factor: sigma factor complex which activates the sigma factor which remains membrane bound and subsequently activates the promoter to bring the solute into the cell.

32
Q

Give an example of repression in gene regulation. And describe how it works.

A

A good example is tryptophan. Here the biosynthetic machinery is made only when tryptophan is present at low concentration or is absent.
How: when tryptophan is present it binds the trp repressor protein and this prevents binding of RNA pol. When tryp is absent nothing binds the repressor, it is released from the gene and it is subsequently transcribed.

33
Q

How is A.A. synthesis regulated by attenuation?

A

The leader sequence of these genes contains the A.A. which the machinery synthesizes. So, when the transcript is being made by RNA pol the ribosomes also bind and begin protein synthesis. If the A.A. is present the ribosome quickly makes the protein and a termination loop is formed kicking RNA pol off and terminates translation. When the tryp is not available, the ribosome pauses for a charged tRNA and sequence 1 and 2 complementarity bind each other allowing RNA pol to continue transcription and a mature mRNA is formed.

34
Q

Describe how the PTS system contributes to catabolite repression.

A

In the PTS system, phosphates are donated to the EIIA protein –> EIIB –> sugar (usually making glucose 6-phosphate) . This means that EIIA is generally unphosphorylated when the PTS sugar is available. But when it is not available, EIIB and more importantly EIIA becomes phosphorylated.

When there is a high concentration of non-phosphorylated EIIA – EIIA binds the lactose permease and glycerol kinase (makes G3P).

When there is high concentration of phosphorylated EIIA (low PTS sugars) –> activated cAMP (Secondary messenger) The generation of the cAMP leads to the activation of lactose processing machinery.

35
Q

Catabolite repression lac operon in presence of lactose.

A

High percentage of P-EIIA –>cAMP production via an adenylate cyclase. Lactose binds LacL repressor releasing form DNA. cAMP binds the CRP (catabolite repressor protein) this binds DNA and recruits RNA pol –>transcription and translation of lac operon.

This in combo with the PTS sys –> basis of catabolite repression.

36
Q

Describe the Cra system – Catabolite repressor/ activatory system

A

The Cra system is needed to induce genes allowing growth on organic acids, and amino acids. It represses genes needed for glycolysis in the absence of sugars, and activates genes required for the CAC, glyoxylate cycle, and gluconeogenesis. When sugars are available, either glucose-6-phosphate or F6P (products of the PTS sys) bind the cra protein preventing transcription of gluconeogenic genes. The opposite is true, in their absence, Cra binds the dna activating gluconeogenic genes.

37
Q

Describe how the CcpA system works – Catabolite control protein A system

A

This is analogous to the CRP system in gram negatives bit occurs in gram positive bacteria. Rather than the EIIA protein it involves the HPr protein which donates the P to EIIA. When glycolytic intermediates are present, this causes the phosphorylation of HPr which associates with CcpA –> repesses catabolite genes.

in absence of glycolytic intermediates HPr is not phosphorylated at a serine residue and the catabolic genes are no longer repressed.

Note there are two P sites. One which donate P to EIIA –> histidine residue and the other which signals to CcpA on a serine residue. they are independent.

38
Q

What is a riboswitch?

A

A riboswitch is a secondary structure of RNA which displays catalytic and regulatory activity. It is primarily involved in the regulation of metabolism and can act at the transcriptional and translational level.

39
Q

Riboswitch structure

A

Has two domains:

1) Aptamer domain which acts as a metabolite sensing structure. I.e. it can bind a ligand.
2) Expression platform which controls gene expression of protein translation.

The binding of a ligand to the aptamer region is what turns the riboswitch on and off.

40
Q

How does a riboswitch prevent translation?

A

In an on state, the secondary structure of the mRNA exposes the shine-delgarno sequence (ie the ribosome binding site on the mRNA) allowing for protein translation.
An off state is adopted when a ligand binds the mRNA which adopts a secondary configuration which hides the ribosome binding site disallowing protein translation.

41
Q

How does the riboswitch prevent transcription?

A

In an on state, no ligand binds and an antitermination loop forms allowing RNA pol to transcribe the entire operon into mRNA.
In an off state a ligand binds forming a termination loop disallowing RNA pol to transcribe the whole operon resulting in a truncated and nonfunctional mRNA transcript.
It is important to note that one ligand can both activate genes and repress genes concurrently. In c. diff for example the binding of c-di-GMP will bind and turn on the riboswitches for adherence and will also bind and turn off the riboswitch for flagella biosynthesis.

42
Q

What is a toxic -antitoxin system and what does it do

A

It basically says it in the name. Most bacteria possess such a system as the toxin is able to stifle bacterial growth, presumably of its neighbors and competitors.
Generally there is a stable toxin (T) and a (this is important) degradation prone antitoxin. That is a toxin which degrades easily. The antitoxin inactivates the toxin and regulates its production.

43
Q

Describe post segregational killing

A

This is the first way that TA systems were described. A mother cell has a plasmid which had both the toxin and antitoxin and each are expressed. When cell division occurs, a daughter cell does not inherit a copy of the plasmid, but it does inherit some of the toxin and antitoxin. However, the toxin is much more stable than the antitoxin and as a result, over time the antitoxin is degraded and the toxin becomes activated and eventually kills the daughter cell.

44
Q

What are ways that toxin antitoxin systems work? (how does the antitoxin work)

A

1) Both the T and A are transcribed into mRNA with complementary sequences. As a result, the antitoxin mRNA binds to the toxin mRNA making a dsmRNA which cannot be translated.
2) The toxin is translated into protein and the antitoxin is transcribed to mRNA which then binds the toxin protein active site preventing binding and therefore activity.
3) protein-protein inhibition
4) antitoxin competition for the target
5) the antitoxin is an RNase which degrades the toxin mRNA which is a pretty cool function.

45
Q

What is the advantage of a TA system for bacteria?

A

Well these are all really ways for the bacterial cell to commit suicide given an environmental signal. Under stress conditions, antitoxins are degraded resulting in cell suicide. This is useful in rapid growth when growth needs to be arrested. This suicide of some of the bacteria allows the population as a whole to survive.
A subpopulation will then become persister cells which are resistant to the environment, via antibiotic resistance and essential dormancy.

46
Q

What are the secretion systems involved in the assembly of the flagella?

A

There are SEC transported proteins and there are type three secreted proteins. Remember TSIII are very similar to the flagella secretion system. Where unfolded proteins are secreted from the cytoplasm out to either the extracellular milleu or into other cells like eukaryotic cells. That means that the proteins that self assemble into the flagella do so by traversing a central pore, they are secreted they fold, and then are assembled into the flagella.

The basal body is made using the SEC mediated transport and comprises the inner to outermembrane junction. And the hook and filament are assembled using TSIII system as described above.

47
Q

How long does it take to assemble the mature flagella and what does this indicate?

A

It takes around an hour to form, remember the optimal generation time of e coli is 30 min. So it takes a long time and therefore, also requires a large energy expenditure to produce.

48
Q

Where does the energy come from to assemble the flagella and drive its rotation?

A

Like the TSIII ATPases are present along with protein chaperones. But this alone is not enough to drive the formation of the massive structure, it works in conjunction with PMF which drives assemble as well as rotation.

49
Q

How is flagella assembly regulated

A

Three classes of genes working successively
Class I : master regulators makes transcription factors recruits sigma 70 to make hook and basal body.
Class II : Sigma 28 is made and turns on class three genes
Class III operons: which make the filament and the chemotaxis system.

50
Q

How is flagellar assembly and regulation coupled

A

Once the hook and basal body are made the type III chaperones are secreted via secretion system outside the cell and the anti sigma factor bound to sigma 28 is also released outside the cell leading to the activation os sigma 28 which leads to the activation of class III genes leading to filament assembly. These same chaperones also act as negative feedback inhibitors of class I and II genes leading to the stopping of flagellar assemble. It’s all quite elegant really

51
Q

What are the two directions that the flagella can spin and what causes this and what does it do in terms of the bacterial movement.

A

Repellents cause clockwise rotation resulting in tumbling and attractants cause counterclockwise rotation resulting in swimming.

52
Q

Describe the structure of a chemoreceptor and describe how it works

A

Chemoreceptors are dimeric and communicate to a downstream two component system. The chemoreceptor has two regions.
1) the periplasmic domain which is extends into the periplasm of gram negatives and which receives the signal via the binding of a ligand.
2) the methylation domain found on the cytosolic side. It usually has 4-5 methylation sites ie glutamate residues.
-High levels of methylation promotes tumbling (clockwise rotation)
- and low levels of methylation promotes swimming (counter-clockwise rotation).
The third region on the bottom cytosolic part interact with the two component system resulting in signal transduction to the flagella.

53
Q

Describe how signal transduction works in a chemoreceptor under low levels of attractant and describe conditions in high levels of attractant –> desensitization

A

Low levels of attractant = high levels of methylation leading to the autophosphorylation of CheA which then phosphorylates CheY which interacts with the motor resulting in tumbline (CW rotation). This can be quickly altered via CheZ which dephosphorylates CheY resulting in deassociation and CCW rotation ie swimming.

In high levels of attractant, CheA also phosphorylates CheB which takes methyl groups off the MCPs (methyl-accepting chemotaxis protein) resulting in inactive CheA and therefore, no interaction of CheY with the motor which results in swimming for longer periods of time.

54
Q

How are chemoreceptor patches and flagella arranged in the cell.

A

They are usually separated with the patches on one side of the cell and the flagella on another. Meaning that the P-cheY has to travel to the flagella to promote tumbling when it binds the switch in the motor.

55
Q

What is quorum sensing?

A

QS is the regulation of gene expression based on the concentration of an autoinducer which is dependent on cell population as well as the local environment of that cell population.
I.e at low cell density there are low levels of the autoinducer and at high concentration there is generally more of the autoinducer expressed leading to an induction of gene expression.

56
Q

What is a LuxR/LuxI system

A

It is the means by which quorum sensing occurs. The R is for receptor, and the I is the synthase that makes the molecule of communication.

57
Q

How is is an acyl homoserine lactone molecule made? AHL

A

AI synthase (the I in LuxI) makes a lactone from adenosyl methionine and then adds an acyl group donated by a charged acyl ACP. In these molecules it is the acyl chain that determines the specificity but all molecules have a conserved homoserine lactone component

58
Q

How does quorum sensing work?

A

These are LuxR/LuxI systems. There is always a basal amount of the receptor and the synthase. But there is a positive feedback. The synthase makes AHL which then diffuses out of the cell to go to other cells or comes back into the mother cell and binds the receptor. This causes a dimerization and subsequent binding of the promoter of the synthase gene generating more AHL synthases which then leads to an amplification of the signal. Note that when this promoter binding and subsequent transcription occurs it occurs not at a single gene, but at a regulon.

59
Q

What is thought to be the purpose of orphan receptors/ what is an orphan receptor?

A

An orphan receptor is a receptor with no accompanying synthase. They have a broader ability to bind a range of signaling molecules and thus, it is thought that this is a means by which the detection of other bacterial species by the one with the orphan receptor can occur. Because the orphan receptor wielding bacteria does not make the binding molecule and can thus sense bacteria that do make and secrete such molecules.

60
Q

What is AI-2

A

AI-2 is deemed the universal signaling molecule and is also made using adenosyl methionine like AI-I or AHL synthase. Few receptors for it have been found and its structure was elucidated via molecule:receptor complex x-ray crystallography.

61
Q

How does quorum sensing occur in gram positive bacteria?

A

The immature signaling molecule is made and processed via a protease either in the cell or once it has been exported. Once mature it gets in via a TCS or via diffusion. of active transport. It can then cause the regulation of genes/ amplification of the signal.

62
Q

Quorum quenching and agonists/antagonists

A

Bacteria figured out how to degrade signaling molecules, fucking duh. Acylase and lactonase in AHL. And then plants can make signal molecules to induce bacteria to fix nitrogen or to interfere with the signaling molecules presumably as a form of self protection ie resistance.

63
Q

What does fosfomycin do

A

inhibs cytoplasmic PPG parks nucleotide synthesis by permanently binding the cysteine in MurA.

64
Q

What does D-cycloserine do?

A

Inhibs alanine racemase by competition but can be overcome by high concentration of alanine.

65
Q

What does bacitracin do?

A

It inhibs the recycling of lipid two which means that PPG can not be flipped and transpeptidation cannot occur. It does so by forming a complex with UDP which has that 50 carbon lipid tail.

66
Q

what antibiotics block transpeptidation?

A

Vancomycin and teichoplanin by forming complexes with D-ala-D-ala

67
Q

How do macrolides work and what is their general structure?

A

They plug the exit of proteins making a truncated dashes of peptide. They are generated via polyketide synthesis.

68
Q

what are tetracyclines and what do they do

A

They are four rings of 6 carbons, they preventing the binding of charged t-RNAs

69
Q

Aminoglycosides structure and mech of action

A

They are sugars with amides attached and it prevents the peptide forming in peptide synthesis.

70
Q

Quinolone mech of action

A

binds dna gyrase

71
Q

Rifamycins do what

A

Block RNA synthesis have the handle binds an allosteric site leading to inhib