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MGT 320 > EXAM 2 Study Guide > Flashcards

EXAM 2 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

set of systematic and planned activities designed by an organization to provide its members with the necessary skills to meet current and future job demands.

A

Human Resource Development

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2
Q

What is the relationship between HRM and HRD

A

HRD is a function within HRM

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3
Q

what are the functions HRD

A

Training and Development
organizational development
career development

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4
Q

what are the reasons behind HRD functions?

A

Changing workforce demographics
competing in global economy
eliminating the skills gap

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5
Q

courses and degree programs

A

Formal Education

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6
Q

job related experiences, e.g., job rotation

A

Experience

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7
Q

reveal an employee’s style of thinking, how he/she interacts with others, and assess potential management/leadership qualities.

A

Employee Assessments and Psychological Assessments

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8
Q

reveal how employees identify, understand and use their emotions and the emotions of others to promote working relationships.

A

Emotional intelligence assessments

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9
Q

According to McKinsey; talent is the sum of:

A 
a persons abilities
his or her intrinsic gifts
skills, knowledge, experience
intelligence
judgement, attitude, character, drive 
his/her ability to learn and grow
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10
Q

describes what type of people the organization will invest in and how it will be done

A

The Talent Strategy

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11
Q

talent strategy should have what 4 directives

A

1) identify key positions in the org
2) identify high performers through employee assessment
3) Retain Key position backups
4) make appropriate investments.

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12
Q

To make appropriate investments:

A

select, train, develop, reward

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13
Q

what are the steps to the management life cycle

A

Recruiting and onboarding —-> continuous learning —–> goal alignment & Performance feedback —> compensation and rewards —–> succession and development —-> Recruiting and onboarding….

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14
Q

the process of introducing new employees to the organization and their jobs

A

new employee orientation

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15
Q

the correction of a deficiency or failure in a process or procedure

A

Remediation

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16
Q

when is training needed?

A

New employment orientation, new job requirements or processes, Remediation, employee development for advancement.

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17
Q

What happens in the need phase?

A

Establishing HRD priorities
define specific training and objectives
establish evaluation criteria

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18
Q

What happens in the design phase ?

A

Selecting who delivers programs
selecting and developing program content
scheduling the training program

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19
Q

What happens in the evaluation phase?

A

determining program effectiveness:

  • keep or change providers?
  • offer it again?
  • what are the true costs
  • can we do it another way?
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20
Q

Reasons training is done incorrectly

A

poor design
wrong employees participate
programs created are unnecessary or incomplete

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21
Q

what are challenges to the training process

A

cost justification
resistance to change/employee insecurity
strategic congruence
scheduling

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22
Q

Ability, self-efficiency, and willingness are all part of:

A

Employee Readiness

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23
Q

do employees possess the requisite educational basics to successfully participate in the training process

A

Ability

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24
Q

do the employees believe they have the capability to do something or attain a particular goal?

A

Self-Efficiency

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25
Q

are the employees willing (motivated) to learn what’s being taught in a training program?

A

Willingness

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26
Q

The methods of shaping behavior are:

A

Positive reinforcement
negative reinforcement
punishment
extinction

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27
Q

Method of shaping behavior; provide a reward in return for a constructive action

A

Positive Reinforcement

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28
Q

Method of shaping behavior; the withdrawal of a harmful thing in response to a positive action

A

Negative reinforcement

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29
Q

Method of shaping behavior; the application of an adverse consequence or removal of a reward, in order to decrease an unwanted behavior

A

Punishment

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30
Q

Method of shaping behavior; the lack of response, positive or negative, in order to avoid reinforcing an undesirable behavior

A

Extinction

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31
Q

is done at the worksite with the resources the employee uses to perform the job.

A

On the Job Training (OJT)

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32
Q

very successful OTJ; uses four step model: 1. Preparation of trainee 2. presentation of task by trainer 3. performance of task by trainee 4. Follow-up

A

Job instructional training

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33
Q

Advantages of on the job training

A

-training can be immediately transferred to job
occurs on actual job site
-environment interactive, with feedback
-trainer typically highly competent in job
-instructor can customize the training to the trainees needs.

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34
Q

Disadvantages of on the job training

A
  • 1 on 1 training $$$
  • trainers may transfer bad habits, or not know how to teach
  • training may be inconsistent
  • if equipment is $$$ may be super risky to let unexperienced trainee to use it
  • disrupts work environment
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35
Q

What are some advantages of E-Learning?

A
  • training available 24/7
  • ability to learn at own pace
  • no need for physical location or exact availability of instructor
  • no commuting time lost
  • multimedia can enhance learning process
  • reasonable low cost
  • does not disrupt actual work environment
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36
Q

What are some disadvantages of E-Learning

A
  • requires self disciple
  • trainer may not directly respond to needs and questions
  • lacks immediate feedback
  • high initial start up cost
  • dishonesty more difficult to identify
  • lack of social interactions heeds some learning
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37
Q

Advantages of classroom training

A
  • provides consistent knowledge to a lot of people
  • many students can train at one time
  • info provided more consistently
  • less expensive than OTJ
  • instructors usually professionals
  • Q&A’s interactive
  • does not disrupt work environment
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38
Q

Disadvantages of classroom training

A
  • passive environment; learner absorbs info given
  • pace may be too fast or too slow for students (anxiety and boredom)
  • more difficult to cater to different learning styles
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39
Q

What are the advantages of simulations?

A
  • training individuals how to react to a complex situation
  • realism allows emulation of physical situations
  • allows to try experimental solutions to problems
  • results can be analyzed
  • does not disrupt work environment
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40
Q

what are the disadvantages of simulations?

A
  • becomes more like video game & not taken seriously
  • systems $$$$$ to create & maintain
  • may require powerful and $$$$ processors
  • some processes just can’t be simulated
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41
Q

What are the four learning styles of honey and Mumford

A

Activists, Reflectors, Theorists, Pragmatists

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42
Q

learning style of Honey and Mumford; learn best when actively involved in tasks

A

Activists

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43
Q

learning style of Honey and Mumford; learn best when reviewing and reflecting on what has happened and what they have done

A

Reflectors

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44
Q

learn best when they can relate new information to concepts or theories

A

Theorists

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45
Q

learning style of Honey and Mumford; learn best when they see relevance of new information to real life problem

A

Pragmatists

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46
Q

(1948) touchstone for gov’ts, individuals, and non gov’tal groups. ratified by every country in the world; explicitly adopted to define “fundamental freedoms” and “human rights”

A

United Nations Universal declaration act of Human Rights

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47
Q

universal declaration of human rights; lays down the philosophy- the right to liberty and equality is the birthright of every human being and cannot be alienated.

A

Article 1

48
Q

universal declaration of human rights; sets out principle of equality and not discrimination- forbids “any distinction of any kind such as race, color, sex, language, religion, political, or other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth ot other status.”

A

Article 2

49
Q

universal declaration of human rights; Assure every person, as a member of the human society, specific economic, social, and cultural rights.

  • right to social security
  • right to work
  • right to equal pay for equal work
  • right to rest and leisure
  • right to a standard of living adequate for health and well-being
A

Articles 22-27

50
Q

employees should be informed about what being asked to do and consequences
employers must ensure that employees voluntarily agree to a particular job
if forced to do something it violates this for employees

A

Right of Free Consent

51
Q
  • depends on if employer is public or private
  • in public company’s it is limited
  • in private companies it is no existent
A

Freedom of Speech

52
Q

when employer debates disciplinary action, employee has right to know what. they are being accused of, the evidence behind it, and telling their side

A

Right to due process

53
Q

employee’s right to be protected from harm to the best if the employers’ ability

A

Right to life and safety

54
Q

employees should not be asked to do something that violates their personal values and beliefs as long as these beliefs generally reflect common accepted societal terms

A

Right to freedom of Conscience

55
Q

Protects people from unreasonable or unwarranted intrusions into their personal affairs, unless the employer feels they might pose hazard to others.
fourth amendment protects gov’t employees but not private employees

A

Right to Privacy

56
Q

what are the rules about employee searches

A

search only if necessary,
verify first, if possible,
if you plan to search, have a policy,
never search employees body,
restrooms & changing rooms off limits,
consider the workers privacy expectations,
don’t hold employees against their will (false imprisonment)

57
Q

employers have right to monitor workplace, including work-issued computers, and phones

A

Workplace monitoring

58
Q

1) invasion of a secluded place or privacy (must invade space)
2) intrusion must be a type that is highly offensive to reasonable person
3) interference with privacy must be substantial

A

Intrusion upon seclusion

59
Q

a company or employee can terminate their work relationship at any point in time, with or without any particular reason, as long as in doing so no law is violated

A

employment-at-will

60
Q

what are the exceptions to employment at will

A

violation of public policy
implied contract
breaching of good faith and fair dealing

61
Q

employers may create an implied contract through oral assurances of continued employment or through the wording found in employee handbooks or other written communication

A

Breach of implied contract (42 states)

62
Q

some states require cause for this, others require employers act in good faith without malice intent.

A

Breach of Good Faith and Fair Dealing

63
Q

employer may not terminate employee for: asserting a legal right (filling out workers comp ) or doing what the law requires (reporting illegal activity)

A

Violation of Public Policy

64
Q

also known as covenant not to compete; one party (typically employee) agrees not to enter into or start a similar profession or trade in competition against another party (usually the employer)

A

Non-Compete Clause

65
Q

what is the purpose of non compete clause?

A

prevent ex-employee from gaining competitive advantage by abusing confidential information (trade secrets, client list, marketing plans, upcoming products

66
Q

True or false: courts read the restriction in a non-compete as narrowly as possible.

A

true

67
Q

the process of planning, organizing, and controlling activities that contain an element of risk of injury to the worker.

A

Risk Management

68
Q

what are the parts of risk management?

A

measure and control, identify, asses and analyze, plan action, monitor and implement (in a cycle)

69
Q

-Reduce work related injuries and illness
-improve morale and productivity
-reduce workers’ compensation costs
are all benefits of

A

Health and safety programs

70
Q
  • establish procedures
  • use checklists
  • examine worksite: existing hazards and anticipate
A

Conduct Regular Inspections

71
Q

:Workplace safety policy is Clearly stated
:establish and communicate the goals
:top management should be involved

A

Policy and Goals

72
Q
  • look into near miss incidents to determine cause and ways to avoid
  • analyze accident trends that can be remedied
A

Investigation

73
Q
  • maintain facility and equipment
  • establish emergency plan:
    • training and drills
    • fast access to medical supplies and having care facilities nearby
A

Facility Care

74
Q

Training covered in orientation and regularly refreshed; addresses health and safety responsibilities of all personnel with incentives for safe workplace behavior are encouraged

A

Health and safety training

75
Q

division of department of labor that oversees OSH Act: “ensure safe and healthful working conditions for working men and women by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, educatation, and assistance

A

OSHA- occupational safety and health administration

76
Q

what does OSHA do?

A
  • sets federal health and safety standards for employers

- occupational safety and health inspections without notice

77
Q

what are reasons OSHA performs unannounced inspections

A 
imminent dangers
catastrophes
worker complaints
targeted inspections
follow-up inspections
78
Q

employer knew a hazardous condition existed but made no effort to eliminate it

A

Willful

79
Q

the hazard could cause injury or illness that would most likely result in death or significant physical harm

A

Serious

80
Q

any illness or injury likely to result from the hazard is unlikely to cause death or serious physical harm, but the violation has a direct impact on safety and health

A

other than serious injury

81
Q

violation has no direct or immediate safety or health danger;( so this does not result in citations or penalties)

A

De Minimis

82
Q

employer has not corrected a previous violation for which a citation was issued and the settlement date has passed

A

Failure to abate

83
Q

employer has been previously cited for the same type of violation within the previous five years

A

Repeated

84
Q

what are some examples of expressions of hostility

A

gestures, facial expressions, threats of physical violence, damage of property, bullying

85
Q

passive aggressive behaviors that impede job performance or achievement of organizational objectives

A

obstructionism

86
Q

the process of identifying, measuring, managing, and developing the performance of human resources

A

Performance management

87
Q

the ongoing process of evaluating employee performance

A

Performance appraisal

88
Q

What are the purposes of performance appraisal systems?

A
  • Diagnosis of organizational problems
  • Employment decisions
  • Employee feedback
  • criteria in test evaluation
  • objectives for training programs
89
Q

An accurate performance measure; consistency of judgement

A

valid and reliable

90
Q

accurate performance measure; must have support of those who will use them

A

Acceptable

91
Q

accurate performance measure; can distinguish between effective and ineffective workers

A

Sensitive

92
Q 
valid & reliable 
acceptable
feasible & practical 
specific 
sensitive
based on mission and objectives are all
A

Accurate performance measures

93
Q

why conduct performance appraisals?

A
  • communicate employee performance strengths & improvement needs
  • make employment-related decisions
  • motivate—develop
94
Q 
Ranking method 
graphic rating scales form 
BARS form
Narrative method or form 
MBO method
critical incidents method 
are all.....
A

forms of appraisal

95
Q

manager ranks group of employees by making comparisons from best to worst; typically used for evaluative decision making & development

A

Ranking Methods

96
Q

three forms of forced ranking:

A

relative comparison
absolute comparison
forced distribution

97
Q

an appraisal that compares employees against each other, forcing some to be rated above others, such as “How did Jo do in comparison to Sally and Bob?”

A

Relative comparison

98
Q

a conventional performance appraisal, such as “How well did Jo do against the responsibilities & goals set at the beginning of the year?”

A

Absolute comparison

99
Q

An appraisal that does not compare people against each other but gives employees ratings such as “excellent,” “good,” or “needs improvement.” A set # or % of workers must fall into each category

A

Forced distribution

100
Q

“Rank and Yank”

bell shaped curve

A

Vitality curve

101
Q

manager uses an appraisal checklist to rate employee performance on a continuum often expressed as a numerical scale

A

Graphic rating Scales

102
Q

manager records examples of employee’s effective and ineffective behavior during the time period between evaluations, which is in the behavioral category
disadvantage: tendency to only record negative incidents
can work well if manager properly trained in recording incidents in a fair manner

A

Critical incidents method

103
Q

combines elements from critical incident and graphic rating scale approaches; manager uses specific behaviorally-based continuum to rate employee performance; continuum often expressed as numerical scale

A

Behaviorally anchored rating Scales (BARS)

104
Q

manager writes statements about employees performance; typically used for ongoing feedback, employee-coaching and employee development planning

A

Narrative method

105
Q

what are the 3 disadvantages of the Narrative method?

A

depends on managers writing skills
time consuming
may lack opportunities to observe

106
Q

manager and employee jointly set employee objectives (goals)
appraisal and reward directly linked to achievement of goals

A

Management By Objectives (MBO)

107
Q

S.M.A.R.T Goals:

A 
Specific
Measurable 
Attainable 
Realistic 
Time-Bound
108
Q

supervisors typically evaluate their employee’s performance; peers; subordinates; customers; employee evaluates his/her own performance
*reduces bias and offers a more comprehensive picture of employees performance

A

360 Degree Evaluations

109
Q

using multiple criteria, train evaluators/manager training, and develop accurate performance measures are all ways to…

A

Avoid Problems

110
Q

O.U.C.H. test

A

Objective
Uniform in application
Consistent in effect
Has job relatedness

111
Q

main objective: to change behavior

secondary objectives: let employees know when action will be taken when policies are violated

A

Reasons to Discipline

112
Q

Just Cause-7 tests

A
  1. Did employee receive fair warning?
  2. Is rule reasonably related to safe operation of company’s business &expected employee performance
  3. Did employer validate infarction before disciplining ?
  4. Was investigation conducted fairly?
  5. was there substantial proof that the employee was guilty?
  6. has company applied rules without discrimination?
  7. Was disciplinary acts reasonably related to seriousness of offense?
113
Q

seven common tests for fairness and due process in disciplinary actions

A

Just Cause

114
Q

Employer provides employee with opportunities to correct poor behavior before terminating the individual
*may differ in different cultures

A

Progressive discipline

115
Q

Steps of progressive discipline include:

A
  1. informal coaching talk
  2. oral warning
  3. written warning
  4. suspension
  5. termination

MGT 320 (2 decks)

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