Exam 2: Topic 5 P1 Flashcards

1
Q

What 3 things define a neurotransmitter?

A
  1. location
  2. regulation
  3. function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the location of a neurotransmitter?

A

in synaptic vesicles at the axon terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the regulation of a neurotransmitter?

A

release is regulated by an action potential
- Minis are not an efficient means of communication for this ⇒ synchronized release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the function of a neurotransmitter?

A

once released it must bind and activate a postsynaptic receptor
- Ligand gated
- G-protein coupled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does acetylcholine (ACh) do?

A

released by motor neurons at the neuromuscular junction and gives rise to mEPP’s as well as EPP when there is an AP ⇒ present in the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which neurotransmitters are amino acids? (3)

A
  1. glutamate
  2. GABA
  3. glycine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does glutamate do?

A

primary excitatory NT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does GABA do? where is it mostly located?

A

inhibitory ⇒ NT and receptors are mostly in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does glycine do? where is it mostly located?

A

inhibitory ⇒ NT and receptors are mostly in the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the major categories of biogenic amines? (3)

A
  • Catecholamines
  • Indoleamine
  • Imidazole Amine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which NT’s are catecholamines? (3)

A
  • dopamine
  • norepinephrine
  • epinephrine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which NT is an Indoleamine?

A

serotonin (5-HT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which NT is an Imidazole Amine?

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which molecules are purines? (2)

A
  • ATP
  • adenosine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which neurotransmitters are neuropeptides? (2)

A
  • 3-36 amino acids in length like methionine enkephalin
  • endogenous opioids like endorphins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which NT’s are unconventional? (2)

A
  • endocannabinoids
  • nitric oxide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are small molecule neurotransmitters?

A

anything that isn’t a neuropeptide or unconventional (basically everything else)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the 2 main categories of NTs?

A

small molecule neurotransmitters and neuropeptides
- unconventional is a smaller group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where are small molecule transporters not made in?

A

the cell body
- Enzymes are generated in the cell body transported on the axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how do enzymes affect NT synthesis?

A

When enzymes are locally in the terminal it helps synthesize the NT
- Stored in small vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

where are peptide neurotransmitters processed?

A

in the rough ER or post translational modifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how are peptide neurotransmitters made?

A
  • Made from proteins ⇒ from genes
  • A large protein is made in the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) and then undergoes proteolysis and sometimes other post-translational modification
  • Protein travels through the RER and golgi and is put into large dense core vesicles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

where does proteolytic processing happen for peptide neurotransmitters? (2)

A

both golgi and dense core vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F peptide neurotransmitters are generated in the cell body and reduced in size

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T/F peptide neurotransmitters are packaged and transported down the axon

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T/F peptide neurotransmitters are not modified during transport?

A

False
- Modified during transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

where are peptide neurotransmitters stored?

A

dense core vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

cotransmitters

A

multiple types of NT in the same vesicles
- the presynaptic cell must release a vesicle in response to a stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T/F you can preferentially/differentially release one type of synaptic vesicle depending on the input signal coming into the cell?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how does low frequency stimulate affect release of small molecule NTs?

A

it activates calcium gated channels but only some comes in due to the low frequency ⇒ or opening infrequently (grey cloud area)
- The calcium concentration doesn’t diffuse as far in the presynaptic cell
- It binds to synaptotagmin at the local vesicles causing them to fuse and release NT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what effect does low frequency have on small and large vesicles?

A

Small effect on the large dense core vesicles but large effect on clear core vesicles
- leads to release of small molecule NTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how does high frequency stimulate affect release of small molecule NTs?

A

More calcium in and a larger response from the vesicles in the terminal
- This responds differently than before because they release clear core and the dense vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how does low or high stimulate affect postsynaptic response?

A

this modulates the output of the presynaptic cell to affect the post synaptic response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F there is no pathway to generate the gas nitric oxide

A

False
- there is a pathway via arginine and NO synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what activity does NO affect?

A

presynaptic cell guanylyl cyclase to turn GTP to cGMPaffecting protein kinases
- Also passes through the plasma membrane of the cell into the synaptic cleft and then pass into neighboring cells ⇒ not necessarily those in the synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Ionotropic

A

ligand gated receptors ⇒ once the ligand is bound at the sites it opens the chanel and ions can go through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Metabotropic

A

-protein coupled receptor ⇒ doesn’t directly open or close channels but indirectly opens/closes channels by releasing the alpha subunit which binds to other proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

where does the ligand bind on the G protein coupled receptor?

A

the extracellular area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what does the GPCR protein interact with?

A

with the G protein (alpha, beta, gamma) structure at the bottom
- Part of the G protein dissociates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what does the G protein do when it dissociates? (2 possible)

A
  1. Directly open or close the channel to allow ions through
  2. Uses an effector protein (cyclases) which also effect channels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the difference in speed between ionotropic and metabotropic?

A
  • Ionotropic are fast and short term ⇒ on or off depending on binding
  • Metabotropic are slower and long term ⇒ biochemical cascade leads to amplification of the signal (effect on the effector protein)
42
Q

what types of subunits do ligand gated ionotropic receptors have?

A

hetero-tetramers or pentamers

43
Q

T/F there are no ionotrophic channel receptors for dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine, histamine?

44
Q

what are the 8 categories of ligand gated receptors?

A
  • nACh
  • AMPA
  • NMDA
  • Kainate
  • GABA
  • Glycine
  • Serotonin
  • Purines
45
Q

what types of molecules do purine ligand gated receptors respond to?

A

Adenosine and ATP

46
Q

why makes the general structures of ligand gated receptors? (4)

A
  • ligand binding domain
  • amino terminal domin
  • transmembrane domain
  • carboxyterminal domain
47
Q

ligand binding domain

A

attached to the transmembrane domain and amino terminal domain on the other side where ligand binds to the receptor on the extracellular side

48
Q

amino terminal domain

A

the most extracellular side where it helps guide and put the receptor in the plasma membrane itself

49
Q

transmembrane domain

A

alpha helices to anchor the protein

50
Q

carboxyterminal domain

A

region where if you want to modulate activity you can do it here intracellularly

51
Q

what are the categories of metabotropic G protein coupled receptors? (8)

A
  • muscarinic
  • glutamate
  • GABA-B
  • dopamine
  • adrenergic
  • histamine
  • serotonin
  • purines
52
Q

how many sub-parts do pentamers have? hetero-tetramers?

53
Q

what is the general architecture of GPCRs? (3)

A
  • monomeric G protein extracellular side where the ligand binds
  • monomeric G protein transmembrane units
  • cytoplasmic G-protein side where the G protein binding site is
54
Q

how many transmembrane regions do GPCRs have?

55
Q

in what ways do GPCRs function? (3)

A
  • Monomers ⇒ mAChR, D1R
  • Homodimers ⇒ mGluR
  • Heterodimers ⇒ GABA-B
56
Q

Trimeric G protein

A

3 subunits that interact
- These are NOT part of the receptor
- The receptor needs to work through this structure

57
Q

T/F the trimeric G protein is encoded by the same genes as the GPCR?

A

False
- They are encoded by separate genes

58
Q

what is the generic life cycle of a NT? (6)

A
  • Synthesis ⇒ somehow the neurotransmitter is synthesized
  • Packaged into SV with a transporter
  • SV releases
  • Diffuses through the synaptic cleft
  • NT receptor binding
  • NT comes off the receptor
59
Q

what 2 things can happen when the NT comes off the receptor?

A
  • Degraded: the transmitter is enzymatically degraded
  • Re-uptake: taken back up by glial cells or by the neuron that released it
60
Q

what synthesizes acetylcholine?

A

glucose is converted to acetyl coenzyme A combined with choline through choline acetyltransferase (ChAT) enzyme

61
Q

what packages acetylcholine?

A

vesicular acetylcholine transporter (VAChT)
- then released

62
Q

what degrades acetylcholine?

A

acetylcholinesterase (AChE) enzyme in the synaptic cleft which degrades it back to acetate and choline

63
Q

what is responsible for reuptake of acetylcholine?

A

choline transporter (ChT) ⇒ second source used to generate choline

64
Q

what are the receptors for acetylcholine?

65
Q

what do nACh channels let pass through?

A

Na+ and K+ ions

66
Q

how many subunits do nACh have?

A

Heteropentamer ⇒ 5 subunits but have to have 2 alpha units

67
Q

how many acetylcholine molecules must bind to an nACh receptor?

68
Q

agonists for acetylcholine

A

acetylcholine endogenous, nicotine

69
Q

antagonists for acetylcholine

A

mecamylamine binds to the receptor but blocks the receptor

70
Q

agonists

A

chemical that activates a receptor to produce a biological response

71
Q

antagonists

A

molecule that binds to a target and prevents other molecules (e.g., agonists) from binding

72
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

muscle weakness, nystagmus (uncontrolled movement of the eye) and drooping eyelid
- Reduced amplitude of muscle APs
- Reduced number of mEPPs
- Autoimmune reaction reduces number of nAChR’s

73
Q

what can you treat myasthenia graves with?

A

acetylcholinesterase inhibitors ⇒ neostigmine (degrades acetylcholine)

74
Q

what is different when you stimulate motor neuron axons for non myasthenia gravis patients?

A

you get end plate potentials that are the same amplitude and follow the stimulation
- If you do this for someone who has this disease, there is a reduction in the amplitude of the action potential which gets weaker as stimulation increase

75
Q

what is the biological problem with myasthenia gravis?

A

there is a problem with signaling but doesn’t suggest there is a problem with the NT release
- If you block the degradation you strengthen the muscle response => there is more in the synaptic cleft for a longer time which recovers the function
- Due to an autoimmune disorder where antibodies bind to the postsynaptic nicotinic receptor, block it from functioning, and destroy the receptors
- Fewer functional receptors which leaves a weaker response from an AP in the neuromotor axon

76
Q

Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors (mAChR) agonists and antagonists

A
  • Agonists: acetylcholine (endogenous), muscarine (mushroom toxin)
  • Antagonists: atropine, scopolamin
77
Q

what does the vagus nerve release and what does it bind to?

A

releases ACh and binds to M2 AChR on the heart
- when vagus is stimulated, there is a reduction in amplitude and contraction of the heart
- This is G-protein coupled receptor because there is a long term modulation change in the postsynaptic cells

78
Q

what is the glutamate synthesis process?

A

glutamine is synthesized to glutamate by glutaminase enzyme

79
Q

what is the packaging for glutamate?

A

vesicular glutamate transport (VGluT)

80
Q

how does glutamate reuptake work?

A
  • directly by Excitatory amino acid transporter (EAAT)
  • indirectly to glia by glutamine synthetase
81
Q

how is glutamate transported out of glia?

A

system N transporter 1 (SN1)

82
Q

how is glutamate transported into the neuron?

A

System A transporter 2 (SAT2)

83
Q

T/F glutamate transporter can be metabotropic or ionotropic?

84
Q

is glutamate degraded?

A

Glutamate is not degraded just recycled

85
Q

what are the 3 glutamate receptors?

A

ionotropic non selective channels
- AMPA
- Kainate
- NMDA

86
Q

what ions do ligand gated glutamate receptors let in?

A

Na+, K+, maybe Ca2+

87
Q

AMPA

A

GluA receptor subunits
- Ca2+ permeability depends on subunits

88
Q

Kainate

A

GluK and sometimes GluA subunits

89
Q

NMDA

A

GluN receptor subunits
- Permeable to Na+ and Ca2+
- Binds Mg2+ at hyperpolarized potentials which blocks until depolarization

90
Q

what does NMDA require?

A

co-agonists Glycine or D-serine

91
Q

what is different about NMDA AP graphs??

A

Longer and slower than AMPA and Kainate
- Only function when several properties of the cell happen at the same time

92
Q

what are the kinetics like for each glutamate receptor?

A
  • AMPA current is larger and kinetics are faster ⇒ open, ions flow fast and closes quickly (highest peak)
  • NMDA stays open longer so there is more current over a longer time course (higher than kainate but lower than AMPA)
  • Kainate is quick to open like AMPA and peaks at a lower current and doesn’t close quite as quickly (more like an NMDA receptor)
93
Q

how many subunits does AMPA have?

A

heterotetramer so 4

93
Q

what is the structure of the AMPA receptor? (4)

A

3 domains on each of the subunits (LBD, transmembrane, ATD) => when glutamate binds then the channel opens ⇒ when not bound then ions don’t go through
- Ligand binding domain
- Cytoplasmic and extracellular domain
- Plasma membrane
- Amino terminal domain

94
Q

when is AMPA permeable to Ca2+? (2)

A
  1. The GluA2R is converted to GluA2Q
  2. There is no GluA2 unit
95
Q

what codons are needed for permeability in the AMPA receptor?

A

GluA2R unit is impermeable to calcium and arginine replaces the glutamine via RNA editing

96
Q

what enzyme converts GluA2Q to GluA2R?

A

ADAR2 enzyme converts a codon for glutamine (Gln; Q) to arginine (Arg; R)
- R is impermeable while normal Q is permeable

97
Q

what do most AMPA receptors in the brain have?

A

edited GluA2R restricting CA2+

98
Q

what are the properties of the NMDA receptor? (5)

A
  • GluN2 subunits bind glutamate
  • GluN1-3 subunits bind glycinate/d-serine
  • Permeable to Ca2+
  • Binds Mg 2+ at hyperpolarized potentials
  • Required glycine (SC) or D-serine (brain) co-agonist for efficient gating
99
Q

how may subunits does NMDA have?

A

heterotetramer so 4

100
Q

what ions go through the NMDA channel?

A

Sodium, potassium, and calcium comes through the channel

101
Q

end card