Exam 2 review Flashcards

1
Q

What is an exogenous substance?

A

substances from external sources (such as drugs and food)

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2
Q

What are endogenous substances?

A

substances from internal sources (such as neurotransmitters and hormones)

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3
Q

What does an agonistic drug do?

A

An agonistic drug mimics or enhances the effect of a neurotransmitter by activating the receptor.

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4
Q

What does an antagonistic drug do?

A

An agonistic drug occupies the receptors without activating them, which blocks incoming neurotransmitters from binding to the receptor.

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5
Q

Define a “psychoactive drug”.

A

A psychoactive drug is a substance that has a psychological effect, such as pain relief or hallucinations.

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6
Q

What does a stimulant drug do?

A

Stimulants are involved in arousal, increased alertness, and elevated mood. Examples include cocaine, caffeine, and methamphetamine.

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7
Q

What does a depressant drug do?

A

A depressant usually sedates, and provides hypnotic and anxiolytic (anxiety-reducing) effects. One example of a depressant includes barbiturates.

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8
Q

What effects do opiates have on the body?

A

Opiates provide hypnotic, analgesic (pain-relieving), and euphoric effects. Examples include morphine and morphine-derivatives (heroin, etc).

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9
Q

What do psychedelic drugs do?

A

Psychedelic drugs cause perceptual distortions. Examples include LSD, PCP (angel dust), etc.

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10
Q

Where is the mesolimbicortical dopaminergic system located?

A

The MDS begins in the midbrain (at the mesencephalon) and projects to the limbic system and prefrontal cortex.

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11
Q

Define “dependence”.

A

Dependence is the desire to self-administer a drug of abuse; criteria include patterns of consumption, craving, time and energy expended on obtaining the drug, as well as the impact of the drug on one’s life.

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12
Q

How is “substance abuse” different from “dependence”?

A

Dependence is a more severe disorder than substance abuse, which is a pattern of drug abuse that does not meet the criteria for dependence.

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13
Q

Define “reward-blocking medications” and explain how they work to treat addiction.

A

Reward-blocking medications interfere with the dopamine reward system, and include medications that block positive reward effects of the abused drug, but may produce a lack of all pleasurable feelings.

One example of a reward-blocking medication is Baclofen, which reduces dopamine activity in the ventral tegmental area of the brain.

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14
Q

How are “aversive treatments” effective in treating addiction?

A

Aversive treatments cause a negative reaction when the person takes the drug.

One example of an aversive treatment drug is Antabuse, which interferes with alcohol metabolism, which in turn makes the abuser ill when alcohol is consumed.

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15
Q

How do “anti-drug vaccines” help to treat addiction?

A

Anti-drug vaccines are synthetic molecules that resemble the drug but have been modified to stimulate the animal’s immune system to make antibodies that will degrade the drug.

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16
Q

What class of psychoactive drugs are derived from the opium poppy?

A

Opiates.

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17
Q

Opiate drugs are effective as psychoactive substances because they mimic ____________ in the brain.

A

Endorphins.

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18
Q

Opium contains _____________, which is an effective analgesic (pain-reliever).

A

Morphine.

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19
Q

Heroin is a ________-derivative.

A

Morphine.

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20
Q

LSD (acid) strongly activates _________ receptors in the visual cortex, which in turn causes perceptual distortions.

A

Serotonin

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21
Q

Another name for ecstasy is ______, which is derived from amphetamine.

A

MDMA

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22
Q

Phencyclidine (PCP) and ketamine (“Special K”) are both NMDA-type __________ receptor agonists.

A

Glutamate

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23
Q

Marijuana is the dried and crushed flowers of what Indian hemp plant?

A

Cannabis sativa

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24
Q

What is the major psychoactive ingredient in marijuana?

A

Delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC); THC binds with cannabinoid receptors in the brain.

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25
Q

The ventral tegmental area is suggested to be involved in addiction, while the _______________ area produces signs of withdrawal.

A

Periventricular grey area.

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26
Q

Define “motivation”, in regard to the regulation of internal states.

A

Motivation refers to the set of factors that initiate, sustain, and direct behaviours.

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27
Q

What is an “instinct”?

A

An instinct is a complex behaviour that is automatic and unlearned, and occurs in all members of a species, such as a material behaviour. One example of an instinct is migration.

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28
Q

___________ theory states that people behave in a way that keeps them at their level of physiological arousal.

A

Arousal theory.

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29
Q

___________ theory states that the body maintains homeostasis in its systems. Departure from homeostasis produces an aroused condition, impelling the individual to engage in appropriate action.

A

Drive theory.

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30
Q

Some simple drives include ___________ drives (those that maintain bodily conditions around a set point), and ___________ regulation (which involves the dilation or constriction of blood vessels, metabolism adjustment, and sweating).

A

1) Homeostatic drives.

2) Temperature regulation.

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31
Q

__________ is a feeding behaviour that provides energy for fuel and for maintaining body __________, as well as material needed for growth and ___________.

A

1) Hunger
2) Temperature
3) Repair

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32
Q

What is “sensory-specific satiety”?

Bonus: Where does sensory-specific satiety take place in the brain?

A

Sensory-specific satiety means that the more a particular food an individual eats, the less appealing the food becomes. This helps to force the body into eating a varied and nutritional diet.

Bonus: Sensory-specific satiety takes place in the NST (nucleus of the solitary tract).

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33
Q

What is the heritability rate for obesity in the United States of America?

A

50-90%

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34
Q

What is the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?

A

The BMR is the energy required to fuel the brain and body and maintain body temperature. It accounts for 75% of the energy expenditure in the average sedentary person.

35
Q

What is the homeostatic “set point”?

A

the set point is the point of equilibrium the system returns to, such as energy reserves, body temperature, and fluid levels.

36
Q

Studies using fMRI results show that elevated _______ levels after a period of fasting produce changes in the human hypothalamus.

37
Q

What part(s) of the brain initiates eating and hunger?

A

The lateral hypothalamus and the paraventricular nucleus (PVN) initiates eating.

38
Q

Glucose deficits trigger _______ hunger, while a deficit in fatty acids triggers ________ hunger (which originates in the liver).

A

1) Glucoprivic

2) Lipoprivic

39
Q

Ghrelin is produced in the ________.

40
Q

The nucleus of the solitary tract (NST) takes the appetite signals and communicates this information to the ________________ in the hypothalamus.

A

Arcuate nucleus.

41
Q

The arcuate nucleus sends neurones to the lateral hypothalamus and the paraventricular nucleus (PVN); these neurones release ____________ and ___________.

A

1) Neuropeptide-Y

2) Agouti-related protein (AgRP)

42
Q

What part of the hypothalamus is responsible for the termination of eating?

A

The ventromedial hypothalamus.

43
Q

Stretch or volume receptors in the ________ signal meal size, which helps to signal the end of a meal.

44
Q

The stomach and intestines release peptides to signal the end of a meal. One of these peptide is cholecystokinin (CCK), which stimulates the __________; the signal then travels to the nucleus of the solitary tract (NST) and from there to the __________ to decrease eating.

A

1) Vagus nerve

2) Hypothalamus

45
Q

Long-term control of appetite is essential; one hormone released by the intestines is PYY (peptide YY3-36), which is carried by the bloodstream to the _____________, where it inhibits neuropeptide-Y (NPY)-releasing neurones.

A

Arcuate nucleus.

46
Q

_____ cells release leptin.

A

Fat cells.

47
Q

Leptin and insulin both inhibit hunger-inducing hormone __________.

A

Agouti-related protein (AgRP), which is involved in the initiation of eating and hunger.

48
Q

Often in dieting, the body will “defend” its weight by shifting __________.

A

Metabolism.

49
Q

The standard treatment for obesity is _____________.

A

Dietary restriction.

50
Q

Other methods for treating obesity include medication and _____________ surgery.

A

Gastric bypass.

51
Q

In a patient who has been treated for obesity through gastric bypass surgery, weight loss averages ___% in 10 years, though most often patients relapse within _____ year(s).

A

1) 25%

2) One

52
Q

Sex is like a hunger and thirst in many ways; it involves arousal and __________, hormonal __________, and is controlled by specific areas of the brain.

A

1) Satiation

2) Control

53
Q

Sex is different from hunger and thirst in that it does not fit the pattern of a _______________ need, thus, sex is not required for survival.

A

Homeostatic tissue.

54
Q

The MPOA (_____________) is important in sexual performance.

A

Medial preoptic area of the hypothalamus

55
Q

The medial amygdala in the temporal lobe is involved in sexual behaviour, ___________, and emotion.

A

Aggression.

56
Q

For females, the VMH (______________) experiences increased activity during copulation, and sends axons to the periaqueductal grey in the midbrain, which projects to other brain regions. This is important for receptivity to male advances.

A

Ventromedial hypothalamus.

57
Q

In males, the paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus (PVN) is important for sexual __________, while the __________ (located in the medial preoptic area [MPOA]) helps to sustain erection response.

A

1) Performance

2) Sexually dimorphic nucleus

58
Q

Neurotransmitters involved in sexual behaviour include ________ (for motivation and male performance) and _________ (helps in ejaculation and the refractory period)

A

1) Dopamine

2) Serotonin

59
Q

What is the Coolidge Effect?

A

The Coolidge Effect refers to the faster resumption of mating behaviour, with a different partner.

60
Q

Peaks in oestrogen and _________ during a woman’s menstrual cycle often lead to more sexual advances in females.

A

Testosterone.

61
Q

Two important neuropeptides important for bonding are _________ (in women) and __________ (in men).

A

1) Oxytocin

2) Vasopressin

62
Q

Airborne chemicals released by an animal that have physiological or behavioural effects on another animal of the same species.

A

Pheromones

63
Q

Most pheromones are detected by the ____________ (VNO), which is a cluster of receptors located in the nasal cavity.

A

Vomeronasal organ.

64
Q

True or false: women prefer the odours of men who smell similar to them.

65
Q

Define “emotion”.

A

Emotion is an increase or decrease in physiological activity that is accompanied by feelings that are characteristic of the emotion, and are often accompanied by a characteristic behaviour or facial expression.

66
Q

The __________ nervous system prepares the body for “fight or flight”.

A

Sympathetic.

67
Q

Following arousal, the _________ nervous system reduces activity and conserves bodily energy.

A

Parasympathetic.

68
Q

According to the _____________ Theory, emotional experience results from the physiological arousal that precedes it; thus, different emotions are the result of different patters of arousal.

Ex. “I feel afraid because I tremble” (stimulus) ––> autonomic arousal ––> fear (conscious feeling)

A

James–Lange Theory

69
Q

Schachter and Singer’s cognitive theory on emotion states that ___________ arousal contributes only to the emotion’s ___________.

Ex. “I label my trembling because I appraise the situation as dangerous.” (stimulus) ––> autonomic arousal ––> appraisal ––> fear (conscious feeling).

A

1) Physiological

2) Intensity

70
Q

A stimulus is more _______ when making a sad face.

71
Q

Cartoons are rated as more amusing during induced _______.

72
Q

What type of neurones respond both when a human engages in a specific act and while observing the same act in others?

A

Mirror neurones.

73
Q

One way humans contribute to emotional apathy is through the _______ of others’ emotional expressions.

A

Mimicking.

74
Q

The limbic system is a network of systems arranged around the ____________ (in the midbrain).

A

Upper brain stem.

75
Q

Emotion is seated at the limbic system and the ________.

A

Hypothalamus.

76
Q

What brain structure is involved in negative emotions such as anger and fear?

A

The amygdala.

77
Q

One important structure in emotion is the ___________, which is part of the cingulate gyrus.

A

Anterior cingulate cortex.

78
Q

What brain structure is necessary for making judgements about behaviour and its consequences?

A

The prefrontal cortex.

79
Q

________ is a condition in the environment that makes unusual demands on the organism, such as a threat, failure or bereavement.

80
Q

The stress response includes activation of the __________ branch of the autonomic nervous system, which is largely under the control of the hypothalamus.

A

Sympathetic.

81
Q

A group of structures that help thee body cope with stress.

A

Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis.

82
Q

The hypothalamus activates the pituitary glands to release stress hormones __________, ___________, and ____________.

A

1) Epinephrine
2) Norepinephrine
3) Cortisol

83
Q

What health condition is caused by excessive stress and sympathetic activity that sends the heart into fibrillation, to the point where little or no blood is pumped?

A

Sudden cardiac death.

84
Q

Which personality type is more prone to coronary heart disease: type A or type B?

A

Personality type A.