Exam 2 Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is objective culture?

A

The artifacts and institutions created by a group of people (art, architecture, literature, dance, holidays, collective history).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is subjective culture?

A

Patterns of difference (values, beliefs) and behavior learned from one’s group that guide individual and group activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is diversity?

A

The mix of differences that may make a difference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is inclusion?

A

The mix feeling valued and engaged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does denial mean?

A

Missing difference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does polarization mean?

A

Judging difference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does minimization mean?

A

De-emphasizing difference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does acceptance mean?

A

Deeply comprehending difference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does adaptation mean?

A

Bridging across difference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the four intercultural competencies?

A
  1. Increasing cultural and personal self-awareness through reflecting on our own experiences
  2. Increasing awareness of others within their own cultural and personal contexts
  3. Learning to manage emotions and thoughts in the face of ambiguity, change, and challenging circumstances/people
  4. Learning to shift frames, attune emotions and adapt behavior to other cultural contexts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the ways in which we see cultural difference?

A
  • Nonverbal communication
  • Communication style
  • Conflict style preference
  • Learning style preference
  • Cultural value dimensions
  • Cognitive style
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the Thomas-Kilma Conflict model demonstrate?

A

Responses to conflict based on continua of assertiveness and cooperativeness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the five Thomas-Kilman Conflict Modes.

A
  • Collaborating: highly assertive and highly cooperative
  • Accommodating: unassertive and highly cooperative
  • Compromising: medially assertive and cooperative
  • Competing: highly assertive and uncooperative
  • Avoiding: unassertive and uncooperative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the “turn-taking” communication style like?

A

Detached, fast-paced, listen for period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the “pausing” communication style like?

A

Reflective, slower paced, need complete information before considering a reply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the “overlapping” communication style like?

A

Attached, faster paced, does not wait for the period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some complications of elevated weight?

A
  • Diabetes
  • Dyslipidemia
  • Hypertension
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Cardiovascular disease
  • Respiratory problems
  • Some cancers (endometrial, prostate, and colon)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some complications of high blood pressure?

A
  • Increased cardiovascular risk
  • Disability
  • Death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a normal newborn pulse?

A

70-170 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a normal pulse for children 1-6 years?

A

75-160 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a normal pulse for children 6-12 years?

A

80-120 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a normal adult pulse?

A

60-100 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a normal elderly pulse?

A

60-100 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the normal pulse for a conditioned athlete?

A

50-100 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a normal respiratory rate for newborn-6 month old babies?

A

30-60 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a normal respiratory rate for 6-12 month old babies?

A

24-30 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a normal respiratory rate for children 1-5 years old?

A

20-30 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a normal respiratory rate for children 6 years old-adult?

A

12-20 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a normal respiratory rate for the elderly?

A

12-20 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a normal blood pressure?

A

<120 and <80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is an elevated blood pressure?

A

120-129 and <80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the blood pressure for Stage 1 hypertension?

A

130-139 or 80-89

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the blood pressure for Stage 2 hypertension?

A

≥ 140 or ≥ 90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Korotkoff Sound I?

A

Faint and clear tapping (systolic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Korotkoff Sound II?

A

Swooshing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is Korotkoff Sound III?

A

More intense, crisp tapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is Korotkoff Sound IV?

A

Muffled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Korotkoff Sound V?

A

Sound stops (diastolic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the three most common types of primary headaches?

A

Cluster, migraine, and tension headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the characteristics of a tension headache?

A
  • Band-like
  • Bilateral
  • Dull
  • Gradual
  • 30 minutes - 7 days
  • Sensitivity to light and sound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the characteristics of a migraine headache?

A
  • Temple
  • Unilateral
  • Throbbing/pulsating pain
  • Sudden with occasional warning signs
  • 2 - 72 hours
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Sensitivity to light, sound, and movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the characteristics of a cluster headache?

A
  • Around/behind eyes
  • Unilateral
  • Constant, sharp/severe pain
  • Sudden
  • 15 minutes - 3 hours, may last up to 2 weeks - 3 months
  • Tearing/red eyes
  • Runny nose
  • Flushing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a migraine aura?

A

Neurologic symptoms prior to an attack; visual symptoms (flashing light or blind spot), tingling/numbing of extremities, dysphasia/aphasia, weakness, or hemiparesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the three main types of conjunctivitis?

A

Viral, bacterial, and allergic conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What causes viral conjunctivitis?

A

Sore throat/cold (Adenovirus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the symptoms of viral conjunctivitis?

A
  • Pink/red eye
  • Watery discharge
  • Blurred vision
  • Low-grade fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the duration of viral conjunctivitis?

A

1 - 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the cause of bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

S. aureus, S. epidermis, S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the symptoms of bacterial conjunctivitis?

A
  • Pink/red eyes
  • Purulent discharge (green/yellow)
  • Eye discomfort/pressure
  • Crusted eyelids
  • Eyelid edema
  • Blurred vision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the duration of bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the cause of allergic conjunctivitis?

A

Allergen exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis?

A
  • Pink/red eyes
  • Clear watery discharge (may be stringy and white)
  • Burning/itching
  • Eye discomfort
  • Eyelid edema
  • Usually affects both eyes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What four medications cause conjunctivitis?

A
  • Amiodarone
  • Isotretinoin
  • Bisphosphonates
  • COX-2 inhibitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What causes glaucoma?

A
  • Reduced blood flow
  • Retinal ischemia
  • Increased intraocular pressure
  • Heredity (primary)
  • Disease/trauma/drugs (secondary)
55
Q

What are the symptoms of open angle glaucoma?

A

Don’t occur unless there is severe damage

56
Q

What are the symptoms of closed angle glaucoma?

A
  • Blurred vision
  • Halos with light
  • Ocular pain
  • Headache
  • Nausea/vomiting
57
Q

What causes blepharitis?

A

Bacteria from hands, cosmetics, or contact lenses

58
Q

What are the symptoms of blepharitis?

A

Lump on/near the edge of the eyelid (painful, swollen, pus-filled)

59
Q

What causes dry eyes?

A

Inadequate lubrication from tears

60
Q

What are the symptoms of dry eyes?

A
  • Redness
  • Burning/stinging
  • Blurry vision
61
Q

How do you administer eye drops?

A
  1. Wash hands
  2. Remove cap without touching the dropper lid
  3. Lie down or tilt head back, pull down eyelid with your index finger and hold dropper over eye
  4. Look up (away from tip) and place drop in pocket
  5. Hold eyelid to allow solution to spread
  6. Gently close eyes and apply light pressure to nasolacrimal opening for 15-30 seconds
  7. Wash hands
62
Q

What are the causes of otitis media?

A
  • Bacterial
  • Viral
  • Allergies
  • Irritants (i.e. cigarette smoke)
63
Q

What are the symptoms of acute otitis media?

A
  • Pain
  • Fever
  • Discharge
  • Redness
  • Pulling at ears
  • Irritability
  • Crying
64
Q

What are the symptoms of otitis media with effusion?

A
  • Rhinitis
  • Cough
  • Diarrhea
65
Q

What causes otitis externa?

A
  • Prolonged exposure to moisture
  • Injury
  • Bacterial/fungal growth
66
Q

What are the symptoms of otitis externa?

A
  • Pain
  • Ear discharge
  • Hearing loss
  • Itching
  • Swelling
  • Redness
  • Burning/stinging
  • Fever
67
Q

What are the symptoms of cerumen impaction?

A
  • Earache
  • Fullness in ear
  • Tinnitus
  • Partial hearing loss
  • Itching
68
Q

What are the symptoms of ototoxicity?

A
  • Tinnitis
  • Hearing loss
  • Dizziness
69
Q

What 5 medications cause ototoxicity?

A
  • Quinine
  • Salicylates (aspirin)
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Platinum antineoplastic agents
  • Loop diuretics
70
Q

What causes sinusitis?

A

Bacterial or viral

71
Q

What causes allergic rhinitis?

A

Allergen exposureNext

72
Q

What are the symptoms of viral sinusitis?

A
  • Headache
  • Congestion
  • Low fever
  • Nasal discharge
  • Halitosis
73
Q

What are the symptoms of bacterial sinusitis?

A
  • Worsening congestion
  • Facial pain
  • Thick yellow-green nasal discharge
  • Toothache
  • Fever
  • Halitosis
74
Q

How do you administer a nasal spray?

A
  1. Wash hands
  2. Blow nose gently
  3. Tilt head forward
  4. Breathe out slowly
  5. Insert tip into one nostil and point tip away from septum
  6. Squeeze while breathing in slowly
  7. Repeat in other nostril
  8. Wash hands
75
Q

What causes cold sores?

A

HSV-1

76
Q

What are the symptoms of cold sores?

A
  • Red, painful blisters
  • Oozing/yellow crusting of blister
  • Tingling/itching
77
Q

What causes canker sores?

A
  • Stress
  • Food allergies
  • Hormonal changes
  • Malnutrition
78
Q

What are the symptoms of canker sores?

A
  • Sore with red edge and white center
  • Painful
79
Q

What causes gingivitis?

A

Bacteria leading to plaque accumulation

80
Q

What are the symptoms of gingivitis?

A
  • Red/tender/swollen/bleeding/receding gums
  • Bad breath
81
Q

What causes candidiasis?

A

Candida albicans

82
Q

What are the symptoms of candidiasis?

A
  • Creamy white lesion
  • Cottage cheese
  • Bleeding lesions when scraped
  • Cotton mouth
  • Loss of taste
83
Q

What are the risk factors for candidiasis?

A
  • Weak immune system
  • Dentures
  • Infants
  • Steroids
  • Smoking
  • Dry mouth
84
Q

What are the symptoms of viral pharyngitis?

A
  • Cough
  • Scratchy throat
  • Fever
85
Q

What are the symptoms of bacterial pharyngitis (strep throat)?

A
  • Pain worsened by swallowing/talking
  • Scratchy throat
  • Dry throat
  • Swollen or red glands/tonsils
  • White patches on tonsils
  • Fever
86
Q

How do you treat a tension headache?

A
  • Stress management
  • Caffeine
87
Q

How do you treat a migraine headache?

A
  • Botulism toxin
  • Triptans
88
Q

How do you treat a cluster headache?

A

Oxygen

89
Q

How do you treat viral conjunctivitis?

A
  • Only symptomatically:
    • Lubricants
    • Ocular decongestants (Naphcon-A)
90
Q

How do you treat bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

Antibiotics

91
Q

How do you treat allergic conjunctivitis?

A
  • Topical antihistamines
  • Mast cell stabilizers
  • Anti-inflammatory agents
92
Q

How do you treat dry eyes?

A
  • Lubricants
  • Avoid prolonged viewing of electronic screens
  • Humidifiers
93
Q

How do you treat open angle glaucoma?

A
  • Nonselective beta blockers
  • Prostaglandin analogs
  • Alpha-2 agonists (brimonidine)
  • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
94
Q

How do you treat closed angle glaucoma?

A
  • Pilocarpine
  • Hyperosmotic agents
  • Secretory inhibitors
95
Q

How do you treat blepharitis?

A
  • Warm compress
  • Lubricants
96
Q

How do you treat otitis media?

A
  • Analgesics
  • Antipyretics
  • Local heat
97
Q

How do you treat otitis externa?

A
  • Antibiotics
  • Glucocorticoids
  • Acidifying solutions (aluminum acetate)
  • Warm water/saline
98
Q

How do you treat cerumen impaction?

A
  • Carbamide peroxide (Debrox)
  • Baby oil
  • Glycerin (Neotic)
  • Ear candling
99
Q

How do you treat water-clogged ears?

A
  • Isopropyl alcohol (Swim-EAR)
  • Ear plugs
  • Low heat
100
Q

How do you treat sinusitis?

A

Oral or topical decongestants (Sudafed or Afrin)

101
Q

How do you treat allergic rhinitis?

A
  • Oral or topical antihistamines (cetirizine and azelastine)
  • Oral or topical decongestants (Sudafed and Afrin)
  • Intranasal corticosteroids (fluticasone)
102
Q

How do you treat cold sores?

A

Topical antivirals

103
Q

How do you treat canker sores?

A

Local anesthetics (benzocaine)

104
Q

How do you treat pharyngitis?

A
  • OTC analgesics
  • Throat lozenges (benzocaine)
  • Throat spray (phenol)
  • Cough suppressants (dextromethorphan)
105
Q

What causes tinea infections?

A

Fungi (trichophyton, microsporum, epidermophyton)

106
Q

What are the symptoms of tinea capitis?

A
  • Itching
  • Alopecia
  • Scaling
  • Mild erythema
107
Q

What are the symptoms of tinea unguium?

A

Superficial white/cracked/brittle/thickened nails

108
Q

What are the symptoms of tinea corporus?

A

Red, round lesion

109
Q

What are the symptoms of tinea cruris?

A

Itching, red lesion in groin

110
Q

How do you treat tinea capitis?

A

Don’t; refer

111
Q

How do you treat tinea unguium?

A

Avoid nail trauma, refer

112
Q

How do you treat tinea pedis?

A

Aluminum acetate, topical antifungal x 4 weeks

113
Q

How do you treat tinea corporus?

A

Topical antifungal x 4 weeks

114
Q

How do you treat tinea cruris?

A

Topical antifungal x 2 weeks

115
Q

What are the symptoms of candida?

A
  • Red rash with well-defined borders
  • White plaques
  • Cheesy discharge
116
Q

What are the symptoms of impetigo?

A
  • Vesicles/pustules that burst
  • Honey-colored crust
117
Q

What are the symptoms of cellulitis?

A

Expanding red, swollen, tender rash without a clear border

118
Q

How do you treat vulvovaginal candidiasis?

A

Topical antifungal for 3 - 14 days

119
Q

How do you treat impetigo?

A

Self-resolves in 3-4 weeks, treatment requires referral

120
Q

How do you treat cellulitis?

A

Refer

121
Q

What are the symptoms of acne vulgaris?

A

Inflammatory and non-inflammatory lesions on fac enad

122
Q

What are the symptoms of allergic contact dermatitis?

A

Rash limited to the area exposed to the allergen

123
Q

What are the symptoms of irritant contact dermatitis?

A
  • Dry/cracked/inflamed skin
  • Itching
  • Pain
  • Limited to exposed area
124
Q

How do you treat acne vulgaris?

A
  • Avoid skin irritants
  • Use cleanser
  • Benzoyl peroxide 2.5-10%
  • Salicylic acid 0.5-2%
  • Sulfure 3-10%
125
Q

How do you treat allergic contact dermatitis?

A
  • Remove offending agent
  • Hydrocortisone cream
  • Aluminum acetate compress
126
Q

How do you treat irritant contact dermatitis?

A
  • Emollients
  • Colloidal oatmeal bath
127
Q

How do you treat sunburn?

A
  • Cold water rinse
  • Avoid exposure
  • Aloe vera
128
Q

What does basal cell look like?

A

Slow-growing and primarily on nose

129
Q

How do you treat basal cell?

A

Excision, radiation, or topical therapies

130
Q

How do you treat squamous cell?

A

Excision (highly curable)

131
Q

What does squamous cell look like?

A

Medium-growth

132
Q

What does melanoma look like?

A

Malignant

133
Q

How do you treat melanoma?

A

Excision, chemotherapy