Exam 2: Review Flashcards

(69 cards)

1
Q

pH will _________ in the presence of bacteria.

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If the Urine is left at room temperature too long, it will give an ammonia smell produced by the bacteria which will decompose the _____.

A

urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Urine creatinine concentrations are _____ times higher than plasma.

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What three things are higher in urine that in other body fluids?

A

Urea, sodium, chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the physiologic SG urine range?
pH?

A

1.002 to 1.035

4.0 to 8.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Urine from a healthy person contains no _______ or ________, where other body fluids do.

A

protein, glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Unpreserved urine color darkens due to _________.

A

oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What causes decreased clarity of unpreserved urine?

A

Bacterial growth and precipitation of amorphous material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes increased odor in unpreserved urine?

A

Bacterial multiplication causing breakdown of urea to ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What causes increased pH in unpreserved urine?

A

Breakdown of urea to ammonia by urease-producing bacteria/loss of CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What causes decreased glucose in unpreserved urine?

A

Glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the normal pigments found in urine?

A

Uroerythrin and Urobilin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When is uroerythrin most evident?

A

when deposited on amorphous crystals in a stored urine specimen, causing a pink color or “brick dust” sediment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are two possible causes of abnormally dark yellow urine?

A

-May be dehydrated
-May have high conversion of urobilinogen → urobilin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are possible causes of amber/orange urine?

A

-RBC breakdown in alkaline urine
-May have bilirubin (shake and look at foam)
-Formation of urobilinogen - normal component to urine but photo oxidized and turns yellow orange. No yellow foam
-Patient maybe taking phenazopyridine to relieve symptoms of urinary tract infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What can the foam of a urine sample indicate?

A

-yellow foam = may be bilirubin

-white foam = formation of urobilinogen (normal component of urine but photo oxidizes and turns yellow/orange)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What drug that is used to relieve symptoms of urinary tract infection can cause an abnormal amber/orange urine color?

A

phenazopyridine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are two possible causes of pink colored urine?

A

-Oxidized porphobilinogen in patient with porphyria if specimen has set out too long
-Amorphous crystal formation causes a light pink color to form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What can cause a red color of urine?

A

RBCs, hemoglobin, beets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Three possible causes of brown/black urine?

A

-Myoglobin; muscle breakdown, too much is damaging to the kidney
-Oxidized melanogen in patient with malignant melanoma if specimen is set out too long
-Could also be blood or Hgb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Three possible causes of blue/green urine?

A

-Biliverdin
-Pseudomonas
-Propofol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is common cause of urine color changes?

A

numerous drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the clinical significance of foam in urine?

A

-Not normally included on report forms
-Normal urine when shaken will produce white foam then rapidly dissipate
-Stable white foam indicated large amounts of albumin in urine
-Yellow foam caused by increased bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What genetic disorder can caue a Mousy odor?

A

PKU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What can cause a rancid odor?
Tyrosinemia
26
What can cause a sweaty feet odor?
isovaleric acidemia
27
What can cause a cabbage odor?
Methionine malabsorption
28
What can cause a bleach odor?
contamination
29
The density of a solution compared with the density of an equal volume of distilled water at the same temperature
Specific gravity
30
The GREATER the urine density, the _________ the specific gravity
larger
31
How is SG different from osmolarity?
Osmolality depends on the number of particles in the solution, while specific gravity depends on the number and weight of the solutes. Osmolality is a better indicator of concentrating and diluting abilities of the kidney
32
What value is isosthenuric?
1.010 (SG of plasma ultrafiltrate)
33
What value is hypothenuric? hepersthenuric?
lower than 1.010 higher than 1.010
34
Normal random SG range?
1.003- 1.035: most common is 1.015- 1.025
35
What is a more representative measure of renal concentrating ability?
Osmolarity
36
Osmolarity is ONLY effected by...
the number of particles present
37
What does SG depend on?
-number of particles present AND the density (size) of the particles
38
Osmolarity can be determined by measuring a property that is mathematically related to the number of particles in a solution known as __________ property.
colligative
39
What can cause changes in colligative properties?
-Lower freezing pt -Higher boiling pt -Increased osmotic pressure -Lower vapor pressure
40
What instrument is used to measure osmolarity?
osmometer
41
Automated osmometer utilizes ______________ to measure osmolarity.
freezing point depression
42
What are the most common causes of end stage renal disease?
-Diabetes mellitus and related diabetic nephropathy (Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease) -high blood pressure
43
What are 3 diseases that may produce renal tubular epithelial cells?
-Alport’s syndrome -Acute tubular Necrosis -Acute interstitial nephritis
44
Protein is present in most renal diseases due to __________ malfunction
glomerular
45
High levels of protein: glomerular impairment especially __________ syndrome.
nephrotic
46
Lower levels of protein are seen with...
tubular disorders and pyelonephritis
47
Chronic inability to vary the urine specific gravity and sloughed off renal tubular cells → _________ disorders
tubular
48
White blood cell casts usually indicate the infection is where?
in the kidneys rather than in the lower UT
49
What should be suspected with there is acute onset of proteinuria and hematuria with suddenly decreased GFR?
One of the acute glomerulonephritis disorders
50
Likely renal disease with Red blood cell casts?
Acute glomerulonephritis
51
Likely renal disease with White blood cell cast?
Pyelonephritis
52
Likely renal disease with Hyaline cast?
Strenuous activity, fever, diuretics, concentrated urine-dehydration
53
Likely renal disease with Renal tubular cast?
Acute tubular necrosis, interstitial nephritis
54
Likely renal disease with fatty casts?
Nephrotic syndrome, minimal change disease
55
Likely renal disease with Broad, Waxy casts?
Chronic renal disease, chronic renal failure
56
Likely renal disease with granular casts?
Nonspecific, often contains cells that have broken down/degenerated or contains aggregates of plasma proteins, seen more often in chronic conditions, but not exclusively
57
3 causes of chronic kidney disease?
-hypertension (damages vessels) -diabetes (blood vessel damage and edema) -obesity (increases intraglomerular pressure)
58
Infection of the kidney caused by the same bacteria that cause cystitis but the bacteria have ascended through the ureter to the kidney
Pyelonephritis
59
Pyelonephritis can be differentiated from cystitis by the presence of...
WBC casts and renal epithelial cells -both will have many WBCs
60
What is seen in pyelonephritis as the disease progresses?
-granular and waxy casts -high protein
61
What may be absent in chronic pyelonephritis?
bacteria and casts
62
Treatment of acute renal failure often leads to...
resolution
63
Chronic renal failure almost always goes to...
End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD)
64
Mortality rates are high in acute renal failure, but it is not a __________ disease like the chronic form.
progressive
65
What are the four stages of renal failure?
1. Diminished renal reserve 2. Renal insufficiency 3. Renal failure 4. End stage renal disease
66
stages of Chronic Renal Failure: GFR drops to about 50% of normal
1. Diminished renal reserve
67
stages of Chronic Renal Failure: -further GFR decrease -BUN and serum creatinine -increase (azotemia) -Anemia -Hypertension
2. Renal insufficiency
68
stages of Chronic Renal Failure: GFR <20% Loss of urine volume and solute regulation Acidosis Edema
3. Renal failure
69
stages of Chronic Renal Failure: GFR <5% Scarring Tubular fibrosis Loss of kidney mass Dialysis and/or kidney transplant required for survival
4. End stage renal disease