Exam 2 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

what is the purpose of DNA extraction

A

the removal of DNA from the cells or viruses in which it normally resides

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2
Q

what are the four steps that are common to all types of DNA extraction methods

A
  1. disruption
  2. lysis
  3. removal of proteins and contaminants
  4. recovery of DNA
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3
Q

Describe the basic technique/theory behind the preparation of crude lysates in DNA extraction

A

incubate at high temp or protein K

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4
Q

Be able to explain the basic technique/theory behind organic extraction methods and the disadvantages

A

use organic solvents to extract contaminants
disadvantage: time-consuming and uses toxic compounds

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5
Q

Be able to explain the basic technique/theory behind silica-based methods and the advantage(s)

A

uses adsorption of nucleic acids to a silica-gel membrane
advantages: only DNA is adsorbed, simpler and more effective

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6
Q

What is gel electrophoreses

A

Uses electrical current to separate different-sized molecules in a porous, sponge-like matrix

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7
Q

What is the purpose of electrophoreses

A

this process uses electricity to separate DNA and RNA fragments by size as they migrate through a gel matrix

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8
Q

What kind of gel is used in DNA electrophoreses

A

Agarose gel

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9
Q

what is blue tracking dye used for in gel electrophoreses? does it bind DNA?

A

Dye makes it easier to load the samples and visually
track the migration through the gel
Yes

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10
Q

explain how DNA moves through gel in gel electrophoreses

A

DNA and RNA molecules are negatively charged therefore electric current will move towards the positive pole

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11
Q

What is ethidium bromide

A

fluorescent dye to stain DNA/RNA

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12
Q

What is the purpose of the southern blot

A

used to detect specific DNA
molecules from among other molecules

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13
Q

Be able to name and describe the 5 steps of the southern blot

A
  1. Separating DNA fragments based on size via electrophoresis
  2. Transferring them to a membrane
  3. Hybridization with a labeled sequence-specific probe
  4. Washing
  5. Detection of labeled DNA band(s)
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14
Q

What kind of information does the southern blot give you

A

Reveals information about DNA: identity, size, and abundance

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15
Q

Describe how the southern blot probe is designed

A

single-stranded DNA

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16
Q

What has to be true about the sequence of the southern blot probe

A

it has to be complementary to the sequence you are testing

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17
Q

What is HRP and how does it provide a detection signal

A

horse radish peroxidase
catalyzes oxidation of luminol

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18
Q

How else can the southern blot probe provide a detectable signal

A

alkaline phosphatase or radioactive

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19
Q

What is the purpose/theory behind PCR

A

PCR enables the production, or amplification, of billions of copies of an original piece of DNA in a test tube within minutes or hours, not days

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20
Q

Who invented PCR

A

American biochemist Kary
Mullis,(1987)

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21
Q

What kind of information does PCR give you

A

information on a gene so you could make copies

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22
Q

What are primers and why are they necessary in PCR

A

A pair of primers with exposed 3′-OH groups that will bind to the particular sequence of interest in the DNA template

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23
Q

What are the necessary ingredients of a PCR reaction

A

DNA, taq polymerase, nucleotides, primer

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24
Q

Be able to name and describe the three main steps of PCR

A
  1. denaturation - breaking of double helix
  2. annealing - primers bind to complimentary strand
  3. extension - heat to create new DNA strands
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25
Q

What is a thermocycler

A

machine that cycles between the different necessary temperatures for PCR

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26
Q

What is Taq polymerase and what is the significance of this discovery

A

thermus aquaticus
since it’s heat-resistant you don’t need to add new polymerase during each cycle

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27
Q

What is the purpose/theory behind Real-time PCR (aka qPCR)

A

Allows you to copy a particular DNA sequence and quantify it simultaneously

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28
Q

What is the purpose of RNA isolation

A

allows you to see genes being transcribed

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29
Q

What is the main concern when isolating RNA molecules

A

RNA is unstable and has a short half-life

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30
Q

Which type of RNA represents gene expression

A

mRNA

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31
Q

What are Rnases

A

ribonuclease, type of nuclease that catalyzes the degradation of RNA

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32
Q

What are the basic steps in RNA isolation methods

A
  1. cell lysis
  2. inactivation of cellular nucleases
  3. separation of desired nucleic acid from cell debris
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33
Q

Explain the steps of RNA isolation using an organic solvent

A
  1. guanidinium thiocyanate
  2. extract homogenate
  3. RNA separated from DNA
  4. RNA is in aqueous phase
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34
Q

Explain the steps of RNA isolation using OligodT columns

A
  1. special column used with short chains
  2. mRNAs with poly(A) tails are added
  3. poly(A) tail pairs with chains
  4. rest of RNA passes through
  5. mRNA is washed using buffer that breaks bond
  6. leaving only mRNA with poly(A) tails
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35
Q

What is the purpose of Northern blotting

A

Hybridization technique for detection of specific RNA sequences

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36
Q

What are the basic steps of the Northern blot

A
  1. Total cellular RNA or mRNA is size-separated by denaturing agarose gel electrophoresis
  2. The separated RNA is transferred onto a nylon membrane
  3. The RNA is then detected with isotopic or non-isotopic labeled complementary DNA or RNA probe
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37
Q

What kind of information does the northern blot give you

A
  1. to observe a particular gene’s expression pattern between tissues
  2. detect overexpression of oncogenes and down-regulation of tumor-suppressor genes in cancerous cells
  3. determine the size of the product
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38
Q

What is the purpose of In Situ Hybridization

A

to identify the position of genes and localize and detect the specific DNA sequences in cells

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39
Q

What are the basic steps of In Situ Hybridization

A
  1. probe preparation and labeling
  2. tissue fixation
  3. permeabilization
  4. hybridization
  5. signal detection
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40
Q

What kind of information does In Situ Hybridization give you

A

precise localization of a specific segment of nucleic acid within a histologic section

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41
Q

What is the purpose of RT-PCR

A

determine how gene expression changes over time or under different conditions

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42
Q

What is reverse transcriptase

A

enzyme that makes DNA out of RNA

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43
Q

What is cDNA

A

complementary DNA

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44
Q

Describe the steps to make cDNA

A
  1. Separating mRNA molecules from other cellular RNA
  2. Using reverse transcriptase to copy the mRNA molecules into cDNA
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45
Q

What are antibodies

A

Important in protein isolation and
identification

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46
Q

How are antibodies made

A

derived from B-cells

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47
Q

What is an epitope

A

unique part of antigen recognized by antibody

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48
Q

What is a monoclonal vs. polyclonal antibodies

A

monoclonal = recognize one epitope
polyclonal = recognize multiple epitopes

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49
Q

How are monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies made

A

monoclonal = B-cell clone “hybridoma”
polyclonal = multiple B-cell clones

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50
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies

A

poly may be cheaper but mono targets specific

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51
Q

What is the purpose of immunoprecipitation

A

Identification Of Protein-protein Interactions

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52
Q

What are the basic steps of immunoprecipitation

A
  1. Attach antibody to beads via protein A
  2. Lyse cells to release antigen and its binding partners
  3. Mix cell lysate + antibody-coated beads (antibody binds antigen)
  4. Purify antigen and its binding partners by centrifugation
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53
Q

What is the purpose of immunohistochemistry and immunofluorescence microscopy

A

visualize the location and distribution of proteins in cells

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54
Q

direct method

A

primary antibody only

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55
Q

indirect method

A

primary and secondary antibodies

56
Q

enzyme-linked method

A

primary, secondary, and enzyme

57
Q

What is the primary antibody specific to

58
Q

What is the secondary antibody specific to

A

primary antibody

59
Q

What is the purpose behind Western blotting

A

detect specific proteins from a complex mixture

60
Q

What are the steps of western blotting

A
  1. electrotransfer
  2. antibody detection
  3. development
61
Q

What kind of information does western blotting provide

A

protein expression and size

62
Q

Describe the importance of the stacking gel? How does it work?

A

more refinement by doing a broad separation and then a more specific separation

63
Q

How is the secondary antibody detected in western blotting

A

HRP enzyme

64
Q

What is the purpose/theory behind ELISAs

A

detect antibodies

65
Q

What does ELISA stand for

A

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay

66
Q

What are the basic steps for ELISA

A
  1. add antigen/antibody to well
  2. add opposite
  3. add substrate
  4. measure light
67
Q

direct ELISA

A

detects antigen

68
Q

indirect ELISA

A

detects antibody

69
Q

competitive ELISA

A

compares affinity

70
Q

What kind of information does ELISA give you

A

depends on type of ELISA run

71
Q

What is a standard curve

A

Serial dilutions of the cytokine being
measured

72
Q

How do you make a standard curve and what information does it provide

A

diluting a sample down by a proportional amount to desired density

73
Q

What are the advantages of ELISAs

A

easy due to wide variety of antibodies available and versatile

74
Q

mouse female reproductive tract

A

two ovaries, fallopian tubes, leads to oviduct

75
Q

meiosis

A

sexual cell division

76
Q

oocyte development

A

begin divide inside fallopian tubes

77
Q

fertilization occurs in the

A

fallopian tubes

78
Q

what embryo stage in is the ovary

79
Q

which embryo stages are in the fallopian tube

A

fertilization, zygote, morula

80
Q

what embryo stage is in the uterus

A

blastocyst

81
Q

blastocyst

A

multicelled zygote ready for implantation

82
Q

inner cell mass

A

part of blastocyst, actual embryo

83
Q

trophectoderm

A

cells of the outer layer are called this, these cells form the extraembryonic membranes, which are the placenta and allantois

84
Q

pluripotent

A

have the potential to develop into every cell type in the fetus

85
Q

basics of embryo production

A

6 - 12 oocytes per ovulation
estrous cycle = 4 - 5 days

86
Q

Whitten effect

A

Exposing stock females to a sterile male mouse, or by introducing the soiled bedding of male mice into the cages of females to induce estrus

87
Q

superovulation

A

injected with exogenous hormones prior to mating to induce larger litters

88
Q

stud male

A

males used as mates for embryo to maximize sperm production

89
Q

how to collect embryos

A

1 to 8 cell stages with syringe needle, dissect fallopian tube

90
Q

embryo recipients

A

primed females exposed to sterile males

91
Q

steps of designing and generating a transgene

A
  1. designing the DNA for insertion
  2. making the DNA in the lab
  3. injecting DNA into mouse embryos
92
Q

concatemer

A

long continuous DNA molecule that contains multiple copies of the same DNA molecule linked together

93
Q

GOI

A

gene of interest

94
Q

promoter

A

a regulatory portion of the genome that helps to control transcription of a gene

95
Q

reporter gene

A

way to check if the trans gene is expressed

96
Q

plasmids

A

DNA vector, ex. drug resistance

97
Q

first disease models

A

spontaneous mutations that happened to produce a medically relevant phenotype

98
Q

What are the different ways to categorize a disease and why is that important to know when designing a disease model

A
  1. loss of function
  2. gain of function
  3. partial loss
    importance - how to treat it
99
Q

Be familiar with Nude mice and SCID mice and their importance as animal models for human disease

A

nude mice - good as tissue recipients
SCID - no immune system, good for studying “bubble boy” syndrome

100
Q

forward vs reverse genetics

A

forward - identify the mutation and then work with it
reverse - make it freaky (mutate it)

101
Q

steps of gene insertion using pronuclear injection

A
  1. microinject DNA into male pronucleus
  2. transfer to oviduct of pseudopregnant female
102
Q

founders and their importance

A

the original DNA with transgene
important because you can go back and remake the population

103
Q

does the presence of a transgene always mean that the disease phenotype you see is caused by the expression of that transgene

104
Q

viruses used as vectors for genes

A

Moloney Murine Leukemia Virus - retrovirus
Lentivirus - disabled viral vector

105
Q

transposons

A

segments of DNA that can be inserted into the genome by enzymes known as transposases

106
Q

gene trap

A

transgene that stops other genes

107
Q

International Gene Trap Consortium (IGTC)

A

institutions working towards creating mice for each individual gene

108
Q

knock-out vs knock-in

A

knock-out = remove/inhibit gene
knock-in = give gene

109
Q

homologous recombination and its role in KO/KI mice

A

A region of the cell’s genome has been replaced by a DNA fragment whose sequence is the same as, or very close to, the sequence of that region
Can cause the KO/KI

110
Q

selectable cassette/selectable marker

A

gene for antibiotic resistance

111
Q

how to create a transgenic mouse

A
  1. DNA construct
  2. insert into embryo
112
Q

positive selectable markers

A

allows to select for cells that are positive for DNA

113
Q

negative selectable markers

A

kills cells that express the DNA

114
Q

how is electroporation used to generate targeted ES cells

A

allows DNA molecules to enter specific cells

115
Q

chimeric mouse creation

A

an animal composed of cells from two different genetic lineages

116
Q

is a chimeric mouse a transgenic mouse

117
Q

How do you make/find your transgenic mouse after a chimera is made?

A

the chimera has to have litters

118
Q

What are some of strategies used when mating your chimeric mice

A

use more embryonic stem cells, use phenotypic selectors

119
Q

why are male chimeric mice used for breeding

A

males can impregnate multiple females

120
Q

conditional knockouts

A

irreversible
can study germline

121
Q

inducible knockout

A

reversible
can be isolated

122
Q

Tet-On systems

A

tetracycline is injected or added to animal

123
Q

Tet-Off systems

A

the transgene is active only in the absence of the antibiotic

124
Q

constitutive vs conditional mutations

A

constitutive = present all the time
conditional = present sometimes, depends on another gene

125
Q

Cre recombinase recognizes loxP sites

A

insert gene in between LoxP genes which pop out gene

126
Q

Flp recombinase recognizes frt sites

A

place gene between Flp and frt, pops out gene

127
Q

PhiC31 integrase recognizes attP and attB sites

A

brings in gene between attP and attB sites

128
Q

What is the COIN system and how is it useful

A

” conditional by inversion”
can determine if gene causes a disease and if it can be reversed by restoring normal function

129
Q

What are Floxed Stop Cassettes and how are they used

A

a short stretch of DNA that signals the end of gene transcription
and/or translation
shuts down expression of a gene, can be removable/reversible

130
Q

What is gene editing and how does it differ from gene targeting

A

gene editing = more specific than gene targeting, more recent

131
Q

Zinc-Finger Nucleases

A

zinc fingers recognize triplets to cause specific damage to cause DNA repair between the two fingers

132
Q

TALENs

A

works similar to Zinc-Fingers, can only delete easier to design

133
Q

CRISPR/Cas9

A

can add or remove DNA

134
Q

advantages to gene editing

A

only needs a dozen fertilized eggs
any animal with eggs
only a few hundred base pairs of DNA

135
Q

gene targeting benefits

A

cheaper than gene editing